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Spinal Anatomy Practice Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The confluence of the sinuses is located close to which of the following?
    a. EOP
    b. Mastoid
    c. Process TMJ
    d. Frontal bone
A

a. EOP

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2
Q
  1. Which modality does not go to the thalamus?
    a. Smell
    b. Vision
    c. Hearing
    d. Pain
A

a. Smell

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is the location of smell within the cerebral cortex?
    a. Prefrontal gyrus
    b. Calcarine fissure
    c. Superior temporal lobe
    d. Uncus of the temporal lobe
A

d. Uncus of the temporal lobe

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following attaches to the articular disc within the TMJ?
    a. Masseter
    b. Lateral pterygoid
    c. Medial pterygoid
    d. Temporalis
A

b. Lateral pterygoid

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following exits out of the foramen ovale?
    a. V1
    b. V2
    c. V3
    d. Middle meningeal artery
A

c. V3

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following does not go through the superior orbital fissure?
    a. V1
    b. V2
    c. Cranial nerve III
    d. Cranial nerve IV
A

b. V2

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for general sensation to the palate?
    a. CN 5
    b. CN 7
    c. CN 9
    d. CN 10
A

a. CN 5

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following innervates the platysma muscle?
    a. CN 5
    b. CN 7
    c. CN 9
    d. CN 10
A

b. CN 7

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9
Q
  1. What is the nerve root for the innervation of pectoralis minor?
    a. C5
    b. C6
    c. C7
    d. C8
A

d. C8

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10
Q
  1. Which organ contains post ganglionic sympathetic neurons?
    a. Kidney
    b. Pancreas
    c. Suprarenal gland
    d. Spleen
A

c. Suprarenal gland

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a derivative of the neural crest cells?
    a. Dorsal root ganglion
    b. Autonomic nervous system
    c. Adrenal medulla
    d. Merkel’s diverticulum
A

d. Merkel’s diverticulum

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12
Q
  1. Iris musculature is derived from:
    a. Neuroectoderm
    b. Surface ectoderm
    c. Endoderm
    d. Mesoderm
A

a. Neuroectoderm

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13
Q
  1. The abdominal muscles are derived from:
    a. Epimere
    b. Hypomere
    c. Splanchnic mesoderm
    d. Neural crest cells
A

b. Hypomere

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following ventricles does the diencephalon make up?
    a. 1st ventricle
    b. 3rd ventricle
    c. 4th ventricl
    d. 2nd ventricle
A

b. 3rd ventricle

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the oligodendrocytes?
    a. Myelin in the CNS
    b. Myelin in the PNS
    c. Maintain blood brain barrier
    d. Produce CSF
A

a. Myelin in the CNS

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16
Q
  1. Where is a long association fiber found?
    a. Cerebellum
    b. Cortex
    c. Anterior commissure
    d. Posterior horn
A

b. Cortex

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is a derivative of the radicular arteries?
    a. Anterior spinal
    b. Vertebral
    c. Basilar
    d. Posterior spinal
A

d. Posterior spinal

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is classified as a free naked nerve ending?
    a. Type A fibers
    b. Type B fibers
    c. Type C fibers
    d. Type D fibers
A

c. Type C fibers

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19
Q
  1. The IML is located in which of the following areas of the spinal cord?
    a. Anterior horn
    b. Posterior horn
    c. Lateral horn
    d. Posterior column
A

c. Lateral horn

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following cranial nerves exits between the pons and the medulla?
    a. 9
    b. 10
    c. 12
    d. 8
A

d. 8

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21
Q
  1. The mandibular division of cranial nerve 5 exits through:
    a. Foramen spinosum
    b. Foramen ovale
    c. Foramen rotundum
    d. Superior orbital fissure
A

b. Foramen ovale

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following arteries passes through the optic canal?
    a. Opthalmic artery
    b. Middle meningeal artery
    c. Middle cerebral artery
    d. Internal carotid artery
A

a. Opthalmic artery

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles of mastication originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the mandible?
    a. Temporalis
    b. Internal pterygoid
    c. External pterygoid
    d. Masseter
A

d. Masseter

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is the sedentary innervation point between CN III and the Edinger Westphal nucleus?
    a. Ciliary ganglion
    b. Pterygopalatine ganglion
    c. Submandibular ganglion
    d. Geniculate nucleus
A

a. Ciliary ganglion

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25
25. Which of the following is a stretch receptor for the muscle? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Muscle spindle c. Pancinian corpuscle d. Merkel's corpuscle
b. Muscle spindle
26
26. A lesion in which of the following areas would cause bitemporal hemianopsia? a. Optic nerve b. Optic radiation c. Superior colliculus d. Optic chiasm
d. Optic chiasm
27
27. Which of the following sensations is the most developed? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Smell d. Taste
a. Vision
28
28. The connection point between neurological hearing and the muscles of the neck for movement is the: a. Lateral geniculate body b. Medial geniculate body c. Superior olivary nucleus d. Inferior colliculus
d. Inferior colliculus
29
29. Which of the following are the ligaments that make up the borders of the vertebral canal? a. PLL and ligamentum flavum b. ALL and ligamentum flavum c. Supraspinous and PLL d. PLL and ALL
a. PLL and ligamentum flavum
30
30. Which of the following muscles within the suboccipital triangle does not have attachments to C1? a. Rectus capitis posterior minor b. Rectus capitis posterior major c. Superior oblique d. Inferior oblique
b. Rectus capitis posterior major
31
31. Which of the following ligaments limits rotation of C2? a. Transverse b. Cruciate c. Alar d. Apical
c. Alar
32
32. Which of the following is a classification for an intervertebral disc? a. Symphysis b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Saddle
a. Symphysis
33
33. ______ is associated with the limbic portion of smell. a. Cingulate gyrus b. Amygdaloid c. Wernicke's area d. Putamen
b. Amygdaloid
34
34. The maxillary sinus drains into the ______. a. Superior nasal meatus b. Middle nasal meatus c. Inferior nasal meatus d. Cavernous sinus
b. Middle nasal meatus
35
35. Which of the following is the innervation to the rhomboids? a. Thoracodorsal nerve b. Dorsal scapular nerve c. Long thoracic nerve d. Axillary nerve
b. Dorsal scapular nerve
36
36. Serratus anterior is innervated by: a. Thoracodorsal nerve b. Dorsal scapular nerve c. Long thoracic nerve d. Axillary nerve
c. Long thoracic nerve
37
37. What would occur if the cochlear nerve was severed? a. Contralateral total hearing loss b. Ipsilateral total hearing loss c. Contralateral partial hearing loss d. Ipsilateral partial hearing loss
b. Ipsilateral total hearing loss
38
38. Which of the following does not make up the transversospinalis group? a. Multifidus b. Rotatores c. Semispinalis d. Spinalis
d. Spinalis
39
39. The termination of the dural sac is: a. L2 b. S2 c. L4 d. L5
b. S2
40
40. Which of the following is the most superior continuation of the ligamentum flavum? a. Posterior atlantoaxial ligament b. Posterior atlantooccipital ligament c. Anterior atlantoaxial ligament d. Anterior atlantooccipital ligament
b. Posterior atlantooccipital ligament
41
41. The orientation of the superior facets in the cervical spine is: a. Posterior lateral b. Posterior medial c. Posterior superior d. Posterior inferior
b. Posterior medial | c. Posterior superior
42
42. The orientation in the superior facets of the lumbar spine is: a. Posterior lateral b. Posterior medial c. Posterior superior d. Posterior inferior
b. Posterior medial
43
43. Which of the following is the coupled motion that occurs in the spine? a. Flexion and rotation b. Extension and rotation c. Lateral flexion and rotation d. Flexion and extension
c. Lateral flexion and rotation
44
44. What makes up the blood brain barrier? a. Astrocytes b. Ependymal cells c. Microglia d. Schwann cells
a. Astrocytes
45
45. The infundibulum pierces which of the following? a. Tentorium cerebelli b. Falx cerebri c. Falx cerebellum d. Diaphragm sellae
d. Diaphragm sellae
46
46. Which of the following comes off the basilar artery that will help form the circle of willis? a. Posterior cerebral artery b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Anterior communicating d. Internal carotid
a. Posterior cerebral artery
47
47. What type of cells make up the spiral ganglion of corti? a. Unipolar b. Bipolar c. Multipolar d. Pdeudounipolar
b. Bipolar
48
48. If the uvula deviates to the right, what nerve is affected? a. Right CN 10 b. Left CN 10 c. Right CN 12 d. Left CN 12
b. Left CN 10
49
49. What ganglion supplies the parotid gland? a. Otic ganglion b. Sphenopalatine c. Submandibular d. Ciliary
a. Otic ganglion
50
50. Which of the following is part of the visual pathway? a. Lateral geniculate body b. Globus pallidus c. Head of caudate d. Medial geniculate body
a. Lateral geniculate body
51
51. Putamen and globus pallidus are part of which of the following? a. Lentiform nucleus b. Caudate nucleus c. Substantia nigra d. Superior olivary nucleus
a. Lentiform nucleus
52
52. What part of the cerebellum is for equilibrium? a. Flocculonodular lobe b. Anterior lobe c. Middle lobe d. Middle cerebellar peduncle
a. Flocculonodular lobe
53
53. Which tract do you use for conscious joint awareness? a. Posterior columns b. Anterior spinocerebellar c. Spinothalamic d. Corticospinal
a. Posterior columns
54
54. The trigeminothalamic pathway terminates on which of the following areas? a. VPM of thalamus b. VPL of thalamus c. Premotor cortex d. Occipital lobe
a. VPM of thalamus
55
55. What does the organ of corti sit on? a. Scala vestibule b. Scala tympani c. Reissner's membrane d. Basilar membrane
d. Basilar membrane
56
56. Which of the following is located on the first rib closest to the sternal angle surface of the first rib? a. Subclavian vein b. Scalenus anticus c. Subclavian artery d. Brachial plexus
a. Subclavian vein
57
57. The location of an uncinate process is: a. Superolateral aspect of cervical vertebral body b. Superolateral aspect of thoracic vertebral body c. Posterior aspect of cervical articular pillar d. Posterior aspect of lumbar articular pillar
a. Superolateral aspect of cervical vertebral body
58
58. If a patient has asymmetrical facets, this can lead to which of the following? a. Imbrication b. Knife clasp deformity c. Spina bifida d. Transitional segment
a. Imbrication
59
59. The thoracic duct empties into the: a. Left subclavian vein b. Right subclavian vein c. Inferior vena cava d. Superior vena cava
a. Left subclavian vein
60
60. From what level does pain transmission from the heart travel? a. Cervical chain b. T1-T5 c. T6-T9 d. T10-T12
b. T1-T5
61
61. Which of the following develops from the otic placode? a. Retina b. Organ of corti c. Optic nerve d. Cochlear duct
d. Cochlear duct
62
62. What lymphoidal tissue is located on the tongue? a. vallate papillae b. Lingual tonsil c. Palatoglossal tonsil d. Palatine tonsil
b. Lingual tonsil
63
63. Z joints are classified as: a. Sellar b. Ginglymus c. Planar d. Trochlear
c. Planar
64
64. What kind of joint is between the tibia and fibula? a. Syndesmosis b. Synchondrosis c. Symphysis d. Amphiarthrodal
a. Syndesmosis
65
65. The movement of fluid into and out of the nucleus pulposus is which of the following? a. Active transport b. Co-transport c. Imbrication d. Imbibition
d. Imbibition
66
66. Which of the following is seen with a disc protrusion into the vertebral body? a. Schmorl's node b. Nuclear impression c. Spondylolytic spondylolisthesis d. Degenerative spondylolisthesis
a. Schmorl's node
67
67. Which of the following is sensory only? a. Inferior gluteal nerve b. Thoracodorsal nerve c. Dorsal scapular nerve d. Inferior cluneal nerve
d. Inferior cluneal nerve
68
68. Anterior limb of the internal capsule is located anatomically between the lentiform nucleus and the ______. a. Thalamus b. Head of the caudate nucleus c. Tail of the caudate nucleus d. Hypothalamus
b. Head of the caudate nucleus
69
69. Auditory radiation terminates in which of the following? a. Cingulate gyrus b. Transverse gyrus of Heschl’s c. Angular gyrus d. Calcarine fissure
b. Transverse gyrus of Heschl’s
70
70. Which of the following does NOT attach to the transverse process? a. Serratus posterior inferior b. Multifidus c. Rotatores d. Psoas major
a. Serratus posterior inferior
71
71. The hyoid bone is located at the ______ level. a. C4 b. C5 c. C2 d. C3
d. C3
72
72. The main function of the thoracic spine is: a. Lateral flexion b. Flexion c. Extension d. Rotation
b. Flexion
73
73. If you lose sensation of the lower lip, which of the following nerves are involved? a. Mental nerve b. Mandibular c. Maxillary d. Lingual
a. Mental nerve
74
74. On which bone is the foramen ovale located on? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. Sphenoid
d. Sphenoid
75
75. The right eye cannot deviate laterally. Where is the lesion? a. Right occulomotor b. Left occulomotor c. Right abducens d. Left abducens
c. Right abducens
76
76. The thalamus is part of which of the following? a. Telencephalon b. Diencephalon c. Mesencephalon d. Myelencephalon
b. Diencephalon
77
77. At what level do fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus decussate? a. Midbrain b. Medulla oblongata c. Pons d. Mesencephalon
b. Medulla oblongata
78
78. Cutaneous sensation over the dorsal aspect of the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th metatarsals is from which of the following nerves? a. Sural nerve b. Saphenous nerve c. Deep fibular nerve d. Superficial fibular nerve
d. Superficial fibular nerve
79
79. Blood supply to the pituitary gland is by way of which of the following? a. Internal carotid artery b. External carotid artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Posterior cerebral artery
a. Internal carotid artery
80
80. Which of the following originates from the anterior aspect of the sacrum? a. Levator ani b. Obturator internus c. Psoas d. Piriformis
d. Piriformis

NBCE-Irene questions (12 decks)

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