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NBCE-Irene questions > Pathology- part 1 > Flashcards

Pathology- part 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a seropositive arthritide?
    a. Ankylosing Spondylitis
    b. Psoriatic Arthritis
    c. Reiter’s
    d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following does not cause a +ve HLAB27?
    a. Ankylosing Spondylitis
    b. Psoriatic Arthritis
    c. Reiter’s
    d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

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3
Q
  1. Gumma is seen in which of the following?
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Syphilis
    c. Staphylococcus
    d. Gonorrhea
A

b. Syphilis

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4
Q
  1. Which stage is syphilis most transmittable?
    a. During the chancre stage
    b. All stages
    c. When it is Gummatous
    d. During the latency stage
A

a. During the chancre stage

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5
Q
  1. A Leiomyoma is a ___________ tumor of ___________
    a. Benign; skeletal muscle
    b. Benign; smooth muscle
    c. Malignant; skeletal muscle
    d. Malignant; smooth muscle
A

b. Benign; smooth muscle

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6
Q
  1. What mineral do you not give to a 50 year old man or woman who is post-menopausal?
    a. Calcium
    b. Magnesium
    c. Selenium
    d. Iron
A

d. Iron

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7
Q
  1. Which tumor that forms in the uterus will disappear after menopause?
    a. Teratoma
    b. Leiomyosarcoma
    c. Leiomyoma
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

c. Leiomyoma

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8
Q
  1. The interstitial cells of Leydig produce?
    a. Estrogen
    b. Progesterone
    c. Testosterone
    d. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
A

c. Testosterone

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9
Q
  1. Testosterone is produced by the:
    a. Anterior Pituitary
    b. Posterior Pituitary
    c. Adrenal Medulla
    d. Interstitial cells of Leydig
A

d. Interstitial cells of Leydig

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10
Q
  1. What is the major function of the Sertoli cells?

a. Stimulates Spermatogenesis
b. Storage
c. Maturation
d. Stimulates Testosterone production

A

a. Stimulates Spermatogenesis

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for ovulation and stimulates testosterone production?
    a. TSH
    b. ACTH
    c. LH
    d. FSH
A

c. LH

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following does not lead to breast cancer?
    a. Breast feeding
    b. Familial
    c. Having a child late in life
    d. Early onset of menses
A

a. Breast feeding

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13
Q
  1. Intussusception is known as:
    a. Twisting of an organ
    b. Telescoping of the intestines
    c. Skip lesions with the colon
    d. Enlargement of the liver
A

b. Telescoping of the intestines

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14
Q
  1. Celiac disease (Non-Tropical Sprue) is a _____ sensitivity.
    a. Glucose
    b. Copper
    c. Vit. E
    d. Gluten
A

d. Gluten

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15
Q
  1. Mallory Weiss Syndrome affects which of the following areas?
    a. Right Colic Flexure
    b. Left Colic Flexure
    c. Gastro-esophageal junction
    d. Pyloric Sphincter
A

c. Gastro-esophageal junction

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs only in the colon?
    a. Crohn’s
    b. Ulcerative Colitis
    c. Mallory Weis
    d. Zenkers Diverticulum
A

b. Ulcerative Colitis

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17
Q
  1. If you have glucose in the urine this indicates:
    a. Diabetes Insipidus
    b. Diabetes Mellitus
    c. Nephritic Syndrome
    d. Nephrotic Syndrome
A

b. Diabetes Mellitus

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18
Q
  1. With diabetes insipidus, which of the following is seen?
    a. Decrease of vasopressin
    b. Increase of vasopressin
    c. Increase of glucose in urine
    d. Decreased urination
A

a. Decrease of vasopressin

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following affects only the motor division of the nervous system?
    a. Combined systems disease
    b. Tabes Dorsalis
    c. Multiple Sclerosis
    d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
A

d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following affects the posterior and lateral columns?
    a. Polio
    b. Multiple Sclerosis
    c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
    d. Combined systems disease
A

d. Combined systems disease

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21
Q
  1. The most common tumor of the brain is:
    a. Gliomas
    b. Oligodendrocytes
    c. Schwannoma
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

a. Gliomas

22
Q
  1. Most common location for an osteochondroma is the ____.
    a. Spine
    b. Hands and feet
    c. Distal femur/proximal tibia
    d. Skull
A

c. Distal femur/proximal tibia

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is seen in the distal radius?
    a. Osteochondroma
    b. Giant Cell Tumor
    c. Enchondroma
    d. Osteoma
A

b. Giant Cell Tumor

24
Q
  1. A Schwannoma is a ______ tumor of the ______.
    a. Benign; neural sheath
    b. Benign; nerve cell body
    c. Malignant; neural sheath
    d. Malignant; neural body
A

a. Benign; neural sheath

25
Q
  1. If you have a peripheral demyelinating condition causing ascending paralysis and it can affect the respiratory muscles, this is most likely to be :
    a. Multiple Sclerosis
    b. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
    c. Guillian Barre
    d. Myasthenia Gravis
A

c. Guillian Barre

26
Q
  1. Pheochromocytoma is seen in the _____.
    a. Adrenal cortex
    b. Pituitary gland
    c. Adrenal medulla
    d. Pineal gland
A

c. Adrenal medulla

27
Q
  1. A benign tumor of skeletal muscle is:

a. Leiomyoma
b. Lipoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Rhabdomyoma

A

d. Rhabdomyoma

28
Q
  1. The most common lung cancer is _____.
    a. Small cell
    b. Large cell
    c. Squamous cell
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

Adenocarcinoma

29
Q
  1. If a patient has hartuism, obesity and anovulation, they most likely have:
    a. Polycystic ovary disease
    b. Leiomyoma
    c. Endometriosis
    d. Cervical dysplasia
A

a. Polycystic ovary disease

30
Q
  1. If a patient comes in with a fat embolism, what is the most likely cause?

a. Thrombus formation
b. Broken long bone
c. Air bubble
d. Atherosclerotic plaque

A

b. Broken long bone

31
Q
  1. A deep vein thrombosis has what serious consequence?
    a. Pulmonary embolism
    b. Recanalization
    c. Dissolution
    d. Occlusion
A

a. Pulmonary embolism

32
Q
  1. Which one initiates the inflammation process?

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Edema
c. Vasodilation
d. Damage to tissue

A

d. Damage to tissue

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a natural killer cell?
    a. Lymphocyte
    b. Neutrophil
    c. Basophil
    d. Plasma cell
A

b. Neutrophil

34
Q
  1. _____ is the most common WBC that is present in acute inflammation and bacterial infections.

a. Lymphocyte
b. Monocyte
c. Basophil
d. Neutrophil

A

d. Neutrophil

Never let your engine blow

35
Q
  1. Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension and weakness of the upper limbs with decreased lower limb pulse is seen in:
    a. Cortication of the aorta
    b. Aortic stenosis
    c. Aortic insufficiency
    d. Patent ductus arteriosis
A

a. Cortication of the aorta

36
Q
  1. Which factor starts the coagulation process?

a. Stuart factor
b. Christmas factor
c. Hageman factor
d. Tissue factor

A

d. Tissue factor

37
Q
  1. Vitamin that you absorb in the intestines that if you use a lot of antibiotics you won’t be able to absorb:

a. A
b. D
c. K
d. E

A

c. K

38
Q
  1. The function of vitamin K is:

a. Stimulates prothrombin and thrombin
b. Stimulates fibrinogen to fibrin
c. Stimulates proline to hydroxyproline
d. Stimulates contraction of gallbladder

A

a. Stimulates prothrombin and thrombin

39
Q
  1. The importance of the Thymus is:
    a. Maturation of B-cells
    b. Maturation of T-cells
    c. Maturation of neutrophils
    d. Maturation of basophils
A

b. Maturation of T-cells

40
Q
  1. Another name for a berry aneurysm is a:

a. Saccular aneurysm
b. Fusiform aneurysm
c. Dissecting aneurysm
d. Cylindrical aneurysm

A

a. Saccular aneurysm

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is implicated as a cause of dental carries?
    a. Strep pyogenes
    b. Strep viridians
    c. Strep mutans
    d. Strep aureus
A

c. Strep mutans

42
Q
  1. The mother is a carrier for an x-linked recessive genetic anomaly but the father is not. What is the chance that the fetus will be a carrier?
    a. 0%
    b. 25%
    c. 50%
    d. 100%
A

b. 25%

43
Q
  1. If you cut an axon, which of the following would occur?

a. Wallerian degeneration
b. Enzymatic degeneration
c. Liquefactive necrosis
d. Coagulative necrosis

A

a. Wallerian degeneration

44
Q
  1. If you have a change in size, shape and function of a cell but is reversible, this is known as:
    a. Metaplasia
    b. Dysplasia
    c. Anaplasia
    d. Hyperplasia
A

b. Dysplasia

45
Q
  1. The increase in size of a structure due to an increase in the number of cells is _____.
    a. Aplasia
    b. Atrophy
    c. Hypertrophy
    d. Hyperplasia
A

d. Hyperplasia

46
Q
  1. Enzymatic degeneration is seen in which of the following?
    a. Pancreas
    b. Heart
    c. Brain
    d. Liver
A

a. Pancreas

47
Q
  1. In which of the following areas do you not see coagulative necrosis?
    a. Heart
    b. Brain
    c. Lung
    d. Liver
A

b. Brain

48
Q
  1. _____ is the most common cause of “nutmeg liver”.
    a. Alcoholism
    b. Passive congestion of the liver
    c. Hepatitis infection
    d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

b. Passive congestion of the liver

49
Q
  1. Which of the following causes the corneal discoloration of Kayser Fleischer rings?
    a. Wilson’s
    b. Addison’s
    c. Cushing’s
    d. Turner’s
A

a. Wilson’s

50
Q
  1. Which of the following causes hypernatremia?
    a. Hyperthyroidism
    b. Hyperparathyroidism
    c. Hypothyrodism
    d. Hyperadrenalism
A

d. Hyperadrenalism

NBCE-Irene questions (12 decks)

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