General anatomy practice 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What artery is responsible for blood flow to the Hamstrings?
    a. Superior gluteal artery
    b. Profunda femoris artery
    c. Popliteal artery
    d. Internal Iliac
A

b. Profunda femoris artery

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is derived from intermediate mesoderm?
    a. Kidneys
    b. Adrenal cortex
    c. Spleen
    d. Adrenal medulla
A

a. Kidneys

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3
Q
  1. If you cut the ______ ligament, the lateral portion of the clavicle will elevate superior to the acromion.
    a. Sternoclavicular
    b. Coracoclavicular
    c. Coracohumeral
    d. Coracoacrimial
A

b. Coracoclavicular

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4
Q
  1. What is the closed pack position for the hip?
    a. Extension, abduction, and internal rotation
    b. Flexion with no rotation
    c. Flexion with external rotation
    d. Extension, adduction, and external rotation
A

a. Extension, abduction, and internal rotation

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a derivative of the neural crest
    a. Dorsal root ganglion
    b. Adrenal medulla
    c. Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland
    d. Merkel’s corpuscles
A

d. Merkel’s corpuscles

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6
Q
  1. Which one of the structures is not drained by the portal vein?
    a. Kidneys
    b. Pancreas
    c. Spleen
    d. Stomach
A

a. Kidneys

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7
Q
  1. What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
    a. Scaphoid
    b. Lunate
    c. Capitate
    d. Hamate
A

a. Scaphoid

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8
Q
  1. The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the:
    a. Radial head
    b. Radial tuberosity
    c. Olecranon process
    d. Coronoid process
A

a. Radial head

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9
Q
  1. Flexion of the shoulder is not performed by:
    a. Pectoralis major
    b. Coracobrachialis
    c. Pectoralis minor
    d. Anterior deltoid
A

c. Pectoralis minor

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10
Q
  1. The ligament that covers the intertubercular groove is the:
    a. Transverse humeral ligament
    b. Coracohumeral ligament
    c. Coracoacromial ligament
    d. Glenohumeral ligament
A

a. Transverse humeral ligament

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11
Q
  1. If the patella subluxates laterally, what muscle should be strengthened?
    a. Vastus lateralis
    b. Vastus medialis
    c. Hamstrings
    d. Rectus femoris
A

b. Vastus medialis

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12
Q
  1. The great saphenous vein drains into the ______ vein.
    a. Popliteal fossa
    b. Basilic vein
    c. Cephalic vein
    d. Femoral vein
A

d. Femoral vein

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13
Q
  1. Where can you palpate the posterior tibial artery pulse?
    a. Anterior to the medial malleolus
    b. Posterior to the medial malleolus
    c. Lateral to the medial malleolus
    d. Medial to the medial malleolus
A

b. Posterior to the medial malleolus

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for cutaneous innervation to the posterior and lateral lower leg?
    a. Sural nerve
    b. Tibial nerve
    c. Deep fibular nerve
    d. Superficial fibular nerve
A

a. Sural nerve

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15
Q
  1. The distance between two z-lines is the:
    a. H-line
    b. Thin filament
    c. Thick filament
    d. Sarcomere
A

d. Sarcomere

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16
Q
  1. The lateral cuneiform has articulations with the ______.
    a. Medial cuneiform
    b. 5th metatarsal base
    c. Cuboid
    d. Talus
A

c. Cuboid

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is a structure of the scapula that is superior to the head of the humerus?
    a. Coracoid process
    b. Acromion
    c. Infraglenoid tubercle
    d. Scapular notch
A

b. Acromion

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18
Q
  1. A joint that performs flexion and extension only is a ______.
    a. Uniaxial joint
    b. Biaxial joint
    c. Multiaxial joint
    d. Joint with no axis of motion
A

a. Uniaxial joint

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19
Q
  1. The proximal radioulnar joint is classified as a ______.
    a. Multiaxial
    b. Triaxial
    c. Biaxial
    d. Uniaxial
A

d. Uniaxial

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20
Q
  1. The type of motion seen at the proximal radio-ulnar joint is:
    a. Circumduction
    b. Rotation
    c. Flexion
    d. Extension
A

b. Rotation

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21
Q
  1. The nerve that is responsible for innervation of the serratus anterior is the ______ nerve
    a. Thoracodorsal
    b. Lower scapular
    c. Medial pectoral
    d. Long thoracic
A

d. Long thoracic

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following prevents hyperextension of the knee and is intrascapular?
    a. ACL
    b. PCL
    c. MCL
    d. LCL
A

a. ACL

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23
Q
  1. Cut or damage to which of the following ligaments will cause a valgus deformity?
    a. Oblique popliteal ligament
    b. ACL
    c. MCL
    d. LCL
A

c. MCL

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is found in the hindgut?
    a. Ileum
    b. Jejunum
    c. Descending colon
    d. Ascending colon
A

c. Descending colon

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25
27. The type of capillary in the alveolus of the lung is ______. a. Fenestrated b. Continuous c. Discontinuous d. Sinusoidal
b. Continuous
26
28. Which of the following planes divides the body into anterior and posterior? a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Median d. Saggital
a. Frontal
27
29. The type of epithelium found within the laryngopharynx is: a. Keratinized stratified squamous b. Non-keratinized squamous c. Simple squamous d. Simple columnar
a. Keratinized stratified squamous
28
30. The cornea is made up of ______ epithelium. a. Keratinized stratified squamous b. Non-keratinized squamous c. Simple squamous d. Simple cuboidal
b. Non-keratinized squamous
29
31. The superior border of the cervical pleura extends approximately 3cm superior to the ______. a. 2nd rib b. Clavicle c. Manubrium d. Coracoid process
b. Clavicle
30
32. The nerve responsible for supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow is the ______. a. Radial nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Median nerve d. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
31
33. The pure flexor of the elbow is the: a. Brachialis b. Coracobrachialis c. Triceps d. Anconeus
Brachialis
32
34. Which of the following is responsible for cutaneous innervation to the lateral aspect of the forearm? a. Lateral brachial cutaneous b. Cephalic c. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous d. Basilic
c. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
33
35. The dermatome of the lateral aspect of the forearm is? a. C5 b. C6 c. C7 d. C8
b. C6
34
36. Which layer of the skin is non-vascularized? a. Papillary dermis b. Epidermis c. Reticular dermis d. Hypodermis
b. Epidermis
35
37. Which of the following is no involved with taste sensation? a. Circumvallat b. Fungiform c. Foliate d. Filiform
d. Filiform
36
38. Which of the following limits the amount of abduction in the hip? a. Iliofemoral ligament b. Pubofemoral ligament c. Ischiofemoral ligament d. Transverse acetabular ligament
b. Pubofemoral ligament
37
39. Which of the following reinforces the posterior aspect of the hip joint? a. Iliofemoral ligament b. Pubofemoral ligament c. Ischiofemoral ligament d. Transverse acetabular ligament
c. Ischiofemoral ligament
38
40. The pelvic diaphragm is predominantly made up by the ______. a. Coccygeus b. Levator ani c. Obturator internis d. Piriformis
b. Levator ani
39
41. Which of the following attaches to the lesser tubercle of the humerus? a. Supraspinatus b. Infraspinatus c. Teres minor d. Subscapularis
d. Subscapularis
40
42. Which of the following types of tissue is embedded in th trachea and extends all the way down the trachea? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Simple cuboidal epithelium c. Hyaline cartilage d. Stratified squamous epithelium
c. Hyaline cartilage
41
43. The thoracic aorta is located in the ______ mediastinum. a. Superior b. Anterior c. Middle d. Posterior
d. Posterior
42
44. With the knee as your point of reference, what prominence is located on the lateral aspect and is distal to the knee? a. Fibular head b. Tibial tuberosity c. Adductor tubercle d. Lister's tubercle
a. Fibular head
43
45. Which of the following comes from the right ventricle and goes to the lungs? a. Bronchial artery b. Pulmonary trunk c. Pulmonary vein d. Ascending artery
b. Pulmonary trunk
44
46. the coronary sinus opens into the ______. a. right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium
c. Right atrium
45
47. The foramen ovale is located in the: a. right ventricular wall b. Left ventricular wall c. Interventricular septum d. Interatrial septum
d. Interatrial septum
46
48. The location of the appendix is the ______. a. RUQ b. RLQ c. LUQ d. RLQ
d. RLQ
47
49. The most superior region of the stomach is the: a. Cardiac b. Body c. Pylorus d. Fundus
d. Fundus
48
50. The ______ portion of the duodenum is where the main pancreatic duct and common bile duct empty into. a. Superior b. Descending c. Horizontal d. Ascending
b. Descending
49
51. Which muscle does the parotid duct pierce to open into the mouth? a. Buccinator b. Orbicularis oris c. Risorious d. Zygomaticus major
a. Buccinator
50
52. Tinea coli muscles which are responsible for the formation of haustrations are seen in which of the following areas? a. Colon b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Ileum
a. Colon
51
53. Parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut is derived from? a. greater splanchnic nerve b. Cranial nerve 9 c. Cranial nerve 10 d. Pelvic splanchnic
d. Pelvic splanchnic
52
54. Which of the following does not go through the greater sciatic foramen? a. Piriformis b. Obturator internus c. Superior gluteal nerve d. Sciatic nerve
b. Obturator internus
53
55. Which of the following does not go through the lesser sciatic foramen? a. Piriformis b. Obtuator internus c. Pudendal nerve d. Nerve to obturator internus
a. Piriformis
54
56. What structure is located between the ischial spine and the ischial tuberosity? a. greater sciatic notch b. Lesser sciatic notch c. Obturator foramen d. Ischiopubic ramus
b. Lesser sciatic notch
55
57. The distal extension off of the infundibulum is/are the ______. a. Fimbrae b. Ampulla c. Uterine ostium d. isthmus
a. Fimbrae
56
58. The most common site for fertilization to occur is in the ______ of the ______. a. Fimbrae; uterine tube b. Infundibulum; uterine tube c. Ampulla; uterine tube d. Ampulla; hepatopancreatic duct
c. Ampulla; uterine tube
57
59. The muscular layer of the uterus is the: a. Endometrium b. Mesometrium c. Myometrium d. Perimetrium
c. Myometrium
58
60. The medial border of the femoral triangle is the: a. ingunal ligament b. Medial border of sartorious c. Lateral border of adductor longus d. Medial border of adductor longus
d. Medial border of adductor longus
59
61. Which of the following is not a direct branch off of the aorta? a. Brachiocephalic b. Left common carotid c. Left subclavian d. Right subclavian
d. Right subclavian
60
62. The auditory tube drains into the: a. Oropharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Laryngopharynx d. Middle ear
b. Nasopharynx
61
63. Where does pectoralis minor insert? a. coracoid process b. Coronoid process c. Conoid tubercle d. Clavicle
a. coracoid process
62
64. Which of the following has the highest insertion point on the humerus? a. Supraspinatus b. Infraspinatus c. Teres minor d. teres major
a. Supraspinatus
63
65. In an inversion sprain, which of the following ligaments is the first affected? a. Anterior talo-fibular b. Posterior talo-fibular c. Calcaneofibular d. Deltoid
a. Anterior talo-fibular
64
66. What separates the parietal bone from the occipital bone? a. Coronal suture b. Lamboidal suture c. Saggital suture d. Squamous suture
b. Lamboidal suture
65
67. Which of the following supplies the back of the head? a. Greater auricular nerve b. Greater occipital nerve c. Trigeminal nerve d. Lesser occipital nerve
b. Greater occipital nerve
66
68. The nasolacrimal duct drains into which of the following? a. Inferior nasal meatus b. Superior nasal meatus c. Middle nasal meatus d. Cavernous sinus
a. Inferior nasal meatus
67
69. Which hyoid bone muscle has 2 different nerve supplies? a. Geniohyoid b. Mylohyoid c. Digastric d. Stylohyoid
c. Digastric
68
70. Which of the following is found in a symphysis type joint? a. Hyaline cartilage b. Fibrocartilage c. Elastic cartillage d. Fibrous connective tissue
b. Fibrocartilage
69
71. Inferior thyroid artery comes off of which of the following? a. brachicephalic trunk b. Thyrocervical trunk c. Celiac trunk d. Arch of the aorta
b. Thyrocervical trunk
70
72. Median cubital vein drains into which of the following? a. cephalic b. Basilic c. Brachial d. Axillary
b. Basilic
71
73. Which of the following goes through the crus of the diaphragm? a. abdominal aorta b. Esophagus c. Inferior vena cava d. Vagus nerve
a. abdominal aorta
72
74. Which of the following nerves is responsible for flexion of the toes? a. Tibial b. Deep peroneal c. Superficial peroneal d. Saphenous
a. Tibial
73
75. The popliteal surface is located on the _____ part of the femur. a. proximal posterior b. Proximal anterior c. Distal posterior d. Distal anterior
c. Distal posterior
74
76. Which of the following is sesamoid bone? a. Tibia b. Pisiform c. Navicular d. Ulna
b. Pisiform
75
77. Which of the following contains stratified squamous epithelium? a. Larynx b. Tertiary bronchus c. Secondary bronchus d. Primary bronchus
a. Larynx
76
78. Bowman's glands are for which of the following? a. Taste b. Olfaction c. Auditory d. Visual
b. Olfaction | c. Auditory
77
79. Structural integrity of lymph nodes is provided by: a. dense regular b. Dense irregular c. Reticular d. Elastic
c. Reticular
78
80. Fracture of the neck of the fibula affects which of the following nerves? a. Common fibular b. Deep fibular c. Sural d. Tibial
a. Common fibular
79
81. Using the sternum body as a reference point, what rib articulates at the superior lateral aspect and inferior lateral aspect of the sternum? a. 2-7 b. 2-6 c. 3-6 d. 3-7
a. 2-7
80
82. If you cannot perform internal rotation of the shoulder, what nerve is damaged? a. axillary nerve b. Suprascapular nerve c. Subscapular nerve d. Radial nerve
c. Subscapular nerve