Pathology- part 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a seropositive arthritide?
    a. Ankylosing Spondylitis
    b. Psoriatic Arthritis
    c. Reiter’s
    d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following does not cause a +ve HLAB27?
    a. Ankylosing Spondylitis
    b. Psoriatic Arthritis
    c. Reiter’s
    d. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Gumma is seen in which of the following?
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Syphilis
    c. Staphylococcus
    d. Gonorrhea
A

b. Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which stage is syphilis most transmittable?
    a. During the chancre stage
    b. All stages
    c. When it is Gummatous
    d. During the latency stage
A

a. During the chancre stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A Leiomyoma is a ___________ tumor of ___________
    a. Benign; skeletal muscle
    b. Benign; smooth muscle
    c. Malignant; skeletal muscle
    d. Malignant; smooth muscle
A

b. Benign; smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What mineral do you not give to a 50 year old man or woman who is post-menopausal?
    a. Calcium
    b. Magnesium
    c. Selenium
    d. Iron
A

d. Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which tumor that forms in the uterus will disappear after menopause?
    a. Teratoma
    b. Leiomyosarcoma
    c. Leiomyoma
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

c. Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The interstitial cells of Leydig produce?
    a. Estrogen
    b. Progesterone
    c. Testosterone
    d. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
A

c. Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Testosterone is produced by the:
    a. Anterior Pituitary
    b. Posterior Pituitary
    c. Adrenal Medulla
    d. Interstitial cells of Leydig
A

d. Interstitial cells of Leydig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the major function of the Sertoli cells?

a. Stimulates Spermatogenesis
b. Storage
c. Maturation
d. Stimulates Testosterone production

A

a. Stimulates Spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for ovulation and stimulates testosterone production?
    a. TSH
    b. ACTH
    c. LH
    d. FSH
A

c. LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following does not lead to breast cancer?
    a. Breast feeding
    b. Familial
    c. Having a child late in life
    d. Early onset of menses
A

a. Breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Intussusception is known as:
    a. Twisting of an organ
    b. Telescoping of the intestines
    c. Skip lesions with the colon
    d. Enlargement of the liver
A

b. Telescoping of the intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Celiac disease (Non-Tropical Sprue) is a _____ sensitivity.
    a. Glucose
    b. Copper
    c. Vit. E
    d. Gluten
A

d. Gluten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Mallory Weiss Syndrome affects which of the following areas?
    a. Right Colic Flexure
    b. Left Colic Flexure
    c. Gastro-esophageal junction
    d. Pyloric Sphincter
A

c. Gastro-esophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs only in the colon?
    a. Crohn’s
    b. Ulcerative Colitis
    c. Mallory Weis
    d. Zenkers Diverticulum
A

b. Ulcerative Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. If you have glucose in the urine this indicates:
    a. Diabetes Insipidus
    b. Diabetes Mellitus
    c. Nephritic Syndrome
    d. Nephrotic Syndrome
A

b. Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. With diabetes insipidus, which of the following is seen?
    a. Decrease of vasopressin
    b. Increase of vasopressin
    c. Increase of glucose in urine
    d. Decreased urination
A

a. Decrease of vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following affects only the motor division of the nervous system?
    a. Combined systems disease
    b. Tabes Dorsalis
    c. Multiple Sclerosis
    d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
A

d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following affects the posterior and lateral columns?
    a. Polio
    b. Multiple Sclerosis
    c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
    d. Combined systems disease
A

d. Combined systems disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. The most common tumor of the brain is:
    a. Gliomas
    b. Oligodendrocytes
    c. Schwannoma
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

a. Gliomas

22
Q
  1. Most common location for an osteochondroma is the ____.
    a. Spine
    b. Hands and feet
    c. Distal femur/proximal tibia
    d. Skull
A

c. Distal femur/proximal tibia

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is seen in the distal radius?
    a. Osteochondroma
    b. Giant Cell Tumor
    c. Enchondroma
    d. Osteoma
A

b. Giant Cell Tumor

24
Q
  1. A Schwannoma is a ______ tumor of the ______.
    a. Benign; neural sheath
    b. Benign; nerve cell body
    c. Malignant; neural sheath
    d. Malignant; neural body
A

a. Benign; neural sheath

25
25. If you have a peripheral demyelinating condition causing ascending paralysis and it can affect the respiratory muscles, this is most likely to be : a. Multiple Sclerosis b. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis c. Guillian Barre d. Myasthenia Gravis
c. Guillian Barre
26
26. Pheochromocytoma is seen in the _____. a. Adrenal cortex b. Pituitary gland c. Adrenal medulla d. Pineal gland
c. Adrenal medulla
27
27. A benign tumor of skeletal muscle is: a. Leiomyoma b. Lipoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Rhabdomyoma
d. Rhabdomyoma
28
28. The most common lung cancer is _____. a. Small cell b. Large cell c. Squamous cell d. Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
29
29. If a patient has hartuism, obesity and anovulation, they most likely have: a. Polycystic ovary disease b. Leiomyoma c. Endometriosis d. Cervical dysplasia
a. Polycystic ovary disease
30
30. If a patient comes in with a fat embolism, what is the most likely cause? a. Thrombus formation b. Broken long bone c. Air bubble d. Atherosclerotic plaque
b. Broken long bone
31
31. A deep vein thrombosis has what serious consequence? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Recanalization c. Dissolution d. Occlusion
a. Pulmonary embolism
32
32. Which one initiates the inflammation process? a. Vasoconstriction b. Edema c. Vasodilation d. Damage to tissue
d. Damage to tissue
33
33. Which of the following is a natural killer cell? a. Lymphocyte b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Plasma cell
b. Neutrophil
34
34. _____ is the most common WBC that is present in acute inflammation and bacterial infections. a. Lymphocyte b. Monocyte c. Basophil d. Neutrophil
d. Neutrophil | Never let your engine blow
35
35. Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension and weakness of the upper limbs with decreased lower limb pulse is seen in: a. Cortication of the aorta b. Aortic stenosis c. Aortic insufficiency d. Patent ductus arteriosis
a. Cortication of the aorta
36
36. Which factor starts the coagulation process? a. Stuart factor b. Christmas factor c. Hageman factor d. Tissue factor
d. Tissue factor
37
37. Vitamin that you absorb in the intestines that if you use a lot of antibiotics you won’t be able to absorb: a. A b. D c. K d. E
c. K
38
38. The function of vitamin K is: a. Stimulates prothrombin and thrombin b. Stimulates fibrinogen to fibrin c. Stimulates proline to hydroxyproline d. Stimulates contraction of gallbladder
a. Stimulates prothrombin and thrombin
39
39. The importance of the Thymus is: a. Maturation of B-cells b. Maturation of T-cells c. Maturation of neutrophils d. Maturation of basophils
b. Maturation of T-cells
40
40. Another name for a berry aneurysm is a: a. Saccular aneurysm b. Fusiform aneurysm c. Dissecting aneurysm d. Cylindrical aneurysm
a. Saccular aneurysm
41
41. Which of the following is implicated as a cause of dental carries? a. Strep pyogenes b. Strep viridians c. Strep mutans d. Strep aureus
c. Strep mutans
42
42. The mother is a carrier for an x-linked recessive genetic anomaly but the father is not. What is the chance that the fetus will be a carrier? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%
b. 25%
43
43. If you cut an axon, which of the following would occur? a. Wallerian degeneration b. Enzymatic degeneration c. Liquefactive necrosis d. Coagulative necrosis
a. Wallerian degeneration
44
44. If you have a change in size, shape and function of a cell but is reversible, this is known as: a. Metaplasia b. Dysplasia c. Anaplasia d. Hyperplasia
b. Dysplasia
45
45. The increase in size of a structure due to an increase in the number of cells is _____. a. Aplasia b. Atrophy c. Hypertrophy d. Hyperplasia
d. Hyperplasia
46
46. Enzymatic degeneration is seen in which of the following? a. Pancreas b. Heart c. Brain d. Liver
a. Pancreas
47
47. In which of the following areas do you not see coagulative necrosis? a. Heart b. Brain c. Lung d. Liver
b. Brain
48
48. _____ is the most common cause of “nutmeg liver”. a. Alcoholism b. Passive congestion of the liver c. Hepatitis infection d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Passive congestion of the liver
49
49. Which of the following causes the corneal discoloration of Kayser Fleischer rings? a. Wilson’s b. Addison’s c. Cushing's d. Turner’s
a. Wilson’s
50
50. Which of the following causes hypernatremia? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Hypothyrodism d. Hyperadrenalism
d. Hyperadrenalism