sports studies anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

articulating bones at the shoulder

A

humerus, scapula

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2
Q

articulating bones at the elbow

A

humerus radius ulna

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3
Q

articulating bones at the wrist

A

radius ulna carpals

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4
Q

articulating bones at the hip

A

pelvis femur

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5
Q

articulating bones at the knee

A

tibia and femur

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6
Q

articulating bones at ankle

A

talus tibia and fibula

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7
Q

what are functions of the skeleton

A
  1. shape and support 2.protection 3.mineral store 4.blood cell production 5. movement
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8
Q

describe shape and support function

A

shapes framework of the body

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9
Q

describe protection funcition

A

protects vital organs

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10
Q

describe mineral store function

A

calcium,posphorus,magnesium are distribted into the bloodtsream to help strengthen bones

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11
Q

describe blood cell production function

A

red and white blood cells and platelets are producted in bones marrow in long bones primarly

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12
Q

describe movement function

A

provides muscular atachment, levers and pivots

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13
Q

what are the 5 types of bones

A

short, long, flat, irregular, sesamoid

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14
Q

function and example of a short bone

A

tarsals and carpals, weight bearing

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15
Q

function and example of a long bone

A

femur - acts as a lever for movment and blood cell production

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16
Q

function and example of a flat bone

A

sternum- provide protection and muscular attachment

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17
Q

function and example of a ireegular bone

A

verterbrae- provides protection

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18
Q

function and example of a sesamoid bone

A

patella- ease joint movment and resist compression

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19
Q

what is the structure of a long bone

A

centre - diaphysis
two ends- epiphysis - covered by articular cartilage which prevents friction and absorbs shock

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20
Q

Which joints do the following muscles act on?
Iliopsoas Latissimus dorsi

A
  1. Hip
  2. Shoulder
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21
Q

State one enzyme that is active when each of the following energy systems is in use.
ATP-PC (Phosphocreatine) system .
Aerobic system

A
  1. (ATP-PC/Phosphocreatine system): creatine kinase
    (Aerobic system): ATPase / glycogen phosphorylase / GPP / GP /
    phosphofructokinase / PFK / lipase
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22
Q

Describe the terms ‘active’ and ‘passive’ in reference to the assessment of sporting injuries using
SALTAPS.

A
  1. (active) ask performer to move injured body part (without assistance)
    (passive) someone else OR first-aider moves injured body part
    (through full range of motion
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23
Q

Outline what is meant by the term ‘exercise-induced muscle damage’. Describe a sporting situation
that may cause exercise-induced muscle damage.
Exercise-induced muscle damage .

A
  1. Microscopic tears in muscle OR delayed onset of muscle soreness
  2. eccentric muscle contractions e.g. downhill running / plyometrics
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24
Q

Give a practical example of each of the following planes of movement. Saggital and transverse

A

(sagittal) somersault
(transverse) pirouette

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25
Q

analyse the movement at the elbow during the upward phase of the
press-up
Movement, Agonist, Type of contraction, Antagonist

A

Extension Triceps brachii Concentric Biceps
brachii

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26
Q

Describe four mechanisms of venous return that maintain blood flow back to the heart.

A
  1. (Pocket) valves – (one-way valves) that prevent backflow of blood
  2. Muscle/ skeletal pump - skeletal muscles contract squeezing veins
  3. Smooth muscle - in walls of veins contracts / venoconstriction
  4. Respiratory pump - pressure differences in thoracic to abdominal cavity
    during breathing
  5. Gravity helps blood from above heart return to heart
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27
Q

Explain why the minute ventilation of the trained individual is lower at rest than that of the
untrained individual.

A
  1. More efficient gas exchange at alveoli / saturation of haemoglobin
  2. More efficient transport of oxygen
    OR greater number / density of RBCs
  3. More efficient use of oxygen at muscles
    OR better able to meet demands for oxygen OR more myoglobin /
    mitochondria OR higher aerobic capacity
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28
Q

Tidal volume changes during exercise and recovery. Describe the role of proprioceptors
in the control of these changes

A

(during exercise)
1. proprioceptors detect motor activity / movement (in joints/muscles)
2. send messages to respiratory control centre / RCC / inspiratory centre
3. increased stimulation of diaphragm / respiratory muscles
<br></br>(during recovery)
4. proprioceptors detect that movement has stopped / reduced
5. reduced stimulation of diaphragm / external intercostals / respiratory
muscles

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29
Q

Explain the term ‘excess post-exercise oxygen consumption’ (EPOC).

A
  1. (additional) volume of oxygen needed to return body to pre-exercise
    state
  2. alactacid and lactacid OR fast and slow debt components
  3. aerobic energy production during recovery
  4. (oxygen used to) break down of lactic acid / replenishment of oxymyoglobin
  5. (aerobic energy used to) resynthesise ATP / replenish muscle
    phosphagen or PC
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30
Q

Describe intermittent hypoxic training. Identify one benefit and one risk associated with its use.

A
  1. Interval training
  2. under conditions of low oxygen
  3. (benefit) increased RBCs/ haemoglobin volume OR increased oxygencarrying capacity of blood OR increased number/ density of
    mitochondria OR increased buffering capacity OR increased aerobic
    capacity/ VO2 max
  4. (risk) disruption to training OR decreased immune system OR
    increased risk of infection OR dehydration OR benefits are lost quickly
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31
Q

Explain how age and gender may account for differences in VO2 max in the two performers.

A
  1. (age) from early 20s onwards VO2 max decreases
    OR A may be younger (than B)
  2. Due to reduced elasticity in heart / blood vessels / lungs
    OR reduced efficiency in inspiring / transporting oxygen
  3. (gender) females tend to have lower VO2 max
    OR B may be female
  4. Due to lower muscle mass / higher percentage body fat / smaller lung
    volumes / lower stroke volume / cardiac output
    OR lower haemoglobin levels
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32
Q

Outline the timing and the main objectives of the preparatory and transition phases of training.
You must apply your knowledge to a sport of your choice

A
  1. (Preparatory phase) 6 – 12 weeks before start of competition season /
    e.g. July/August for hockey pre-season
  2. (objective) general conditioning / aerobic / strength / mobility training
    (all sports)
  3. (objective) sport-specific training / e.g. basketball skills and drills
  4. (Transition) 4 – 6 weeks after end of season / e.g. June for hockey
    transition season
  5. (objective) active rest / recovery / recuperation / variance (all sports)
  6. (objective) low-intensity / aerobic work / non-specific activities, e.g.
    footballer does cycling / swimming activities
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33
Q

Explain two extrinsic risk factors that may cause injury in sport or physical exercise.
Use practical examples to support your answer

A
  1. Poor coaching / poor technique / poor biomechanical / postural training
  2. e.g. poor tackling technique in rugby OR poor lifting technique in gym
  3. Incorrect equipment / clothing / footwear
  4. e.g. use of tennis racquet that is too heavy OR cricket helmet does not
    fit correctly impairing vision
  5. Inappropriate overload / overtraining / lack of variance
  6. e.g. overuse injuries such as tennis elbow / tendonitis / shin splints
    when running
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34
Q

Identify three factors that affect the stability of a gymnast.

A
  1. Height of centre of mass
  2. Size of base / area of support
  3. Position of line of gravity
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35
Q

A footballer is practising free kicks. After contact, one football travels in a straight line and
another swerves during flight.
Explain the effect of the application of force on the resulting motion of each football in flight.

A
  1. Ball travelling in straight line has linear motion
  2. (application of) a direct force / through CoM
  3. Swerving ball has angular motion
  4. (application of) an eccentric force / torque / not through CoM
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36
Q

An ice skater spins about their longitudinal axis by generating angular momentum.
Use the angular analogue of Newton’s 1st law of motion to explain how the skater can
increase their rate of spin

A

. Skater brings arms or legs in (close to longitudinal axis of rotation)
2. Reducing moment of inertia
3. Increasing angular velocity
4. Principle of conservation of angular momentum
5. AM = MI x AV

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37
Q

Explain how a ski jumper can apply Bernoulli’s principle to maximise the distance travelled
through the air

A
  1. Ski jumper adopts an aerofoil shape
  2. Creates an angle of attack / angle of 17°
  3. Air travels further over top of ski jumper
  4. Air travels faster / at higher velocity over top of ski jumper
  5. Lower pressure above the ski jumper or creates a pressure gradient
  6. Air moves from area of high to low pressure
  7. Lift force created
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38
Q

Explosive strength and aerobic capacity are fitness components that are used during team games.
Describe a situation in a team game when each component will be used

A
  1. (explosive strength) rugby player sprinting down the wing
  2. (aerobic capacity) to jog around in defence in football tracking the ball/
    last full 90 minutes of football match without tiring
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39
Q

Exothermic: ATP
Endothermic: ATP

A
  1. (exothermic) ATP —-> ADP + P + energy
  2. (endothermic) energy + ADP + P —–> ATP
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40
Q

Describe linear motion and angular motion.

A
  1. (linear) movement of a body in a (straight or curved) line and all parts
    move the same distance, in the same direction, in the same time
  2. (angular) movement of a body (or part of a body) in a circular path
    about an axis of rotation
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41
Q

State the metric units of measurement for displacement and acceleration.

A
  1. (displacement) m / metres
  2. (acceleration) metres/sec/sec OR ms-2 OR m/s2
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42
Q

Define the term ‘stroke volume’ and give a typical resting value for a trained individual

A
  1. (SV definition) volume / amount of blood pumped out of heart /
    ventricles / left ventricle per beat
  2. (value) (any value within the range) 80 – 120ml
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43
Q

Elbow in pull up:
Phase of movement, Joint movement, Agonist, Type of contraction

A

Downward- Extension Biceps brachii Eccentric
Upward -Flexion, Bicep brachii, Concentric

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44
Q

Describe the glycolytic (lactic acid) system

A
  1. Anaerobic / without oxygen
  2. Breakdown of glycogen / glucose to pyruvic acid / pyruvate
  3. Pyruvic acid / pyruvate is converted to lactic acid / lactate
  4. Enzyme GPP/glycogen phosphorylase / PFK / phosphofructokinase /
    LDH / lactate dehydrogenase
  5. (net gain of) 2 ATP produced / 1:2 energy yield
  6. Sarcoplasm / cytoplasm of a muscle cell
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45
Q

Evaluate the efficiency of the glycolytic (lactic acid) system in comparison to other energy systems

A
  1. (.cf PC) Produces more ATP / energy / work at a lower intensity /
    longer duration than ATP-PC system
  2. (.cf O2) Produces less ATP / energy / work at a higher intensity /
    shorter duration than aerobic system
  3. LA produced which inhibits performance / denatures enzymes
    OR no by-products from ATP-PC
    OR no inhibiting by-products from aerobic system
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46
Q

Explain why heart and respiratory rates remain above resting levels during the slow
component of EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption).

A

. Lactacid (debt) component
2. Extra / additional oxygen needed
3. Removal of lactic acid / CO2
4. Transported in the blood / exhaled from the lungs
5. Aerobic respiration / energy system used (to aid recovery)
6. (Approx) 5 – 8 litres of oxygen used

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47
Q

Describe the short-term effects of performing at high altitude on the cardiovascular and
respiratory systems.

A

(Cardiovascular) (Sub-max 3)
1. Increase in heart rate
2. Decrease in stroke volume
3. Decrease in maximal cardiac output / heart rate
4. Decrease in blood / plasma volume
5. Reduced haemoglobin saturation (with oxygen)
6. Decrease in O2 transport to muscle
7. Decrease in diffusion gradient <br></br> (Respiratory) (Sub-max 3)
8. Increase in tidal volume / depth
9. Increase in breathing rate / frequency
10.Decrease in ppO2 in inspired air
11.Decrease in oxygen diffusion / diffusion gradient from alveoli to
(capillary) blood / lungs

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48
Q

Explain the benefits and possible drawbacks of the following nutritional ergogenic aids to improve performance. caffeine and hydration

A

(Hydration) (Sub-max 3)
1. (+ve) prevent dehydration / fluid loss OR maintain low / correct blood
viscosity / improved cognitive function OR prevent headaches (or eq.)
associated with dehydration
2. (+ve) prevent overheating / maintain correct body temperature
3. (-ve) reduced / low levels of sodium / salt / electrolytes / EAH /
(exercise-associated) hyponatraemia
4. (-ve) nausea / vomiting / headache / muscle weakness / cramp /
stomach discomfort
(Caffeine) (Sub-max 3)
5. (+ve) increased fat breakdown OR preserved glycogen stores /
glycogen sparing
6. (+ve) increased nerve stimulation OR increased focus / concentration /
improved reaction time
7. (-ve) diuretic / dehydration / increased urine production
8. (-ve) insomnia / anxiety / gastrointestinal / digestive problems / high
blood pressure / heart rate related complications

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49
Q

Describe the use of direct gas analysis as a method of evaluating aerobic capacity

A

Four marks from:
1. Performer cycles / runs on treadmill / performs continuous exercise
2. Progressive / increasing intensity
3. To exhaustion OR maximal test
4. Mask is worn to collect expired air
5. Expired air is analysed
6. (Relative) concentrations of O2 and CO2 are measured
7. (expired air) is compared to atmospheric / inhaled air
<br></br>One mark for:
8. Maximum volume of oxygen consumed per minute
9. VO2max is the accepted / accurate measure
10.VO2max presented on a graph / usage is compared to intensity (using
graph) to give VO2max (AO3)

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50
Q

Explain the impact of regular exercise on the lifestyle diseases of coronary heart disease
(CHD) and asthma

A

(CHD – sub-max 3)
1. Reduces cholesterol / LDL / (blood) lipids / fats
2. Prevents atherosclerosis / build up of fatty deposits / plaque on artery
walls / atheroma
3. Prevents arteriosclerosis / hardening / loss of elasticity of artery walls
4. Decreases blood viscosity / resistance to flow / blood pressure
OR less strain on heart
5. cardiac hypertrophy / increase size / strength of cardiac muscle
OR cardiac efficiency OR decrease resting HR OR increase SV
6. Reduces risk of heart attacks / strokes (or equiv)
(asthma – sub-max 3)
7. Increases strength of respiratory muscles
8. Maintain full use / elasticity of lung tissue
9. Increases surface area of alveoli / efficiency of gas exchange
10.Increase in pulmonary capillaries
11.Reduces risk of chest / respiratory infections

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51
Q

During a netball match, a player suffers an ankle injury. The coach assesses the injury using
‘SALTAPS’ and suspects a sprained ankle.
Describe the treatment the coach should apply to manage this injury.

A
  1. Protect the ankle by use bandages / splints / crutches / moving away
    from play OR from further damage
  2. Rest the ankle by not applying weight / standing OR to allow healing
  3. Ice the ankle by applying cold therapy or eq. OR to reduce swelling /
    inflammation / pain
  4. Compression of ankle using tape / bandage OR to reduce swelling
  5. Elevate the ankle above heart level OR to reduce blood flow
  6. Anti-inflammatories / pain meds / NSAIDs
  7. Refer to hospital if concerned about severity OR if symptoms get worse
  8. Be aware of the possibility of a fracture / broken bone
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52
Q

Describe the factors, other than mass, that impact on the air resistance of a ball in flight.

A

Four marks for:
1. (Velocity) as velocity increases AR increases
2. (Shape) the more aerodynamic / streamlined the lower the AR
3. (Frontal X-sectional area) the greater the frontal cross-sectional area
the higher the AR
4. (Surface) the smoother the surface the lower the AR
5. (Spin) (direction of) spin affects AR

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53
Q

Explain the following terms, using a practical example for each:
Balanced force and Unbalanced force

A

Four marks for:
(balanced force)
1. Two or more forces acting are equal in size and opposite in direction
OR Net force = 0 OR W = R / AR = F
OR no change in motion / stationary / constant velocity
2. E.g. rugby scrum / tug-of-war where there is no movement OR e.g.
runner at constant velocity
(Unbalanced force)
3. Two or more forces are not equal in size OR net force is present OR
change in state of motion / acceleration / deceleration
4. E.g. tennis serve

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54
Q

Define the term ‘angular velocity’. Give an equation for its calculation and state the units it is
measured in.
<br></br>Definition ……………… Equation ………………
Units ……………….

A
  1. (Definition) Rate of change in angular displacement OR rate / speed of
    rotation
  2. (equation) Angular displacement ÷ time OR angular velocity = angular
    momentum / moment of inertia
  3. (Units) radians per second OR rad/s OR rads-
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55
Q

When a right-handed golfer hooks a shot, the ball deviates to the left.
Explain how the golfer creates a hook shot and its effect on the flight path of the ball.

A
  1. Applies an off-centre / eccentric force / torque / moment
  2. Causes side spin
  3. Air flows faster / higher velocity on left side of ball
  4. Creating lower pressure on left side
  5. Air flows from a high to low pressure / pressure gradient
  6. Causing magnus effect / magnus force
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56
Q

Identify two effects which exercise in the heat can have on the cardiovascular system

A

Two marks from:
1. Increased heart rate/ cardiovascular drift
2. (vaso)dilation of arteries/arterioles to skin or increased blood flow to skin
3. decreased blood volume/cardiac output or increased blood viscosity or reduced
plasma volume
4. decreased stroke volume
5. decreased venous return
6. reduced oxygen/oxygenated blood to muscles

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57
Q

Flexibility can be evaluated using the sit and reach test or by using a goniometer. Make two
comparisons between these methods of evaluating flexibility

A

Goniometry 1.                                                  sit and reach<br></br>(Equipment) (360o
) protractor                    uses box/bench and ruler<br></br> (Method) measure joint angle/ degree        Measures distance of reach/ cms s
<br></br>3. (Where) any joint/ planes of
movement           back/hamstring/leg/hip flexibility <br></br>4. (Assistance) Requires assistance                      Can be performed on own <br></br>          (Validity) Goniometers more sport-specific/ accurate/ preferred/ require
more training
6. <br></br>        (Cost/time) Both methods are cheap/quic

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58
Q

Identify the predominant energy system used in an elite level performance for the following
activities:<br></br> 100m freestyle swim completed in 50 seconds <br></br> Gymnastics vault

A

Two marks from:
1. (100m swim) lactic acid system/ glycolytic system/ anaerobic glycolysis
2. (gym vault) ATP-PC/ PC system/ alactic system

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59
Q

Give a sporting example for the following classes of lever:<br></br> Second class<br></br> Third class

A
  1. (second class) e.g. calf raise or take-off phase of high jump at ankle
    <br></br>2. (third class) e.g. bicep curl or knee extension when kicking a ball
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60
Q

Identify a technology that is used in performance analysis to:
<br></br>improve streamlining of an object<br></br> evaluate human movement in three dimensions

A
  1. wind tunnels
  2. limb kinematics
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61
Q

Explain how a motor unit is stimulated to cause muscular contraction

A

Three marks from: <br></br> 1. (Nerve) impulse/stimulus (from brain/spinal cord/CNS) travels down the
axon/motor neuron
2. Action potential
3. Release of sodium/NA+ (ions) causes depolarisation
4. (at neuromuscular junction) neurotransmitter/acetylcholine/ACh is
secreted/transmits impulse
5. impulse crosses synaptic cleft/gap to muscle fibres/motor unit/motor end plate
6. If the impulse/stimulus/charge/action potential is above threshold
7. all muscle fibres in motor unit will contract (or not at all) or ‘all or none’ law applies

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62
Q

Joint  - knee and ankle in upward phase of a calf raise<br></br>Joint type<br></br> Movement
produced <br></br>Agonist<br></br> Type of
contraction
<br></br>

A

                     knee        ankle<br></br>Joint type  - hinge and hinge<br></br> Movement produced - extension or no change in movement and plntar flexion<br></br>Agonist - Rectus femoris and gastrocnemius/soleus<br></br> Type of contraction - – isometric/static or concentric (only if extension stated in A) and concentric 

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63
Q

Describe the predominant energy system which resynthesises ATP while performing the
long jump in athletics.

A

Five marks from:
1. ATP-PC or alactic or PC system
2. PC breakdown releases energy or high energy bond is broken
or PC P + C + energy
3. Energy used to resynthesize ATP/ energy + ADP + P ATP
4. Using coupled reaction/ exothermic and endothermic reactions
5. (reaction) anaerobic/without oxygen
6. (enzyme) creatine kinase
7. (site) sarcoplasm or cytoplasm of muscle cell
8. (yield) 1 ATP per PC/ 1:1 energy yield

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64
Q

Evaluate the effectiveness of predominant energy system to resynthesise ATP

A

Three marks from:
1. Quick or simple reactions or PC breaks down easily or fast ATP resynthesis
2. Provides energy for high-intensity activities/speed/power/explosive strength  3. No delay to wait for oxygen
4. No fatiguing by-products
5. Quick/fast muscle phosphagen/PC recovery or only 30s for 50%/ 2-3min for full
recovery
6. limited stores of PC or stores are exhausted quickly or only lasts 8-10 seconds
7. Only 1ATP per PC or low yield or inefficient

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65
Q

Explain why a knowledge of Excess Post exercise Oxygen Consumption (EPOC) is beneficial
to an 800 metre runner when planning a training session.

A

Four marks from:<br></br> 1. EPOC restores PC/phosphagen/ATP/oxy-myoglobin and removes lactic acid
2. Warm up to reduce oxygen deficit/increase blood flow/oxygen to muscles/delay
OBLA
3. Cool down/active recovery to speed up removal of lactic acid/maintain elevated
respiration/circulatory rates/maintain blood flow
4. (Reduce EPOC by) monitoring intensity of training to delay OBLA
5. Include breaks to allow 30s 50%/2-3mins (full) PC restoration
or work:relief ratio of 1:3+/ full recovery when training ATP-PC system/during
speed/sprint work
6. Active recovery between intervals/work:relief ratio of 1:2/partial recovery when
training lactic acid/glycolytic system
7. Use of cooling aids/ice baths to speed up recovery/reduce EPOC

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66
Q

Outline the physiological implications of a warm up that would be beneficial to a games
player before a match.

A

Four marks from:
1. Increase HR/SV/Q to increase O2/blood flow/ reduce O2 deficit
2. Vascular shunt/vasodilation to increase blood flow to muscles
4
(AO1)
Do not accept: prevent
injury  3. Increase RR/TV/VE to increase volume of O2 in lungs/ for gaseous exchange
4. Increase elasticity of muscles/connective tissue to reduce risk of injury/ DOMS/ increase
speed/force of contraction
5. Activate neural pathways/ speed up nerve transmission
6. Increase enzyme activity
7. Improve recruitment/synchronisation of motor units
8. Improved O2 utilisation/ haemoglobin release O2 more easily

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67
Q

Critically evaluate the use of cooling aids as a means of performance enhancement

A

Four marks from:
(positives - sub-max 3)
1. Reduce (core body) temperature/sweating/ delay overheating/ prevent dehydration/ early
fatigue in hot environments/ heat stroke
2. Reduce thermal strain
3. Reduce cardiovascular drift
4. Causes vasoconstriction to reduce blood flow
5. Treat injuries to reduce pain/swelling/inflammation
6. (after use) vasodilation/increases blood flow to aid healing/repair/removal of LA/speed
recovery/reduce DOMS
<br></br>(negatives – sub-max 3)
7. Hard to perceive exercise intensity/can lead to over-exertion
8. Can mask/complicate injuries
9. Can cause (ice) burns or nerve/tissue damage
10. Can be dangerous for performers with heart conditions/angina/chest pain

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68
Q

Define static and dynamic flexibility. <br></br> Use practical examples to show how each type of flexibility can be beneficial to performance.<br></br> Static flexibility: <br></br> Example:
<br></br>Dynamic flexibility: <br></br> Example:

A

Four marks from:
1. (static) ROM about a joint without movement
2. (e.g.) to be able to do the splits/ to perform the splits well/ gymnast will gain more marks if
able to fully perform splits
3. (dynamic) ROM about a joint with reference to speed of movement
4. (e.g.) to be able to reach for an interception in netball/ kick boxer performing a high kick to
head well/ goalkeeper can reach further

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69
Q

Explain the use of PRICE to manage a hamstring strain in a triple jumper

A
  1. Protect injury <br></br>To prevent further damage
    Or by not attempting to run/walk/stretch injury off or
    support/carry athlete from jumping area
    <br></br>2. Rest injury To allow sufficient time to repair/recover
    Or prevent from having any further jumps/ remove from
    event<br></br> 3. Ice injury To reduce swelling/inflammation/pain
    Or vasoconstrict/reduce blood flow (to the hamstring)
    <br></br>4. Compress injury To reduce swelling/inflammation/blood pooling
    Or use pressure/tape/bandage to reduce blood flow (to the
    hamstring)
    <br></br>5. Elevate injury To reduce blood flow (to the hamstring)
    Or raise the leg above heart level
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70
Q

Explain how the following adaptations from training help to delay the onset of blood lactate
accumulation (OBLA).
Increased enzyme activity ………………..
Increased mitochondrial density<br></br> Increased buffering capacity

A
  1. (enzyme) increases efficiency of ATP-PC system/aerobic system or delays ATP-PC
    threshold
  2. (mitochondria) increased use of oxygen/aerobic energy production/aerobic respiration
  3. (buffering) increased tolerance to lactic acid or reduce effects of lactic acid or prevents the
    decrease in pH
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71
Q

A gymnast performs a handstand as part of their routine.
Identify the vertical forces acting on the gymnast and explain their relationship during the
handstand

A

Three marks for:
1. (identify) weight and reaction (force)/ W and R (forces)
2. (handstand) W = R
3. (Forces) Forces are equal (in size) and opposite (in direction)
or net force = 0 or forces are balanced or forces cancel each other ou

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72
Q

A trampolinist performs a front somersault by creating angular motion.
(i) Define angular motion and explain how it is generated to produce a somersault.

A

Two marks for:
1. movement of a body/part of body (in a circular path) about an axis of rotation or
rotation of a body around an axis
2. force applied outside CoM/axis of rotation or eccentric force/torque/moment/offcentre force

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73
Q

Describe the factors that affect the size of moment of inertia of the trampolinist during the
front somersault.

A
  1. mass
  2. distance/distribution of mass from axis of rotation/centre of mass
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74
Q

In the shot put event the shot becomes a projectile when it is thrown into the air.
(i) Explain three factors that affect the horizontal distance travelled by the shot in flight

A

Three marks for:
1. (speed of release) greater speed/velocity/acceleration/force the greater the distance
or the greater the change in momentum the greater distance
2. (angle of release) (just) less than 45 o optimal angle
3. (height of release) greater the release height the greater the distance travelled
or release height is greater than landing height

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75
Q

Explain the shape of the flight path of the shot when the shot put becomes projectile

A

Three marks for:<br></br> 1. (nearly) parabolic/symmetrical flight path
2. weight is dominant force (as mass is high)/ W>AR
3. air resistance is negligible/low (as speed is low)

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76
Q

1 Define what is meant by ‘acclimatisation to high altitude’ and state one sporting activity in which
performers would benefit from it.

A
  1. Adaptation/ get used to a change of environment/ lower O2 levels
  2. Marathon/ 5000m/ 10,000m runner/ triathlete/ endurance cyclist/ field games e.g. football/
    endurance athlete
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77
Q

Explain why ATP plays a major role in the performance of a smash in badminton.

A
  1. (Duration) ATP breakdown provides energy for immediate need/ up to 2 seconds/ release
    energy quickly
  2. (Intensity) ATP breakdown provides energy for explosive/ powerful/ (very) high intensity
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78
Q

Identify two types of spin and the effect of each on a table tennis ball in flight.

A
  1. Top spin causes ball to dip/ comes down more quickly/ shorter flight path
  2. Back spin causes ball to float/ travel further/ longer flight path
  3. Side spin causes ball to swerve/ bend/ deviate to left or right/ hook/ slice
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79
Q

Compare explosive strength and strength endurance

A

Explosive strength                                 Strength endurance <br></br>-Fast speed of/ elastic contraction           slow speed of contraction<br></br> 2. One/ short series of contraction/movements    Repeated/ sustained contractions/ movements over a period of time/ withstand fatigue<br></br>3. Maximal force or type 2b/ FTG fibres           Submaximal force or type 2a/ FOG fibres 4.<br></br> E.g. sprinting/ jumping/ throwing               E.g. rowing/ swimming

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80
Q

Describe how limb kinematics can be used to enhance performance in sport.

A

Two marks from: 1. (technology) Video/ motion/ 3D analysis of a sporting action/ movement/ skill/ technique 2. (assessment) Assesses gait/ movement efficiency/ velocity/ acceleration/ joint angles 3. (technique) (Identifies small changes) to improve technique 4. (injury) Helps prevent (repetitive strain/joint) injuries

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81
Q

Complete the table below to analyse the position of the right wrist.<br></br>Joint type<br></br> Articulating
bones
<br></br>Plane of
movement<br></br> Movement - (hyper)
extension<br></br> Agonist<br></br> Antagonist .

A

Joint type - Condyloid
/
Ellipsoidal<br></br> Articulating bones - Radius, ulna
and carpals <br></br>Plane of movement - Sagittal<br></br> Movement - (hyper) extension<br></br> Agonist - Wrist extensors <br></br> Antagonist - Wrist flexors

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82
Q

Explain what the energy continuum is and justify the position of one sporting activity on the
energy continuum.

A

Four marks for:<br></br> 1. Relative contribution of each energy system (during an activity)
2. Dependent on intensity and duration (of the activity)
3. E.g. Marathon predominantly aerobic or high jump predominantly anaerobic/ ATP-PC
system or football 50:50 or hockey player uses all 3 systems
4. (Justification) e.g. 100m sprinter very high intensity or e.g. marathon runner low-mod
intensity or e.g. football has elements of high intensity/ sprinting for ball and low intensity/
jogging into position for corner

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83
Q

At the start of an endurance cycling event a cyclist will experience a redistribution of cardiac
output.
Explain how and why the vascular shunt mechanism redistributes blood in a cyclist as they
begin cycling at the start of the event.

A

Five marks from:
Sub max 4 marks from HOW:
(how)
1. Using vasomotor control/ VCC
2. (Vaso)dilation of arterioles leading to working/ leg/ lower body muscles
3. Opening/ dilation of pre-capillary sphincters to working/ leg/ lower body muscles
4. (Vaso)constriction of arterioles to (non-essential) organs/ muscles of upper body
5. Closing/ constriction of pre-capillary sphincters to (non-essential) organs/ upper body
muscles
<br></br>(why)
6. working/ leg/ lower body muscles need most/more oxygen/ (oxygenated) blood
7. muscles of upper body need less oxygen/ blood
8. less oxygen/ blood needed at organs/ (non-essential) organs can cope with a
(temporary) reduction in blood

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84
Q

Describe the mechanics of breathing which cause inspiration at rest.

A

Three marks from:
1. External intercostals contract and diaphragm contracts/ flattens
2. upward and outward movement of the rib cage/ sternum
3. This increases the volume of the thoracic/ chest cavity/ space in the lungs
4. Causing a reduction in pressure in the lungs (compared to outside lungs)
5. Gases/ air moves from an area of high to low pressure

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85
Q

Explain why a trained athlete will have a lower minute ventilation at rest than an untrained
individual, despite having identical tidal volumes

A

Two marks from:
<br></br>1. (efficiency) More efficient O2 utilisation/ gaseous exchange/ diffusion/ oxygen
transportation
2. (adaptations) higher RBC/ Hb volume/ capillarisation/ higher mitochondrial density/
increased surface area of alveoli
3. Fewer breaths taken per minute or lower breathing frequency

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86
Q

Blood doping is an illegal physiological aid used by some athletes to enhance performance.
Outline how blood doping is carried out, and give one physiological benefit and one risk
involved.

A

Three marks for:<br></br> 1. (how) blood is removed from athlete, (stored) and re-injected into the athlete (4 weeks
later)
2. (benefit) increased RBC/ haemoglobin/ oxygen transport/ aerobic capacity/ lactic acid
removal or increased duration/ intensity of exercise or delays fatigue/ OBLA
3. (risk) infections/ hepatitis/ HIV or increased blood viscosity/ blood pressure or decreased
cardiac output or blood clots or heart failure/ attack or stroke

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87
Q

A dislocated shoulder in rugby is an example of an acute sporting injury. <br></br> (i) Compare acute and chronic injuries.

A

Acute injuries<br></br>1. Sudden/ develop quickly<br></br>2. Caused by a knock/ impact/ collision/ fall/ trauma<br></br> Chronic injuries <br></br> Develop slowly/ over a period of time  <br></br>Caused by overuse/ incorrect technique/
repetitive strain/ sudden increase in training/
reduced recovery/ poor ROM/ lack of warm-up

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88
Q

Apart from dislocation, give a sporting example of an acute injury and a chronic injury

A

Acute injury <br></br>E.g. fractured leg from high tackle in football<br></br>Chronic injury
<br></br>1.  E.g. shin splints from too much running on
hard surface
<br></br>E.g. tennis elbow/ golfer’s elbow

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89
Q

 Outline the correct medical treatment a sports coach should apply to a dislocation injury

A

Three marks from:
<br></br>1. Call for medical attention/ ambulance/ doctor/ first aider/ hospital/ surgery
2. Immobilise/ keep still/ protect/ support/ rest joint
3. Do not attempt to manipulate/ relocate bones
4. Ice to reduce swelling/ relieve pain
5. Pain medication/ anti-inflammatories

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90
Q

Describe the factors affecting flexibility that enable the gymnast to perform the splits

A

Three marks from:<br></br> 1. (joint) Ball and socket joint at hip (allows abduction/ splits/ large ROM)
2. (tissues) Greater length/ elasticity of connective tissue/ muscles/ tendons/ ligaments at hip
(allowing splits/ larger ROM)
3. (training) Flexibility/ mobility training increases the flexibility/ abduction/ ROM at hip
4. (temp.) Warm-up used/ increased temperature of tissues (at hip joint to allow splits)
5. (hormone) More oestrogen/ relaxin content (in muscles/ connective tissue at hip) increases
flexibility
6. (Age) Younger gymnasts have greater ROM/ flexibility (at hip joint to allow splits)

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91
Q

Describe two adaptations from training that have enhanced this gymnast’s flexibility by
increasing the range of motion at the hip joint.

A

Two marks from:
<br></br>1. Increased resting length of muscle/ connective tissue
2. Increased elasticity of muscle/ connective tissue
3. Muscle spindles adapt to new length of muscle
4. Delayed/ reduced/ inhibition of stretch reflex

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92
Q

Describe a high intensity interval training (HIIT) session to improve aerobic capacity, and give
two reasons why HIIT is considered more effective than continuous training.

A

Sub max 4 <br></br>for description of HIIT<br></br> 1. Periods of high intensity work and recovery/ rest periods/ intervals
2. (duration) 20-60 minutes for full session
3. (type) cross-training/ cycling/ running/ boxing/ jumping/ swimming/ star jumps/ burpees
etc./ resistance work
4. Work intensity 80-95% of max HR/ 70-90% VO2max 5. Work duration 5 seconds to 8 minutes 6. 4-10 sets/ 10+ reps 7. Recovery intensity lower or 40-50% of max HR 8. Work:relief ratio/ recovery duration = 1:0.5/ 2:1/ 1:1/ work times twice as long or equal to recovery time<br></br>Sub max 2 for greater effectiveness than continuous training<br></br> 9. Higher calorie consumption/ greater fat burning
10. Faster/ more adaptations to training (than continuous)
11. (intensity) Performers can train at a higher intensity for longer
12. (duration) Training time/ duration shorter/ quicker sessions (for similar gains)
13. Individuals with different fitness levels can train together in group/ class session

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93
Q

Define Newton’s third law of motion and apply it to a sporting example of your choice.

A

Three marks for:
1. (Definition N3) For every action/ force (applied to a body) there is an equal and opposite
reaction (force)
2. (Action) E.g. a shot putter applies a force to a shot
3. (Reaction) E.g. the shot applies an equal/ same and opposite reaction/ force to the shot
putter

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94
Q

Using practical examples, explain how the elbow joint can act as a fulcrum for two
different lever systems

A

Four marks for:
1. First class lever (for extension) e.g. triceps extensions/ throwing an object/ tennis serve
2. First class lever fulcrum in the middle/ EFL/ LFE/ appropriate diagram
3. Third class lever (for flexion) e.g. biceps curls (up or downward phase)/ bowls
4. Third class lever effort in the middle/ FEL/ LEF/ appropriate diagram

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95
Q

Explain, using the angular analogue of Newton’s first law of motion, the concept of
conservation of angular momentum

A
  1. A body will continue (to rotate/ turn about its axis of rotation) with constant angular
    momentum….
  2. ….unless acted on by an eccentric/ off-centre force/ torque/ moment of force/ moment
  3. Angular momentum = moment of inertia x angular velocity/ AM = MI x AV/ω
  4. (Once in flight) any change in MI will cause a change in AV to conserve angular
    momentum/ e.g. if a diver tucks, MI is reduced so AV increases
    (which means) angular momentum is a conserved through/ during flight
  5. (shape) Performer can manipulate body shape/ position to change MI and AV as AM
    remains constant
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96
Q

where are fiborous(immoveable) joints found in the body 

A

craium,coccyx,sacrum<br></br>- held together by white collagen fibres

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97
Q

where are cartilaginous( slightly moveable) joints found in the body 

A

the intervertebral discs and the fibrocartilage between vertbrae <br></br>- seperated by some intervening substance

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98
Q

where are synovial (freely moveable) joints found in the body 

A

hip joint<br></br>- mostly present at limbs where the enlargement of one bone can fit the depression of another

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99
Q

describe hyaline/articular cartilage

A

made up of a network of collagen fibres which covers the end of bones, protects the bone tissue and reduces fricition<br></br>- soaks up synovial fluid during exercise so mobility imporves

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100
Q

descsribe white fibrocartilage

A

very tough so found in areas wher eimpact is high e.g. meniscus of the knee, intervertbral discs

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101
Q

describe yellow elastic cartilage

A

very flexible and foud in internal ear and epiglottis

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102
Q

what do ligaments attach

A

bone to bone

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103
Q

function of the ligament

A
  • absorbs shock<br></br>- prevent disclocation <br></br>- stabilises joint during movement<br></br>- ensures good posture and alignment 
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104
Q

structure of the ligament

A

a  tough band of fiborous slightly elastic tissue that connects bone to bone

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105
Q

what do tendons attach

A

muscle to bone

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106
Q

function of the tendons

A

transmits a contraction force to the bone to create movement

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107
Q

structure of the tendon

A

a fiborous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone

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108
Q

what is the cartilage function

A

 protects end of joints and bones<br></br>- prevents friction<br></br>- acts as a shock absorber

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109
Q

what is isnisde a synovial joint

A

ligament <br></br>tendon<br></br>synovial fluid<br></br>articular cartilage<br></br>joint capsule<br></br>bursa

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110
Q

what does the synovial fluid do

A

lubricates the bone to prevent friciton in the joint cavity and nourishes articular cartilage

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111
Q

what does articular cartilage cover

A

end of long bones

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112
Q

what does the joint capsule do

A

encompases the joint to stabilise it and contains the synovial membrane to strengthen joints by secreting synovial fluid

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113
Q

what does the bursa do

A

a fluid filled sac where tendons rub over bones to reduce fricition

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114
Q

describe the ball and socket joint and example

A
  • can move in all axis<br></br>- hip - deep socket which limits motion<br></br>- shoulder - shallow socket to allow more motion and less stability
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115
Q

describe the pivot joint and example

A
  • allows rotation along one axis (long axis)<br></br>- pronation and supernation occurs<br></br>e.g. radio ulna joint
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116
Q

describe the gliding joint and example

A
  • 2 flat surfaces on top of eachother which can glide and rotate<br></br>- ligaments hold it together<br></br>- e.g. carpals and tarsals
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117
Q

describe the hinge joint and example

A
  • movement at one axis<br></br>- alows flexion, extention<br></br>- structure prevents some rotation<br></br>e.g. elbow and ankle
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118
Q

describe the candyloid joint and example

A
  • prevents rotation (only on 2 axis)<br></br>-flexion, extention, abduction, adduction, circumduction<br></br>- can slide inside socket<br></br>e.g. wrists, radio carpals joint
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119
Q

what is the anatomical position

A

facing straight forward, arms by the sides, palms facing forward and feet apart

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120
Q

what is the anterior and proterior position

A

anterior - towards the front of the body<br></br>prosterior- towards the back of the body

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121
Q

what is the medial position

A

towards the middle of the body

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122
Q

what is the superior and inferior position

A

superior- towards the head/ upper part of the body<br></br>inferior- towards the feet/ lower part of the body

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123
Q

what is the proximal and distal position

A

proximal- closer to the origin of the body<br></br>distal- further away from the origin of the body

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124
Q

movements at the ankle

A

dorsi flexion - decreases the joint angle bringing toes closer to the tibia <br></br>plantar flexion - increases the joint angle moving toes away from the tibia

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125
Q

movements at the wrist

A

flexion - decreases angle usually forwards<br></br>extention - increases joint angle usually back<br></br>hyperextention- extention behind the midline of the body

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126
Q

movements at the knee and elbow

A

flexion - decreases angle usually forwards<br></br>extention - increases joint angle usually back

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127
Q

movements at the spine

A

flexion - decreases angle usually forwards<br></br>extention - increases joint angle usually back<br></br>hyperextention- extention behind the midline of the body<br></br>lateral flexion- sideward movement of the spine

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128
Q

movemetns at the hip and shoulder

A

flexion - decreases angle usually forwards<br></br>extention - increases joint angle usually back<br></br>hyperextention- extention behind the midline of the body<br></br>horizontal flexion- towards the midline of the body, parallel to the ground<br></br>horiziontal extention- away from the midline of the body, parallel to the ground<br></br>abduction- away from the body midline<br></br>adduction- towards bodys midline<br></br>medial rotation- along longitudinal axis towards midline<br></br>lateral rotation- along longitudinal axis away from midline<br></br>circumduction- distal end of limbs create a conical movement

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129
Q

movements at radio ulna

A

pronation- rotates limbs towards the inside (palms face downwards)<br></br>supernation- rotates to the outside (palms face upwards)

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130
Q

what is an agonist

A

contracts and shortens to create a movement

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131
Q

what is an antagonist

A

relaxes and lengthens to support the movement 

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132
Q

what is a fixator

A

muscle group which stabilises the movement 

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133
Q

what is the origin

A

<div>•the point of muscular attachment to a
stationary bone (tendon) which stays relatively fixed during muscle contraction&nbsp;</div>

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134
Q

what is the insertion

A

the
point of muscular attachment to a moveable bone which gets closer to the origin
during muscular contraction 

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135
Q

how does the sagittal plane divide the body and what movements ccur

A

divides the body into left and right <br></br>flexion extention dorsi flexion and plantar flexion

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136
Q

how does the frontal plane divide the body and what movements ccur

A

divides the body into front and back<br></br>abduction and adduction

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137
Q

how does the transverse plane divide the body and what movements ccur

A

divides the body into uppser and lower<br></br>horizontal flexion horizontal extention and rotation

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138
Q

how does the longitudinal axes divide the body and example

A

runs from the top to the bottom of the body<br></br>e.g. full twist

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139
Q

how does the transverse axes divide the body and example

A

runs from the side to side of the body<br></br>e.g. front somersualt

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140
Q

how does the frontal axes divide the body and example

A

runs from the front to the back of the body e.g. cartwheel

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141
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the wrist

A

type- condyloid<br></br>ab - carpals, radius, ulna <br></br>insertion- metacarpals<br></br>origin- humerus <br></br>flexion agonist - wrist flextors antagonist- wrist extensors <br></br>extention - agonist - wrist extensors antagonist- wrist flexors

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142
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the radio ulnar

A

type- pivot<br></br>ab- radius ulna<br></br>supination                           pronation<br></br>agonist- supinator               pronator teres<br></br>antagonist- pronator teres       supinator<br></br>insertion - radius                      radius<br></br>origin- ulna and humerus           humerus

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143
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the elbow

A

type- hinge<br></br>ab- humerus radius ulna<br></br>flexion                                      extention<br></br>agonist- bicep brachii               tricep brachii<br></br>antagonist- tricep brachii           bicep brachii<br></br>insertion- radius                   ulna<br></br>orginin- scapula             scapula

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144
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the spine

A

type- gliding<br></br>ab- vertebrae<br></br>flexion                                              extention                       lateral rotation<br></br>agonist- rectus abdominas              erector spinae group       internal and external obliques<br></br>antagonist- erector spinae group      rectus abdominas            external and internal obliques<br></br>insertion- ribs                                      ribs                                illium<br></br>origin- pubis                                     vertebrae (sacrum)           ribs

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145
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the ankle

A

type- hinge<br></br>ab- fibula tibia tarsals<br></br>plantarflexion                                           dorsi flexion<br></br>agonist- gastrocnemius and soleus                tibialis anterior<br></br>antaonist- tibialis anterior                         gastrocnemius and soleus<br></br>insertion- calcaneus                              calcaneus<br></br>origin- femur (G) fibula (S)             tibia

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146
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the knee

A

type- hinge<br></br>ab- femur and tibia<br></br>flexion                                      extention<br></br>agonist- bicep femoris            rectus femoris<br></br>antagonist- rectus femoris           bicep femoris<br></br>insertion- tibia and fibula (bf)          patella and tibia<br></br>origin- coxa (illium)                  illlium

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147
Q

type of joint, articulating bones, insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the shoulder (flexion extention)

A

type- ball and socket<br></br>articulating bones - humerus , glenoid fossa<br></br>flexion <br></br>agonist- anterior deltoid<br></br>antagonist- prosterior deltoid<br></br>insertion- humerus<br></br>origin- clavicle<br></br>extention<br></br>agonist- prosterior deltoid<br></br>antagonist- anterior deltoid<br></br>insertion- humerus<br></br>origin- scapula

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148
Q

 insertion, origin and agonist and antagonist of the shoulder (hz flexion and extention)

A

hz flexion                            hz extention<br></br>agonist- pectoralis major       trapezius     <br></br>antagonist- trapezius            pectoralis major<br></br>insertion- humerus                 clavicle and scapula<br></br>origin- clavicle and sternum          vertebrae

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149
Q

insertion, origin, agonist and antagonist of the shoulder (abduction and adduction)

A

adduction                                   abduction<br></br>agonist-  latissimus dorsi          middle deltoid<br></br>antagonist-    middle deltoid       latissimus dorsi<br></br>insertion-   humerus             humerus<br></br>origin- vertebrae           scapula

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150
Q

insertion, origin, agonist and antagonist of the shoulder (medial and lateral rotation)

A

medial rotation                                                lateral rotation<br></br>agonist- teres major subscapularis                           teres minor infraspinatus<br></br>antagonist - teres minor infraspinatus                teres major subscapularis<br></br>insertion- humerus                                    humerus <br></br>origin- scapula                                          scapula

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151
Q

type, articulating bones,insertion, origin, agonist and antagonist of the hip (flexion and extention)

A

type- ball and scoket<br></br>ab- femur and illium (acetabulum)<br></br>flexion                                              extention<br></br>agonist- iliopsoas                         gluteus maximus<br></br>antagonist- gluteus maximus          iliopsoas<br></br>insertion- femur                            femur<br></br>origin- vertebrae                             vertebrae

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152
Q

insertion, origin, agonist and antagonist of the hip (adduction and abduction)

A

adduction                                            abdcution<br></br>agonist- adductor longus                     gluteus medius and minimus<br></br>antagonist- gluteus medius and minimus          adductor longus<br></br>insertion- femur                                      femur<br></br>origin- pubis                                     illium

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153
Q

insertion, origin, agonist and antagonist of the hip (medial and lateral rotation)

A

medial rotation                        lateral rotation<br></br>agonist- gluteus minimus          gluteus maximus<br></br>antagonist- gluteus maximus            gluteus minimus<br></br>insrtion- femur                         femur<br></br>origin- illlium                  vertebrae

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154
Q

descirve the 3 types of contractions

A

isotonic - muslces that change length under tensiion<br></br>concentric - shortening <br></br>eccentric - lengthening<br></br>isometric - muscles that dont change in length but still remain under tension

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155
Q

what hapens during weighted cations with the agonist

A

when working against gravity and/or aganist body weight, muscles are required to control the movement to prevent inuries <br></br>- upward phase typically stay the same but downward phase agonist is same as upward phase agonist

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156
Q

what is an isotonic muscular contraction

A

muscles that change length under tension<br></br>- concentric - shortening <br></br>- eccentric - lengthening

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157
Q

what are isometric muscles 

A

muscles that dont change length but still remain under tension

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158
Q

what is a muscle contraction

A

the activation of tension generating sites within muscles fibres 

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159
Q

how is the impulse transmitted

A

the brain - at the centre of the muscle contraction (sends the impulse)<br></br>motor neuron - transmits an imuplse along the nervous system<br></br>dendrite- is connected to the brain and has a lot of connection sites so cant be damaged<br></br>axon - the main body of the cell which travels down the spinal chord and into the muscle<br></br>axon terminal - is the motor end plates which are the connecting plates that connect to the muscle<br></br>myelin sheath- insulates the cells, non ocnductive and surrounds the axin<br></br>node of ranvier - gaps which allow the eletrical impulses to travel quicker making the electricity jump from cell to cell to prpovide quicker reactions

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160
Q

what is a motor unit 

A

consists of a motor neurone and a number of associated muscle fibres

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161
Q

how does sending an electrical impulse work

A
  • is an electrochemical process<br></br>- it is mainly salts which are needed to move the impulse down to the muscle fibres <br></br>- relies on action potential to conduct the impulse down the axon to the muscle fibres
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162
Q

what is an action potential

A

a positive electrical charge inside the nerve and muscle cells which conducts the nerve impulse down the neuron and into the muscle fibre (permanetly charged)

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163
Q

what happens where the motor end pates meet the muscle fibre

A
  • motor neurone is not directly connected to muscle fivres there is a gap (neuronmuscular junction) at the end of the axon and muscle fibre<br></br>- the gap is called the synaptic cleft adn there is also a break in the action potential
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164
Q

what happens at the neuromusuclar junction

A
  • action potential cannot pass the synaptic cleft without a neurotransmitter or specifically acetylcholine (ach)<br></br>-ach fills the synaptic cleft to allow the impulse to continue<br></br>- as long as the impulse is aboove a thershold and there is enough ach then a wave of contraction will occur down the muscle which initiates the tension
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165
Q

what is the all or none law

A
  • all the muscle fibres within the motor unit will contract at the same time with maximum force or not at all when stimulated 
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166
Q

what is the effect on stiumlating more motor units 

A

increased strength/force of contraction

167
Q

describe the nervous stimulation of a motor unit

A
  • electrical impulse causes an action potential and travels down the axon <br></br>-release of sodium causes depolarisation <br></br>- neurotransmitter or ach is released <br></br>- travels across synaptic cleft/synapse <br></br>-if the electrical charge is above the threshold <br></br>- impulse stimulates muscle fibres to contract / cause wave of contraction <br></br>-all or none law means all fibres whithin motor unit contrct or none contract
168
Q

desribe the looks of SO - type 1 ,FOG- type 2a , FG - type 2b

A

so - small and red due to oxygen<br></br>fog- large and pink<br></br>fg- large and white

169
Q

functional characteristsics of SO fibres

A

speed of contraction - slow<br></br>force of contraction - low<br></br>fatigue resistance - high<br></br>aerobic capacity - high<br></br>anaerobic capacity - low<br></br>highest percentage - marathon/traiathlon<br></br>of fibres 

170
Q

functional charactersistics of fog fibres

A

speed of contraction - high/fast<br></br>force of contraction - high<br></br>fatigue resistance - moderate<br></br>aerobic capacity - moderate<br></br>anaerobic capacity - moderate<br></br>highest percentage - 800m to 1500m or 200m freestyle<br></br>of fibres 

171
Q

functional characterstics of fg

A

speed of contraction -fast/very high<br></br>force of contraction - high<br></br>fatigue resistance - loq<br></br>aerobic capacity - low<br></br>anaerobic capacity - high<br></br>highest percentage - 60-100m sprint, javelin , long jump<br></br>of fibres 

172
Q

structural characterstics of so fibres

A

neuron size - small<br></br>fibres per neuron - few<br></br>capillary density - high<br></br>mitochondria density - high<br></br>myoglobin density- high<br></br>phosphcreatine store - low

173
Q

structural characertsics of fog fibres

A

neuron size - large<br></br>fibres per neuron - many<br></br>capillary density - high<br></br>mitochondria density - moderate<br></br>myoglobin density- moderate<br></br>phosphcreatine store -high

174
Q

structural charactersitics of fg fibres

A

neuron size -large<br></br>fibres per neuron - many<br></br>capillary density - low<br></br>mitochondria density - low<br></br>myoglobin density- low<br></br>phosphcreatine store - high

175
Q

what is hennemans size principle 

A
  • depending on the intensity of the activity so muscle fibres will always be recruited first as they have the highest resistance to fatigue<br></br>low intensity - so is always recruited first<br></br>higher intensity- fog fibres will be recruited alongside so fibres<br></br>near maximal intensity- fg fibres are recruited as well as so and fog <br></br>always goes - so- fog-fg
176
Q

recovery speed and work:relief ratio for so fibres

A

recovery speed- very quickly (90 seconds)<br></br>1:1 or 1:2

177
Q

recovery speed and work:relief ratio for fog fibres

A
  • recovery speed is slower than so fibres but faster than fg muscle fibres. This can depend on intensity of execerice e.g. if  they have been used to exhastion <br></br>-1:2
178
Q

recovery speed and work:relief ratio for fg fibres

A
  • recovery speed is very slowly (careful consideration is needed when designing of training session)<br></br>- 1:3+ including 1:5 or 1:6 for explosive stregth/events <br></br>- during weight lifting 3-5 minutes is required beween sets
179
Q

what are glycolytic muscle fibres

A
  • when glycolytic muscle fibres have been used to exhuastion they will take 4-10 days to recover<br></br>- maximal weight training sessions should have a min of 48 hours before using the same muscle group again. This is because until this point these will not be available for recrtuiment and contraction
180
Q

what happens during recovery after the fg fibres have worked at thier max output

A
  • they will be the first top 2 ‘drop out’. This is mainly because they take a longer time to recover as well as having a lower resistance to fatigue<br></br>- as intensity reduces the fog muacle fibres will also demobilise in order to recruit only the least amount of fibres necessary
181
Q

benefits on bones

A

increased bone density,stronger/healthier bones

182
Q

benefits on joints

A

healthier, increase in thickness of cartilage, improved lubication by synovial fluid

183
Q

benefits on connective tissues

A

stronger ligaments, musuclar hypertrophy of muscles surrounding joints

184
Q

other benefits

A

decrease obesity, improved posture and alignment

185
Q

how are stronger bones a benefit

A
  • reduces a risk of osteoporisis which makes bones more prone to fractures and damage/ weight bearring activities are best to improve bone health
186
Q

how is increased bone density a benefit

A

calcium/collagen within the bone increases which strengthens the bone - prevents growth plate injuries and shin splints

187
Q

how is increasing in thickness of articular cartilage a benefit

A

greater ability to absorb shock which reduces risk of injury/covers end of long bones to reduce friction between bones - reduces risk of osteoarthitis in later life ( a degenative disease due to a loss of articular cartilage)

188
Q

stronger ligaments/ muscle surrounding joints

A

increased joint stablity - less risk of injury such as strains and dislocations 

189
Q

how is better lubrication of joints by synovial fluid a benefit

A

improves joint health- reduces risk of developig osteoarthiris in later life

190
Q

how is muscular hypertrphy a benefit

A

increase speed and force of contraction

191
Q

how is improved posture and alignment a benefit

A

reduces risk of injury and more efficient movements in sport- increases strength of core muscles to prevent excess pressure on lower spine

192
Q

how is reducing overall weight a benefit

A

less strain on connective tissues/joints which reduces risk of injury and increased mobility to prevent a sedentary lifestyle

193
Q

what is osteoarthiritis

A
  • a degenerative disease that can affect the many tissues of the joint (age)<br></br>- worsened by overdoing activity and weight gain<br></br>- treatment such as exercise medicine and supportive therapies
194
Q

what is osteoporisis

A
  • weakens bones making them brittle and fragile so more likley to break<br></br>- worsen by low calcium and vitamin d, poor protien intake, excessive dieting<br></br>- treatment includes calcium and vitamin d supplements, medication
195
Q

what is an acute injury

A

occur at a specific movement in time when there is a sudden injury associated with a traumatic event

196
Q

what is a chronic injury

A

occurs over a period of time and develops slowly and is associated with repeated or continuos stress and overuse

197
Q

types of acute injuries

A
  • fractures<br></br>- dislocation<br></br>- haemotoma (clotted blood within the tissues)<br></br>- contusion (bruise)<br></br>- concussion<br></br>- muscle strain/ tear<br></br>- abrasion (graze)<br></br>- growth plate injuries<br></br>- bursitis (as a result of injury or infection)<br></br>- muscle sprain/ligament tear
198
Q

types of chronic injuries

A
  • stress fracture<br></br>- shin splints (periostits)<br></br>- tennis elbow (lateral epicondylits)<br></br>- golfers elbow (medial epicondylitis)<br></br>- wear and tear of cartilage<br></br>- osgood schlatters<br></br>- growth plate injuries<br></br>- bursitis <br></br>- muscle strain/ ligaments tears
199
Q

what is repetitive activity

A

those involving movement at specific joints which are repeated many times during the performance e.g. swimming, badminton, javelin, squash, tennis

200
Q

what are impact sports

A
  • those including any downward pressure of the feet on the ground e.g. running, long jump, triple joint, basketball
201
Q

what are contact sports

A
  • those involving collisions between bodies/ structures of the body e.g. rugby and ice hockey
202
Q

repetitive sport injuries

A
  • stress fractures<br></br>- growth plate injuries<br></br>- shin splints<br></br>- osgood schlatters<br></br>- tennis/golfers elbow<br></br>- bursitis<br></br>- wear and tear
203
Q

high impact injuries

A
  • stress fractures<br></br>- growth plate injuries<br></br>- osgood schlatters<br></br>- wear and tear of cartilage
204
Q

contact sport injuries

A
  • fractures<br></br>- growth plate injuries<br></br>- muscle tear/ strains<br></br>- haemotoma/contusion<br></br>- concussion<br></br>- muscle sprain<br></br>- dislocation
205
Q

effects of a warm up

A
  • increased temp of skeletal muscle which increases the elasticity of the muscles and increases the range of movement in joint/tissue<br></br>- greater force or speed of muscular contraction (increased contractivity)<br></br>- reduced viscosity within the muscle tissue<br></br>- increased speed of nerve transmission<br></br>- increased motor unit recruitment <br></br>- increased co ordination between antagonistic pairs<br></br>- increased enzyme activity which leads to increased energy production
206
Q

role of atria

A

collect and stores blood

207
Q

pressure of atria

A

low so thin walls

208
Q

role of ventricles

A

eject blood vessles

209
Q

pressure of ventricles

A

high so thick walls

210
Q

which side is oxygenated

A

left

211
Q

which side is deoxygnated

A

right

212
Q

what do arteries do

A

carry blood away from the heart

213
Q

what do veins do

A

carry blood into the heart

214
Q

what does the aorta do

A

largest artery and carries oxygnated blood from the left ventricle to the muscle/cells

215
Q

what do the superior and inferior vena cava do

A

largest vein in the body and carries deoxygnated blood from the muscles to the right atrium

216
Q

what does the pulmonary artery do

A

carries deoxygnated blood from the rv to the lungs

217
Q

what is the pulmonary 

A
218
Q

what is the pulmonary vein

A
  • carries oxygnated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
219
Q

what are the av valves

A
  • between atria and ventricles<br></br>- bicuspid (left)<br></br>- tricuspid (right)
220
Q

what are the SL valves

A
  • between the ventricles and exisiting blood vessels<br></br>-pulmonary valves (right)<br></br>- aortic valve (left)
221
Q

what is the pulmoary circuit

A
  • carries deoxygnated blood to the lungs and oxygnated blood back to the heart<br></br>
222
Q

what is systematic circuit

A
  • carries oxygnated blood to the musclea and deoxygnated blood back to the heart
223
Q

pathway of blood

A

deoxygnated blood in right atrium- tricuspid valve- right ventricle- pulmonary valve- pulomary artery- lungs - pulomnary vein(oxygnated)- left atrium- bicuspid valve- left ventricle- aortic valve- aorta- muscles/cells- vena cava- back to right atrium

224
Q

what is the conduction system

A

the creation and passing of the electrical impulse through the cardiac muscle which causes the cardiac cycle of events, together form a singular heart beat

225
Q

what does it mesn that the cardiac muscle is myogenic

A

capacity of the heart to generate its own eletrical impulse causing the cardiac muscle to contract

226
Q

what is sino atrial node (sa node)

A
  • natural pace maker of the heart<br></br>- firing rate determines the heart rate<br></br>- located in the right atrium<br></br>- stimulates atria to contract
227
Q

atrio-ventricular node (av node)

A
  • located in the right atrium<br></br>- electrical gateway to ventricles <br></br>- delays passage of eletrcial impulse to ventricles <br></br>- ensures all blood is ejected into venricles before they contract
228
Q

what is bundle of His

A
  • branches to the apex of the heart<br></br>- signal goes down the septum
229
Q

what is the purkinjie fibres

A
  • bottom of the ventricles<br></br>- causes ventricles to contract
230
Q

what is the cardiac cycle

A
  • process of muscle contractions and the movement of blood through its chambers
231
Q

what does one cardiac cycle represent

A

1 heartbeat

232
Q

how long at rest does it take to complete one cycle

A

approx 0.8 seconds

233
Q

what is cardiac diastole

A
  • relaction of cardiac muscles<br></br>- chambers fill with blood first atria and then ventricles
234
Q

what is cardiac systole

A

-  contraction of the cardiac muscle where the bood is forcibly ejected into the aorta or pulmonary artey<br></br>- occurs first in atria where blood is ejected into ventricles<br></br>- secondly in the ventricles where blood is ejected into the aorta and pulmonary artery

235
Q

pressure,valves and blood flow in diastole 

A

in 0.45seconds<br></br>valaves - none open due to atria fillinf with blood but the pressure then opens the bicuspid and tricuspid valves but the pulmonary and aortic are closed<br></br>low pressure- ventricles<br></br>high pressure- atria<br></br>blood flow- atrium to ventricles

236
Q

pressure,valves and blood flow in atria systole

A

in 0.1s<br></br>- atria contract forcing the remaining blood into the ventricles<br></br>- sl valves remain closed

237
Q

pressure,valves and blood flow in ventricular systole

A

in 0.3s<br></br>valves- aortic and pulmonary open, bicuspid and tricuspid closed to stop backflow<br></br>pressure- increase in ventricles <br></br>blood flow- to lungs via pa or body via aorta

238
Q

what is the ejection fracgtion (% of blood ejected at rest)

A

50-75%

239
Q

how they work together for contraction and relxation

A
  • no electrical impulse- where diastole occurs- atria fills with blood<br></br>- sa node inititates impulse-causes atria systole- atria contracts foricng blood into ventricles<br></br>- av node delays the passage of electrical impulse into the ventricles to ensure all blood is in the venttricles<br></br>- bundles of his- sigal does down the septum and the purkinje fibre cause the ventricles to contract- ventricular systole forces blood into the pulonary artery for the lungs or the aorta to take blood to the body
240
Q

defintion of heart rate

A

number of times the heart beats per min <br></br>- 72bpm at rest

241
Q

defcinition of stroke volume

A

volume of blood ejected from the left ventircle per beat<br></br>- 70ml at rest

242
Q

definiton of cardiac output

A

voulme of blood ejected from the left ventricles per min <br></br>5L at rest

243
Q

factors effect hr

A

 genetics<br></br>gender<br></br>fitness

244
Q

what is bradycardia

A

elite athletes tend to have a resting hr of less than 60bpm

245
Q

how to calculate max hr

A

220-age

246
Q

what is stroke volume

A
  • occurs atventricular systole<br></br>-greater for elite atletes<br></br>-bradycardia is also due to an increase in sv as the heart does not have to beat as often at rest because of a greater volume of blod beinf ehected per beat
247
Q

what is stroke volume dependent on

A

1.venous return- the amount of blood returning to the heart,right ventricle, via the viens<br></br>- the greater vol of blood returning,greater vol of blood avaivale in ventricles to eject<br></br>2. ventricular elasticity and contractibility- the degree of stretch in the cardiac muscle fibres. The greater the stretch, the greater the force of contraction which increases sv

248
Q

calculation of stroke volume

A
  • end diastolic vol - amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction<br></br>- end systlolic vol- amount of blood in the ventricles after contraction<br></br>edv-esv = stroke volume
249
Q

wha is ejection fraction

A

the percentage of blood ejeted from the ventricles during the ventricular systole (contraction)<br></br>- sv/edv= ejection fraction

250
Q

calculation for cardiac output

A

heart rate x stroke volume = Q

251
Q

figures for an untrained person

A

hr- 70-72bpm<br></br>sv-70ml<br></br>q- 5L/min

252
Q

figures for s trained athlete

A

hr-50bpm<br></br>sv- 100ml<br></br>q-5L/min

253
Q

what is submaximal exercise

A

low to moerate intensity of exercise within the performers aerobic capacity e.g. 5k, marathon

254
Q

what is maximal exercise

A

a high intensity of exercise above the performers aerobic capacity that will include fatigue e.g.200/400m sprint

255
Q

graph of sumaximal exercise

A

1.anticipatory rise (prior to start of exercise) due to the release of the hormone adrenaline<br></br>2. rapid incease at start of exercise to increase blood and oxygen delivery, in line with exercise intensity<br></br>3. a steady hr throughout sustained exercise as oxygen supply meets the demand of exercise<br></br>4. inital rapid decrease (recovery entered) action of the muscle pump reduces<br></br>5.gradual decrrease of hr as hr returns to resting levels

256
Q

graph for maximal exercise

A
  1. anticipatory rise prior to the start of exercise due to release of adrenaline<br></br>2. rapid increase due to the greater amount of oxygen required to supply muscles<br></br>3. slower increase as the heart rate does not plateu as exercise intensity continues to increase as their is a growing demand for oxygen and waste removal which the hr must strive to meet<br></br>4. rapid decrease as the muscle pump action reduces<br></br>5. slower gradual decrease as this takes longer as the heart must continue to remove waste products at a higher rate as well as taking a longer time to return to the hr back to resting values
257
Q

how stroke volume reponds to submaximal and maximal exercise 

A
  • will increas ein poroportion to exercise intensity until a plateu is reached at apporx 40-60% of working capacity<br></br>- when running sv will increase linearly as the running speed increases, once it reaches 40-60% of maxial intensity sv plateus<br></br>- this suggests sv values are reached during submaximal exervcise and cannot increase further beyond this.
258
Q

how stroke volme increases 

A

increaseed venous return- vol of blood which returns from the body to the heart<br></br>during exercise- venous return increases meaning there is a greater volume of blood returning to the heart and filling the ventriclesThis is due to the muscles surrounding the veins which contract to pump the blood back to the heart.

259
Q

what is frank starling - starling law

A

increased venous return leads to an increased sv due to an increased stretch of the ventricle walls and therefore increased the force of contraction which shows sv is dependent on venous return.<br></br>increased vol of blood returning to ra- increased edv in ventricles- stretches ventricle walls-increases force of contraction- large vol of blood ejected<br></br>- the lower the hr, the more time available to maximise this effect hence why we see greater exefrcising sv in trained athlees

260
Q

why sv plateu in submaximal intensity

A

an increased hr to maximal intensities does not allow enough time for the ventricles to completly fill with blood in the diastolic phase. This limits frank starling mechanism

261
Q

what happens to sv during recovery phase

A

sv is maintained during the early stages of recovery as hr rapidly increases<br></br>this will maintain the blood flow and removal o waste products while lowering the stress and workload of cardiac muscles

262
Q

cardiac output in response to submaximal and maximal exercise

A

q is the product of sv and hr. Therefore the response to exercise and recovery is a combination of the two.<br></br>Q increases in line with exercise intensity and plateus during maximal exercise<br></br>in recovery there is a rapid decrease followed by a slower dxecrease to resting values

263
Q

submaximal values

A

sv- untrained= 80-100ml, trained= 160-200ml<br></br>hr- up to 100-130bpm<br></br>q- up to 10l/min

264
Q

maximal vlaues

A

sv- untrained= 100-120ml , trained= 160-200ml<br></br>hr- 220-age<br></br>q- 20/40l/min

265
Q

what is the cardiac control centre

A

located in the medulla oblongata of the brain<br></br>primarly responsible for reuglating the heart and ccc is controlled by the autonomic nervous system(ANS)

266
Q

what determins the firing rate of the SA node

A
  • nervous system<br></br>sympathetic- increases hr<br></br>parasympathetic- decreases hr
267
Q

what are motor nerves

A

nerves which stimulate muscle tissue causing motor movment

268
Q

what are sensory nerves

A

nerves which transmit info to the cns e.g. from receptors to the ccc

269
Q

what happens when exercise begins

A
  1. ans is actioned<br></br>2. info is sent to the cardiac control centre<br></br>3.located in the medulla oblongata<br></br>4. impulses are sent via the cardiac accelerator nerve<br></br>5.increases firing rate of sa node<br></br>6. increasing heart rate
270
Q

neural control

A
  1. chemoreceptors-located in the muscles , aorta and the carotid arties , inform the ccc of any chemical changes in the bloodstream such as increased levels of co2, latic acid and decrease in pH<br></br>2, proprioreceptors- located in muscle tendons, joints and inform the ccc of motor activity , detects movement and changes in joint angles<br></br>3. baroreceptors- located in blood vessels and inform ccc of increased blood pressure
271
Q

intrinsic control

A
  • temp changes- affect the viscosity of the blood and speed of nerve transmissions (higher temp of blood,faster the speed)<br></br>- venous return changes will affect the stretch in the ventricle walls, force of ventricular contraction and therefore sv (starling law)<br></br>
272
Q

horomal control

A
  • adrenaline and noradrenaline are released from the adrenal glands increasing the force of ventricular contraction and sv increasing hr<br></br>- noradrenaline also acts as a neurotransmitter : a chemical substance which is released at the end of a nerve fibre and ransmits the impulse across the synapase
273
Q

what happens if there is an increase in Hr

A
  • sympathetic nervous system releases adrenaline and noradrenaline<br></br>- signal sent to sa node<br></br>- down the accelerator nerve<br></br>- increases hr and force of venttricular contraction
274
Q

what happens if a decrease in hr is rewuired

A

parasympathetic actioned<br></br>signal sent to sa node via vagus nerve <br></br>lowers hr reduces force of ventricular contraction<br></br>reduces sv slowly

275
Q

baroreceptors and pressure control

A

during exercise blood pressure increases, if it gets too high damage can be caused to the inner lining of the vessels. Therefore the parasympathetic nervous system is activated which will decrease hr. This will be neutralised in relatioin to the demand of o2. If blood pressure reduces below normal level the sympathetic nervous syste will be activated and the heart will increase via a message sent by the accelerator nerve

276
Q

what does blood consist of and its functions

A

45% cells, 55% plasma<br></br>functions<br></br>- transport nutrients (o2 and glucose)<br></br>- protect and fight disease<br></br>- maintain internal stability<br></br>- reguate temp

277
Q

venous return mechanisms

A

pokcet valves-one way valve located in the veins preventing backflow<br></br>muscular pump- contraction of skeletal muscle during exercise which compresses the vein forcing blood back towards the heart<br></br>respiratory pump- during inpsiratoin and expiration a pressure difference between the thoraic and abdominal cavitis is created which squeezes blood back towards the heart<br></br>smooth muscle- layer of smooth muscle in the walls of the veins vasocontsrict to create an increase of blood flow to the hart<br></br>venomotor tone- maintianing pressure in the vein and thus helping the transport of blood back to the heart<br></br>gravity- blood from above the heart returns towards it

278
Q

how venous return impact the quality of performance

A

reduction of sv decreases blood/o2 flow to working muscles<br></br>exercise intensity must be reduced or muscles will have to work anaerobically and muscle fatigue will occur<br></br>althrough this is more significant in prolonged aerobic acitvity<br></br>this would mean that a good vr will speed up recovery therefore allow performers to work anaerobically for longer

279
Q

what is blood pooling

A

the accumulation of blood in the veins due to gravitational pull and lack of venous return as it requires force to push blood back towards the heart, if there is insufficent pressure the blood will sit in the pocket valves of the veins<br></br>described as feeling of heavy legs<br></br>increased cardiac output sent to the muscles will pool in the veins if there is an insufficent pressure

280
Q

during rest- blood pooling

A

pocket valves, gravity and smooth muscles are sufficient to maintian venous return however not during or immediatly after exercise. Skeletal and muscular pump are needed to ensure it is maintained

281
Q

how to maintian mechanism for blood pooling

A
  • active cooldown helps to maintain these mechanisms <br></br>- elevated respiration rate maintians the respiratory pump and continued skeletal muscualr contractions maintain the effect of the skeletal muscular pump<br></br>- all of the mechanisms help maintain vr and redistribution of cardiac output to prevent blood pooling
282
Q

what is vasodilation and vasoconstriction

A

vasodilation- dilating the blood vessels in particular the arteries and arterioles<br></br>vasoconstriciton- narrowing of blood vessels

283
Q

why vasodilation occurs

A

allows more o2 to be trasnported to working muscles/organs. More nutrients to be transported (glucose), decreased blood pressure, removal of waste products faster 

284
Q

what are pre capillary sphincters 

A

can constrict/relax to allow more/less blood to flow to the capillaries and therefore to the working muscles/organs.<br></br>constrict- limit the blood flow to the capillary bed<br></br>dilate- maximises the blood flow into the capillary bed

285
Q

changes in blood flow

A

skeletal muscle- higher<br></br>coronary vessels- higher<br></br>kidney and liver- lower<br></br>brain- same<br></br>whole body- higher

286
Q

vascular shunt 

A

redistribution of blood flow from one area of the body to another<br></br>controlled by vasomotor control centre (vcc)<br></br>occurs from a period of rest to exerise and allows for a greater % of blood flow to skeletal muscles

287
Q

vascular shunt at rest

A

a high % of Q is distributed to the organs whereas a low % is distributed to the working muscles.<br></br>This is because atrerioles vasodilate increasing blood flow to the organs while arterioles vasoconstrict decreasing blood flow to the muscles. Pre capillary sphincters dilate allowing more blood flow to the organ cells while constricting to the muscle cells.

288
Q

what is coronary heart disease

A

results from artherosclerosis of the coronary arteries meaning there is a reduction in the blood flow and oxygen to the heart

289
Q

what is a stroke

A

caused by a blockage in cerebral artey such as a blood clot or burst blood vessel which cuts the supply of oxygen to the brain

290
Q

what is a heart attack

A

blockage of the coronary artery cutting off the oxygenated blood flow to an area of cardiac muscle

291
Q

what is artherosclerosis

A

build up of fatty deposits that form hard plaque in the arterial walls which narrows the lumen so it reduces the space for blood flow and blood clots can form which reducs the ability for vasoconstriction and dilation. Hypertension can ocur

292
Q

effects of training

A

-reducses cholesterol levels as it increases the proportion of hdl<br></br>- prevents hardeninf and loss of elasticity in the arterial walls due to regular vasconstiction and dilation<br></br>- decreases blood viscocity and resistance to blood flow to prevent blood clots and high blood pressure<br></br>-increases coronary circulation<br></br>- cardiac hypertrophy increases efficiency of heart and increased venticular contraciton and stroke volume<br></br>- manages weight<br></br>- increases blood flow and oxygen to muscle cells<br></br>- lower bp

293
Q

flow of air 

A

nasal cavity/oral cavity- pharynx-larynx-trachea-bronchi-bronchiole-alveolar duct- alveolar sacs- alveolar 

294
Q

mechanics of breathing in rest (inspiration)

A

muscles- diaphragm contracts activley and flatterns, external intercostal muscles contract activley<br></br>movement of ribs and sternum- up and out<br></br>thoracic cavity volume- increases<br></br>lng air pressure (in relation to atmospheric air)- lower<br></br>air movement- into the lungs 

295
Q

mechanics of breathing at rest (expiration)

A

muscles- diaphragm passivley relaxes and pushed upwards, external intercostal muscles passibley relax<br></br>movement of ribs and sternum- down and in<br></br>thoracic cavity volume- decreases<br></br>lng air pressure (in relation to atmospheric air)- higher<br></br>air movement- out the lungs 

296
Q

mechanics of breathing flowchart

A

begins to exercise- demand for 02 increases- repiration rate needs to increase- depth of breathing needs to increase- therefore additional muscles are required

297
Q

mechanics of breathing during exercise (inspiration)

A

muscles- diaphragm contracts activley harder than at rest and flatterns with more force , external intercostal muscles contract activley, sternocleidomastoid contract, scalenes contract, pectoralis minor contract<br></br>movement of ribs and sternum- up and out more than at rest<br></br>thoracic cavity volume- increases more thna at rest<br></br>lng air pressure (in relation to atmospheric air)- lower than at rest<br></br>air movement-  more into the lungs 

298
Q

mechanics of breathing during exercsise (expiration)

A

muscles- diaphragm relaxes and is pushed upwards with more force, external intercostal muscles contract activley and internal intercostal muscles activley contract, rectus abdominus/obliques activley contract <br></br>movement of ribs and sternum- in and down more than at rest<br></br>thoracic cavity volume- decreases more than at rest<br></br>lng air pressure (in relation to atmospheric air)- higher than at rest<br></br>air movement- force out the lungs more than at rest

299
Q

what is the inspiratory centre

A

to contract and rest during exercise (inspiratory muscle)

300
Q

what is the expiratory system

A

inactive at rest but will stimulate additional expiratory muscles to contract durng exercise to force air out when expriirng

301
Q

how are muscles stimulated at rest

A

nerve impulses are generated and stimulate the inspiratory muscles causing them to contract via the intercostal nerve which stimulates the external intercostal muscles phrenic nerve which stimulates the diaphgragm<br></br>causes: thoracic cavity volume to increase which lowers the lung air pressure meaning air is inspired<br></br>exercise: rising demand for oxygen and co2 remocal so breathing rate and depth increases and sensory nerves relay info to rcc where response will be inflicted by IC and Ec

302
Q

what is RCC

A

rexcieves info from sensory nerves to change the rate at which the respiratory muscles contract, loated in medula oblongata

303
Q

what do chemoreceptors do

A
  • in aorta<br></br>- any chemical changes in blood streame.g. increase levels of 02, decrease c02
304
Q

what do proprioceptors do

A

dectetc movement and changes in joint angles 

305
Q

what do thermoreceptors do

A

detecgt increase in temperature

306
Q

what do baroreceptors do

A
  • found in lung tissue/bronchioles<br></br>-inform the state of lung inflation<br></br>-if becomes excessivley stretched the ec stiumlates additional expiratory muscles to contract which reduces air pressure causing active expiration
307
Q

ordxer of neural control

A
  1. receptors inform IC<br></br>2. increases stiumlation of diaphgrm via phrenic nerve and external intercostal via intercostal nerve to contract more force<br></br>3. ic recruits aditional inspiratory muscles<br></br>4. allowing throacic cavity ti have a greater increase in vol at rest increasing depth of inspiratoin
308
Q

what are the respiratory adaptations to exercise

A

strong respiratory muscles lead to a higher tv durng exercise

309
Q

what happens to breathing rate during submaximal exercise

A

can plateu due to spully of 02 meeting the demand from owrking muscles

310
Q

what happens to tidal volume during sub maximal exercise

A

reaches plateu as increased breathing rate towards maximal intensities does not alow enough time and requires too much muscular effort for maximal inspirations/expirations

311
Q

what does the graph show

A

the proportion of haemoglobin in ts oxygen laden saturated form aganst partial pressure of oxygen<br></br>shows how blood carries and releases oxygen

312
Q

what happens at high and low partial pressure

A

high pp02 = haemoglobin binds to oxygen and all rbc are in the form of oxyhaemoglobin <br></br>low pp02 e.g. respiring tissues= oxyhaemoglobin releases the oxygen to form haemoglobin

313
Q

why is the curve sigmoid shape

A

due to the cooperative binding to the 4 polypeptide chains

314
Q

what is cooperative binding

A

haemoglobin has a greater ability to bind o2 after a subunit has already bound so is most attracted to oxygen when 3 out of 4 polypeptide chains are bound to 02

315
Q

what does a left and right shift indicate

A

left= increased oxygen affinity of haemogloin allowing less 02 to be available to the tissues<br></br>right= decreased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin allowing more 02 to be available to the tssues

316
Q

how ph effects the curve

A
  • decrease in ph= shifts curve to the right (bohr effect)<br></br>-increase in ph= shifts curve to the left<br></br>occurs due to a higher hydrogen ion concerntration causes an alteration in mino acid residues that stabilises deoxyhaemoglobin in a state that has a lower affinity for 02
317
Q

how c02 effects the curve

A

-decrease=curve shifts left<br></br>increase= rigt shift<br></br>-due to the accumulation of co2 causes carbamino compounds to be generated which binds to 02 and forms carbaminohaemoglobin which stabilizes deoxyhaemoglobin, also increases hydrogen ion conc which decreases ph

318
Q

how does temperature effect the curve

A

increase= shift right<br></br>decrease= shift left<br></br>-denatures bonds between oxygen and haemoglobin which increases the amount of o2 and haemoglobin and decreases conc of oxyhaemoglobin

319
Q

how does organic phosphate effect curve

A
  • 2,3 diphophoglycerate<br></br>increase - shift right<br></br>decrease- shift left<br></br>2,3-DPG binds to haemoglobin and rearrranges it into the T state decreasing affinity
320
Q

what is breathing rate

A

number of inspirations and expirations taken in a minute

321
Q

what is tidal volume?

A

volume of air inspireed or expired in one breath

322
Q

what is minute ventilation

A

volume of air ispired or expired per minute

323
Q

trained athletes resting values

A

f=11/12 breaths per min<br></br>tv=500ml<br></br>ve=5.5l/6L/min

324
Q

untrained athletes resting values

A

f=12-15 breaths per min<br></br>tv= 500ml<br></br>ve= 6-7.5l/min

325
Q

what is partial pressure

A

pressure of a gas exters in a mixture of gases

326
Q

internal site

A

between the muscles and capillaries (blood stream)

327
Q

external site

A

between the alveoli ad capillaries (bloodstream)

328
Q

internal site of exchnage (ppo2 and ppco2) at rest

A
  • pp02 in capillaries is high so 02 diffuses down the gradient into the muscles where pp02 is low<br></br>-pco2 in the muscles is high so co2 diffuses down the diffusion gradient into the capillaries where ppco2 is low
329
Q

external site of exchnage (ppo2 and ppco2) at rest

A

pp02 in alveoli is high so oxygen diffuses down the diffusion gradient into the capilary bed where pp02 is low<br></br>ppco2 in capillary bed is high so c02 diffuses down the diffusion gradient into the alveoli where ppco2 is low

330
Q

how diffusion gradient changes during exercise

A

-faster rate<br></br>- steepens<br></br>- high p02 in alveoli and pco2 in capillary bed<br></br>-low pco2 in capillary bed and high pco2 in alveoli

331
Q

internal site of exchnage (ppo2 and ppco2) at exercise

A
  • higher po2 in capilary during exercise so o2 diffuses into muscles down diffusion gradient<br></br>- higher ppco2 into muscles so diffuses down conc gradient into capillaries which has a lower ppco2 than at rest
332
Q

what does chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases lead to

A
  • thickening of brociole wall<br></br>-increased mucus production<br></br>- damage to alveoli<br></br>- decrease lung tissue elasticity
333
Q

how to treat and manage copd

A

1.lifestyle changes= no smokig,avoid air pollutants,regular exercise<br></br>2.medical= oral and inhaled to open up airway<br></br>3. vaccine= prevent greater risk for complications such as flu<br></br>4. oxygen therapy=improve breathing and physical activity<br></br>5. pulmonary rehab= exercise programme<br></br>6. surgical= lung transplant, lung volume reduction

334
Q

how can regular training help respiratory system

A
  • increase strength of respiratory muscles to decrease respiratry effort<br></br>decrease resting and ubmaximal frequency of breathing reducing onset fatigue<br></br>maintain full use of lung tissue and elasticity<br></br>increase the surface area of alveoli and pulmonary capillaries to maximise fficiency of gas exchange
335
Q

what is chronic bronchitis

A
  • airways in your lungs get irritated and inflammed so excess mucus builds up in your lungs making it harder to breathe
336
Q

what is emphysema

A

lung disease that results from damage to the walls of the alveoli and a blockage may develop which traps air inside your lungs

337
Q

what is asthma

A

-effects smaller airways e.g. bronchi and bronchioles<br></br>- chronically inflammed so they are hyperesponsive to triggers such as pollen and stress<br></br>- smooth muscle contracts and becomes narrow so the inflammation worsens which secrees more mucus blocking the airways<br></br>

338
Q

what the different environment effects

A

-efficiency of cardiovascular and respiratory system can effect performance and health of atheletes or spectators<br></br>-must prepare for these coniditions and alter strategies to ensure peak performance

339
Q

what is barometric pressure

A

the pressure exerted by earths atmopshere at any given point

340
Q

pp02 at sea level

A

159mmHg

341
Q

barometric pressure at sea level

A

760mmHg

342
Q

changes in altitudee with changesof pressure

A

1288m above sea level- e.g. winter olympic salt lake city- B= 654 ppo2= 137 diffusion gradient= 97<br></br>3600m- e.g. hernando siles stadium- B= 499 p02= 105 gradient=65<br></br>8848- mount everset- b= 253 ppo2= 53 gradient=13

343
Q

what events change at altitiude

A

endurnace times decrease- less readily available 02<br></br>throwinf events increase-less air resistance

344
Q

acclimatisation

A

how long it takes to adapt to the environment<br></br>above 2500m-3 days<br></br>above 2750-7 dyas<br></br>above 300m- 2 weeks

345
Q

effects on cardiovascular system

A

-decreased blood volume<br></br>-dceasedstroke volume<br></br>-decreased maximal cardiac output<br></br>-increased heartrate<br></br>-reduced haemoglobin saturation<br></br>- reduced 02 to working muscles

346
Q

effects of respiratory system

A

-increased breathing frequency<br></br>- reduced diffusion gradient<br></br>-decreased aerobic capacity<br></br>- reduced v02 max<br></br>- increased tidal volume<br></br>-decreased in ppo2 in inspired air

347
Q

how do the effects impact performance

A
  • reduced intensity<br></br>-reduced duration<br></br>- early onset of fatigue
348
Q

what remains the same at sea lvel and altitude

A

% of oxygen within the air remains the same but pp02 drops as altitude increases

349
Q

how coaches prepare athletes for altitude training

A
  • allow extra time<br></br>- allow extra practice<br></br>-increase work to relief ratio<br></br>- more freqent sub in team games
350
Q

what is altitude training

A
  • altitude is consired as above 1500m above sea level<br></br>- poduction of an increased amount of red blod cells to try and combat the reduced pp02 and the decrease in 02 transportation<br></br>- when an athlete returns to sea level they have an increased volume of red blood cells which in turn increases the saturation of 02 to haemoglobin and increased the transport of 02 to working muscles which can imporve performance
351
Q

posiitves of post acclimisation

A
  • increased in number/size of alveoli<br></br>-increased capillary density<br></br>-increase capacity for gaseous exchange<br></br>- increase haemoglobin<br></br>-increased 02 carrying capacity<br></br>-increased strenfth of respiratory muscles<br></br>- increase lung volumes and capacity/depth of breathing<br></br>- aerobic capacity increased<br></br>-v02 max increased<br></br>-increased mitochondira<br></br>- increased buffering capacity ( ability to resist changes in pH)
352
Q

negatives of immediate effects of altitude

A
  1. decreased in atmospheric pressure= hyperventilation and breathing frequency increases<br></br>2. decrease in pp02<br></br>3.decrease in efficiency of external respiration= decreased pp02 in alveoli, reduced 02 diffusion gradient, less 02 diffuses into blood,decrease gaseous exchnage,less 02 binding with haemoglobin<br></br>4.less 02 transported to blood and working muscles<br></br>5. decrease in effeciency of internal respiration= reduced 02 gradient,decrease 02 dissociation, less 02 diffuses into muscle cells<br></br>6. increased in chemoreceptors stimulation- detetct lower 02 levels, info sent to rcc and ic/ec stimulated, leads to increased breathing rate<br></br>7.lead to hypoxia<br></br>8. air is dryer increase risk of dehyration
353
Q

conditions associated with altitude training

A
  1. altitude sickness<br></br>2.hypoxia<br></br>3.high altitude cerebral edema= capillaries that leak in brain causing fluid to accumulate in brain <br></br>4. high altitude pulmonary edema= lung capillaries leak and fluid accumulates in lungs<br></br>5. chronic mountain sickness= excessive production of red blood cells
354
Q

what is thermoregulation

A

<div>•<span>thermoregulation</span>
allows a performer to maintain their core body temperature to within +/- 1
degree&nbsp;</div>

<div></div>

355
Q

what happens as core body temp rises

A

<div>•Our circulating blood transports
metabolic heat (body heat) to the skin to
allow heat to evaporate from the skin to maintain core body temperature.</div>

<div>how this happens?</div>

<div><div><span>Via the <span>vascular shunt mechanism </span></span></div><span>
</span><div><span>- Thermoreceptors detect an increase in
temperature – the arterioles vasodilate at the skin allowing greater bloody
flow.&nbsp;</span></div></div>

356
Q

difference between humidity and temperature

A

<div>•Temperature is a measure of heat </div>

<div>•Humidity is the amount of water in the
atmospheric air</div>

<div>•If the humidity is 100% then the air is
fully saturated with water. </div>

<div><span>The
rate of heat loss through sweating/ evaporation is affected by humidity</span>&nbsp;</div>

357
Q

what happens at high and low humidity

A

<div>•At high humidity’s the sweat will
evaporate slower into the atmospheric air because the air is highly saturated with
water</div>

<div><span>Therefore
– our body temperature feels hotter because we cannot </span><span>thermoregulate</span><span> as
well as in lower humidity's</span></div>

<div></div>

<div>So…
in lower humidity’s sweat evaporates quicker which allows us to feel cooler. <span>&nbsp;</span></div>

358
Q

what is cardiovascular drift

A

<div>The
progressive increase in heart rate that occurs during prolonged endurance
exercise with little or no change in workload.&nbsp;</div>

359
Q

cycle of cardiovascular drift

A

excessive sweat helps to reduce core temp<br></br>reduced plasma level<br></br>increased blood viscosity<br></br>reduced invenous return<br></br>reduction in sv<br></br>increased hr

360
Q

why does cardiovascular drift occur

A

<div>So that the cardiac output can be
redistributed to the surface of the skin where metabolic heat can be evaporated
through sweat.&nbsp;</div>

361
Q

negative of cardiovascular drift

A

<div>Less O2 delivery to working muscles </div>

<div>Decreased venous return&nbsp;</div>

362
Q

what is hyperthermia

A

a significantly raised core body temp<br></br><div>This
can be caused by </div>

<div>-Prolonged
high intensity exercise </div>

<div>-High
air humidity </div>

<div>-High
air temperature&nbsp;</div>

<div><div><span>Symptoms of hyperthermia </span></div><span>
</span><div><span>-Muscle
cramps&nbsp;</span>-Fatigue -Dizziness -Headache&nbsp;</div></div>

363
Q

problems of hyperthermia

A

<div>This
can lead to respiratory problems such as restriction of the airways and
increased breathing frequency.&nbsp; </div>

<div>This
combined with cardiovascular drift leads to a condition known as <span>thermal
strain&nbsp;</span></div>

364
Q

effects on cardiovascular system of heat

A

<div>Dilation
of arterioles and capillaries to the skin which leads to </div>

<div>-Increased
blood flow to the skin </div>

<div>-Increased
blood pooling in the limbs</div>

<div>Decreased
blood volume, venous return, SV, Q and blood pressure which leads to </div>

<div>-Increased
HR </div>

<div>-Increased
strain on the cardiovascular system </div>

<div>-Reduced
O2 transport to the working muscles&nbsp;</div>

365
Q

effects of respiratory

A

<div>Dehydration
and drying of the airways in temperatures above 32 degrees makes breathing
difficult which leads to</div>

<div>•Increased mucus production </div>

<div>•Constriction of the airways </div>

<div>•Decreased volume of air for gaseous
exchange</div>

<div>In
addition to this, breathing frequency increases to maintain O2 consumption</div>

<div>high levels of sunlight increases effect of pollutants&nbsp;<span>Irritation of the airways leads to coughing, wheezing and other
asthma symptoms</span></div>

366
Q

overall effects of heat

A

<div>•Decreased aerobic energy production –
less oxygen consumption </div>

<div>•Exercise duration decreases as lactic
acid accumulates </div>

<div>•Exercise intensity decreases </div>

<div>•Early onset of fatigue </div>

<div>•Strength endurance and aerobic capacity
are reduced</div>

<div><span>Decreased performance in aerobic
activities that are mid-long distance events e.g. cycling, marathon and team
games</span></div>

367
Q

pre comp acclimatisation

A

<div>•Acclimatise to increased temperature </div>

<div>•7 – 14 days in the same conditions
(naturally or via a thermal chamber) or cooling
vests to reduce core temperature and delay the effect of high temperature and
dehydration</div>

<div></div>

<div><span>How
will this affect the body? </span></div>

<div>-Increase
blood plasma, the onset and rate of sweating and the efficiency of Q
distribution </div>

<div>-Decrease
the loss of electrolytes (salts and minerals that conduct electrical impulses)
within the sweat which limits fatigue and cramping </div>

<div>-Decreases
heart rate at a given pace and temperature&nbsp;</div>

368
Q

during comp acclimitisation

A

<div>•Use pacing strategies to alter goals and
reduce the onset of fatigue (which can affect performance) </div>

<div>•Wear suitable clothing that maximises
heat loss, removes sweat rapidly (such as lightweight compression wear) </div>

Rehydrate
as often and as much as possible with hypotonic or isotonic solution (primarily
replaces lost fluids but also glucose and electrolytes (salts) lost through the
sweat<br></br>

369
Q

post comp

A

<div>•Use cooling aids such as; cold towels,
cold fans and ice which aids the return of the core body temperature gradually</div>

<div>•Rehydrate using isotonic solutions that
replace lost fluids, glucose and electrolytes&nbsp;</div>

370
Q

what is energy intake

A

total energy content of foods consumed as provided by the major sources of dietary energy

371
Q

what is energy expenditure

A

total energy cost of maintaining constant conditions in the body plus the energy cost of physical activity

372
Q

what do postive energy balances, equal and negative leads to

A

positive= weight gain<br></br>negative= weight loss<br></br>equal= balanced weight

373
Q

negative energy balance

A
  • decline in metabaloism<br></br>-inability to concerntrate<br></br>- slower recovery rates<br></br>- muscle loss<br></br>- increased risk of fatigue,injury/illness<br></br>-reduction in thyroid hormones and testosterone<br></br>- decease bone mass<br></br>- decrease in performance and intensity/duration
374
Q

positive energy balance

A

increased risk of chd<br></br>increase risk of type 2 diabetes<br></br>increased risk of certain cancer<br></br>increased stress on joints<br></br>increase in cholesterol<br></br>decrease in performance duration and intensity

375
Q

whats healthy diet

A

55% carbs<br></br>15% protien<br></br>no more than 30% fat<br></br>5 portions of fruit and veg

376
Q

what are macronutrients

A

<span>the
fundamental components of a diet and make up </span><span>the majority of</span><span> your diet. These are carbohydrates, fat and protein</span>

377
Q

what are micronutrients

A

<span>essential
elements required </span><span>in your diet </span><span>in varying
quantities throughout life to orchestrate a range of physiological functions to
maintain health</span><span>. These
include; fibre, vitamins, minerals and water. </span>

378
Q

describe carbs

A

<span>are essential
for </span><span>energy
production</span><span>, cell
division, active transport and formation of molecules.<br></br></span><span>are stored as glycogen and converted to glucose to
fuel energy production<br></br></span>•<span>Complex carbs – when glucose molecules are bound
together (starches) – slow releasing energy THESE ARE ESSENTIAL</span><div>•<span>Simple sugars are one or two single molecules these
give bursts of energy instantly (sugar high) </span></div><div><span>-important for endurance athletes to max glycogen stores for aerobic and anaerobic energy production</span></div>

379
Q

what is GI scale

A

<div>•<span>N</span><span>umerical </span><span>Index that ranks carbohydrates based on their rate of </span><span>glycaemic </span><span>response (i.e.
their conversion to glucose within the human body</span><span>).</span></div>

<div><span>-higher values given to foods that cause the
most rapid rise in blood sugar.&nbsp;</span><span><br></br></span></div>

380
Q

what happens if there is too little carbs or too much sugar

A

too little:<br></br><div>•<span>Less energy available </span></div>

<div>•<span>Increased fatigue levels</span></div>

<div><span>too much:</span></div>

<div><span>&nbsp;</span>•<span>Erode the teeth</span></div>

<div>•<span>Weight gain which can lead to diabetes (type 2) and
heart disease</span></div>

381
Q

diabetes

A

<span>Type 1 –
pancreas doesn’t produce any insulin causes autoimmune conditoin<br></br> </span>•<span>Type 2 – when the pancreas doesn’t produce enough
insulin or the body’s cells don’t react to insulin often associated with obesity </span>

382
Q

describe protiens?

A

-amino acids form a protien which is essential for grow<br></br>-repair to build athletes new muscle cells and compensate for muscle breakdown during and after intense activity<br></br>too little:<br></br><div>•<span>Increased fatigue </span></div>

<div>•<span>Muscle mass could decrease </span></div>

<div>•<span>Decreased immunity&nbsp;</span></div>

383
Q

describe fats

A

<div><span>serve to
insulate nerves, form cell membranes, cushion organs and provide an energy
store.&nbsp;</span></div>

<div><span>&nbsp;</span><span>can also be
broken down for aerobic energy production and have twice the energy yield
(gross energy produced) of carbs.</span></div>

<div><div><span>Any fat not
used by your body’s cells to create energy is converted into body fat. Likewise
unused carbs and protein are also converted to body fat</span></div></div>

384
Q

what are satirated fats

A

<div>•<span>solid at room temperature </span></div>

<div>•<span>Mainly </span><span>found in animal products </span></div>

<div>•<span>If excessively consumed can lead to heart disease&nbsp;</span></div>

385
Q

unstirated fats

A

<div>•<span>are a type of fat molecule which is liquid at room
temperature, mainly found in sunflower, olive and fish oils.</span></div>

<div>•<span>Unsaturated fats can either be</span></div>

<div><span>&nbsp;polyunsaturated =&nbsp;</span>•<span>lower the level of LDL cholesterol</span></div>

<div>•<span>Omega- 3= vegetable oils e.g. sunflower</span></div>

<div>•<span>Omega – 6=oily fish e.g. trout</span></div>

<div><span>monounsaturated =</span>•<span>maintain levels of HDL cholesterol whilst reducing LDL
levels&nbsp;</span><span>Mostly found
in olive oil,&nbsp;</span></div>

386
Q

whats cholsterol

A

<div><span>Cholesterol </span><span>is mostly made
in the liver, it is carried in the blood as </span></div>

<div>•<span>LDL’s – low density lipoproteins </span><span>(bad
cholesterol)</span></div>

<div>•<span>HDL’s – high density lipoproteins </span><span>(good
cholesterol)</span></div>

<div><br></br></div>

<div>•<span>Too much saturated fats in your diet can raise LDL
cholesterol in the blood which can lead to a stroke or heart disease </span></div>

<div>•<span>HDL can have a positive effect by taking the
cholesterol where there is too much of it, transporting it to the liver where
it is disposed of.&nbsp;</span></div>

387
Q

whats fibre

A

<div>•<span>it </span><span>improves digestive health</span><span>.&nbsp; It also </span><span>stabilises glucose/ cholesterol
levels</span><span>.&nbsp;</span></div>

<div>•<span>Fibre also </span><span>prevents constipation </span><span>which </span><span>assists
with weight management</span><span> and ensures
an </span><span>athlete
is comfortable </span><span>and confident
when performing.</span></div>

<div>•<span>This means an athlete would have </span><span>more
energy </span><span>for training&nbsp;</span></div>

<div><span>e.g. whole wheat ceral</span></div>

<div><span>increased fibre diet:&nbsp;</span>•<span>lower risk of</span></div>

<div>-<span>Heart disease </span></div>

<div>-<span>Stroke </span></div>

<div>-<span>Type 2
diabetes </span></div>

<div>-<span>Bowel cancer&nbsp;</span></div>

388
Q

vitamins

A

organic nutrients needed by the body in sall quanttaites <br></br>can be water soluble or fat soluble<br></br>helps with immunity so training isnt disrupted by illness

389
Q

what is energy?/

A

ability to perform work-measured in joules/kcal<br></br>needs to take into account age size environment lifestyle metabloic rate which effeects the inividuals energy expenditure

390
Q

what is bmr

A

min amount of energy required to sustain essential physiological functions at rest<br></br>can account for as much as 75% as our total energy expendtiure<br></br>measured after 12hrs fasting and 8hrs of sleepig 

391
Q

thermic effects of food

A

energy required to eat digest absorb and use food taken in<br></br>10% of daily calories consumption

392
Q

what is creatine

A

-increase pc stores within muscle by 50%<br></br>-increase fuel for very high inensity energy production (atp-pc system)<br></br>- increased intensity and duration of training, increased max and explosive strength<br></br>reduce latic acid build up

393
Q

what is caffeine

A

stimulates fat metabloism<br></br>increase speed of glycogen restoration<br></br>preserves glycogen stores<br></br>increase nervous stimulation<br></br>increased focus and concerntration<br></br>increased endurance performance

394
Q

what is bicarbonate

A

neutralises acidity in blood<br></br>increases buffering capacity<br></br>increases tolerance of laic acid<br></br>delays fatigue

395
Q

what is nitrate

A

dilates blood vessels increasing blood flow to muscles<br></br>delays fatigue<br></br>can work at higher intensity for longer<br></br>delays obla (onsent of blood latic acid)

396
Q

negative effects of caffeine,bicarbonate,nitrate,creatine

A

caffeine-diretic effect,insomia and anxiety,gastrointenstinal problems<br></br>nitrate- long term health risks unclear,possibly carcinogenic,headaches,diziness<br></br>creatine- increase weight gain due to drawing in extra water into muscle cells casuing you to retain fluid,increase water retention,muscle cramp,gastrointentinal problems,long term effects unclear

397
Q

endurance athletes meals

A

train 1hr a day-consume 5/7kg of carbs per kg of body mass per day<br></br>train 4hr + a day- consume 10-12kg per kg body mass

398
Q

endurance athletes before event meal

A

3hrs before-consume low gi meal to prevent glycogen depletion (SLOW DIGESTING) = 1-4g per kg e.g. wholegrain rice<br></br>1-2hrs before- high gi meal e.g.honey on a bagel to maintain glucose meals and top up glycogen stores

399
Q

endurance athletes during event meal

A

-body can absorb around 60-90g of carb per hour<br></br>-athletes who compete for longer than 1hr should consume small amounts of fast digesting carb to maintain blood glucose levels e.g. gels,sports drink,bannas

400
Q

endurance athletes post event meal

A
  • recovert aided by 1-1.5kg of carb per hour<br></br>should be consumed within 30 mins of the event finishing and repeated at 2hr inervals for up to 6hrs
401
Q

strength training

A

-5-6 small meals per day every few hours<br></br>-up to 30% lean protien to enhance muscle builidig and reapir<br></br>-complex carbs to slowly release energy<br></br>limited fat intake

402
Q

pre training strength meals

A

-30-60 mins before<br></br>- small meal eaten<br></br>equal quantities of fat digesting carbs and protien<br></br>fats are digested and quickly accessed during hard training

403
Q

post trining strength meal

A
  • asap 2hrs<br></br>-constsitin gog fast digestive carbs and protiens should consumed to replace glycogen stores amd satisfy for higher need for protien to boost protien synthesis and muscle gain<br></br>protien shakes allow for fast digestion
404
Q

whats glycogen loading

A

day 1 - glycogen depleting with increased endurance exercise<br></br>day2/3- high protien,high fat diet<br></br>day 4- glycogen depleting with increased endurance exercose<br></br>day 5/7- high carb diet while training is tapered or reduced to resting

405
Q

benefitd and risks of glycogen loading

A

benefits:<br></br>- increased glycogen store<br></br>-increased endurance capacity<br></br>- delays fatigue<br></br>-increased tme to exhaustion up to 30%<br></br>risks<br></br>-poor recovery rates in depletion phase<br></br>-increase risk of injury<br></br>-irability in depletion phase

406
Q

hydration

A

dehyration= decreases performance<br></br>due to<br></br>decreased heart regulation, increased hr, inceased blood viscocity<br></br>increased fatigue, decreased cog function

407
Q

electrolytes

A

salts and minerals such as soidum and potassium that conduct electrical impluses , these are lost via sweat essential to replace in order to prevent early fatigue<br></br>depleted electrolytes= causes fatigue,causes cramping

408
Q

human growth hormone

A

a synthetic product mimicking the hormone secreted by pituatory gland,stimulates bone and muscle growth<br></br>used by aerobic athletes to increase strength endurance,speed and power<br></br>positives= increased muscle mass,increased recovery,increased fat metabolism<br></br>negatives= abnormal organ gowth,risk of cancers

409
Q

epo

A

synthetic copy of a hormone made naturally in the body secreted by kidney to stimulate bone marrow to produce rbc<br></br>used by anaerobic athlees to improve training and speed up recovery<br></br>posiitves= increased rbc,increased o2 transport, aerobic capacity, increased intensity and duration<br></br>negatives= increased blood viscosity decreases cardiac output increased risk of blood clots

410
Q

anabolic steroids

A

synthetic drug designed to mimic effects of testoerone to promote synthesis of protiens to enhance muscle growth<br></br>used by atletes in explosive power<br></br>positie: increased freuqnecy and intensity, improved recovery,enhanced muscle mass<br></br>negatives= irritability mood swings acne liveer damage,aggesstion

411
Q

ve graph-submaximal

A

<div>1.An initial anticipatory rise in VE due to
the release of the hormone adrenaline. </div>

<div>2.A rapid increase in VE at the start of
exercise due to increased breathing rate and tidal volume to meet the demand
for oxygen, increase oxygen delivery and waste removal in line with exercise
intensity </div>

<div>3.A plateau in VE where oxygen demands are
met due to the steady state exercise </div>

<div>4.An initially rapid decrease as the demand
for oxygen has been significantly reduced </div>

<div>5.A more gradual decrease in VE as VE
returns to resting levels – recovery is entered (active cool down should be
followed)&nbsp;&nbsp;</div>

412
Q

ve graph-maximal

A

<div>&nbsp;<span>Similarities</span> and <span>differences</span><br></br></div>

<div>1.<span>Still have an anticipatory rise </span></div>

<div>2.<span>Still have a sharp rise due to sudden
demand </span></div>

<div>3.<span>The graph will not plateau – </span><span>instead</span><span> it
will have a steady increase to try and meet the demand </span></div>

<div>4.<span>There will still be a rapid decline in
minute ventilation&nbsp; (demand for o2
significantly reduced) </span></div>

<div>5.<span>Longer and lower decline as the body
enters recovery </span><span>and tries to repay the oxygen debt&nbsp;</span></div>

413
Q

values of trained and untrained maximal intensity

A

f = trained- 50-60 untrained-40-50<br></br>tv= trained- 3.35L untrained- 2.5-3L<br></br>ve= trained-160-210L/min untrained- 100-150L/min