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Part I Boards > Spinal > Flashcards

Spinal Flashcards

0
Q

C2

A

Back of scalp

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1
Q

Dermatomes: C1

A

NONE

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2
Q

C3

A

Nape of neck

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3
Q

C4

A

Shoulders

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4
Q

C5

A

Lateral surface of arm

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5
Q

C6

A

Lateral digits

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6
Q

C7

A

Middle digit

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7
Q

C8

A

Medial digit

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8
Q

T1

A

Medial Elbow

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9
Q

T2

A

Axilla

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10
Q

T3

A

Stripe above nipple line on chest

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11
Q

T4

A

Nipple line

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12
Q

T5

A

Stripe just below nipple line

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13
Q

T6

A

Just above xiphoid

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14
Q

T7

A

Xiphoid

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15
Q

T8

A

Just below xiphoid

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16
Q

T9

A

Just above umbilicus

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17
Q

T10

A

Umbilicus

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18
Q

T11

A

Just below umbilicus

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19
Q

T12

A

Just above inguinal ligament

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20
Q

L1

A

Inguinal ligament and upper part of thigh

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21
Q

L2

A

Midthigh

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22
Q

L3

A

Lower thigh (still upper leg) ‘Knee’

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23
Q

L4

A

Medial knee to floor

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24
Q

L5

A

Lateral knee, side of leg to top of foot

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25
Q

S1

A

Posterior Knee, bottom foot, lateral foot/ankle, posterior calf

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26
Q

S2

A

Posterior knee, posterior thigh

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27
Q

S3

A

Outer circumference anus

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28
Q

S4

A

Closer circumference anus

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29
Q

S5

A

NONE

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30
Q

Sclerotome

A

vertebral column

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31
Q

Neural plate develops into

A

MOANER

macroglial cells
   oligodendrocytes
   astrocytes
neurons CNS
Ependymal cells
Retinal cells
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32
Q

MOANER stands for

A 
macroglial cells
   oligodendrocytes
   astrocytes
neurons CNS
ependymal cells 
retinal cells
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33
Q

ectoderm gives rise to

A

all neurons and supporting cells

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34
Q

notochord

A

induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm

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35
Q

ectoderm

A

forms neural plate

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36
Q

Neural plate

A

forms neural groove which houses the spinal cord and brain vesicles

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37
Q

neural crest develops into

A 
branchial arches
PNS
schwann, pia, and arachnoid meninges
spinal and autonomic ganglia
mesencephalic nucleus of V
melanocytes
bones and connective tissue of head
dorsal root ganglia 
ganglia of CN V, VII, IX, X
adrenal gland medulla aka suprarenals
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38
Q

endoderm epithelium

A

forms the lining of the digestive tube and its associated structures, division foregut/midgut: liver and pancreatic buds

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39
Q

allantois

A

urinary bladder, vagina, urethra, prostate, and urethral glands

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40
Q

somite cells form

A

sclerotome

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41
Q

somite cells form sclerotomes but can also form what other 2 things

A

myotome (muscle) and dermatome (skin)

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42
Q
  • Foramen ovale in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

fossa ovalis

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43
Q
  • Ductus arteriosis in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

ligamentum arteriosum

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44
Q
  • Ductus Venosus in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

Ligamentum venosum

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45
Q
  • Umbilical Vein in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

ligamentum teres

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46
Q
  • Umbilical arteries in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

medial umbilical ligaments

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47
Q
  • Urachus in embryo devlops into what as adult
A

duct of allantos

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48
Q

Allantois means what (primitive foregut)

A

pee

urinary bladder, vagina, prostate, urethral gland

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49
Q

Simple squamous (filtration or diffusion)

A

capillaries, alveoli, glomeruli

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50
Q

Ciliated Epithelium (circulate, move, sweep/clean)

A

brain vesicles, oviduct, lungs

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51
Q

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar (lining)

A

trachea, upper respiratory tract

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52
Q

Non-ciliated pseudostratified columnar

A

vas deferens

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53
Q

vas deferens

A

connecting duct between urethra, and testes

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54
Q

Cranial nerve: Mandibular branch of V (V3)

Branchial Arch aka pharyngeal arch

A

1

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55
Q

Cranial nerve: Facial (VII)

Branchial Arch aka pharyngeal arch

A

2

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56
Q

Cranial nerve: Glossopharyngeal (IX)

Branchial Arch aka pharyngeal arch

A

3

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57
Q

Cranial nerve: Superior laryngeal of Vagus (x)

Branchial Arch aka pharyngeal arch

A

4

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58
Q

Cranial nerve: Inferior laryngeal of vagus (X) (recurrent branch)
Branchial Arch aka pharyngeal arch

A

6

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59
Q

Cranial nerve: Mandibular branch of V (V3)

Skeletal structures

A

Malleus (Meckels cartilage)

Incus (Quadrate cartilage)

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60
Q

Cranial nerve: Facial (VII)

Skeletal structures

A

Stapes, Styloid

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61
Q

Cranial nerve: Glossopharyngeal (IX)

Skeletal structures

A

Cornu, hyoid

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62
Q

Cranial nerve: Superior laryngeal of vagus (X)

Skeletal structures

A

thyroid cartilage

cricoid cartilage

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63
Q

Cranial nerve: Inferior laryngeal of Vagus (x)

Skeletal structures

A

Arytenoid
corniculate cartilage
cuneiform cartilage

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64
Q

Cranial nerve: Mandibular branch of V (V3)

Muscles

A

Muscles of MASTICATION

and jaw closing muscles

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65
Q

Cranial nerve: Facial (VII)

Muscles

A

Muscles of facial expression and jaw opening muscles

Stylohyoid, stapedius

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66
Q

Cranial nerve: Glossopharyngeal (IX)

Muscles

A

Stylopharyngeus

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67
Q

Cranial nerve: Superior laryngeal of vagus (X)

Muscles

A

pharyngeal, cricothyroid, levator palatine

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68
Q

Cranial nerve: Inferior laryngeal of Vagus (X)

Muscles

A

laryngeal

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69
Q

Glioblast

A

“Glue’

gives rise to astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

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70
Q

Astrocyte

A

most numerous cell of cns

acts like connective tissue, part of BBB, forms ‘scar like’ tissue in injury

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71
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

quite numerous but not as much as astro

forms MYELIN around cns

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72
Q

ependymal

A

line cns, ciliated, leaky barrier between CSF and CNS

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73
Q

Microglia aka

A

Gitterzellen

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74
Q

Microglia

A

not many

phagocyte

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75
Q

Neuroblast

A

make neurons

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76
Q

Neurons within the CNS “connector”

commissural

A

between two hemispheres

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77
Q

Neurons within the CNS “connector”

association

A

different parts same hemisphere

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78
Q

Neurons within the CNS “connector”

projection

A

lower centers to cerebral cortex

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79
Q

most common neurons in CNS

A

Multipolar

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80
Q

Gray matter

A

cell bodies and dendrites

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81
Q

White matter

A

Myelinated axons

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82
Q

Macroglia

A

astrocytes: BBB
oligodendrocytes: Myelin

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83
Q

Primary and Secondary Vesicles of the Brain and Differentiation
Mnemonic

A

Tel Di Mes Met My

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84
Q

Primary: Prosencephalon contains what 2 secondary components

A

Telenchephalon

Diencephalon

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85
Q

Primary: Mesencephalon contains what secondary component

A

Mesencephalon (same)

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86
Q

Primary: Rhombencephalon contains what 2 secondary components

A

Metencephalon

Myencephalon

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87
Q

What structures are from the telencephalon

A

forebrain (higher function)

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88
Q

What structures come from the diencephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal, retina, mamillary body, posterior pituitary

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89
Q

What structures come from mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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90
Q

what structure comes from metencephalon

A

PONS and cerebellum

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91
Q

what structures come from Myelencephalon

A

Medulla Oblongata

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92
Q

what CN come from telecephalon

A

I

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93
Q

what CN come from Diencephalon

A

II

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94
Q

what CN come from Mesencephalon

A

III, IV

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95
Q

what CN come from Metencephalon

A

V, VI, VII, VIII

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96
Q

what CN come from Myelencephalon

A

IX, X, XI, XII

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97
Q

Telencephalon neural canal regions

A

Lateral ventricles separated by septum pellucidum

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98
Q

Diencephalon neural canal regions

A

Foramen of Monroe (aka interventricular foramen)= 1&2 to 3rd ventricle

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99
Q

Mesencephalon neural canal regions

A

cerebral aqueduct of sylvius

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100
Q

Metencephalon neural canal region

A

4th ventricle

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101
Q

Myelencephalon neural canal region

A

4th ventricle

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102
Q

Most common location for cerebral vascular accident (CVA)

A

middle cerebral artery

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103
Q

Telencephalon nuclei include

A

caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, and basal ganglia

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104
Q

Mesencephalon nuclei include

A

substantia nigra and subthalamic

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105
Q

Corpus Striatum includes

A

head of the caudate and putamen

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106
Q

Lentiform nucleus includes

A

globus pallidus (medial) and putamen (lateral)

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107
Q

What forms anatomically around the pituitary gland and optic chiasm

A

circe of willis

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108
Q

what supplys the circe of willis

A

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

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109
Q

what forms the circe of willis

A

anterior and posterior cerebra, anterior and posterior communicating arteries

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110
Q

cerebral cortex aka

A

pallium

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111
Q

cerebral cortex is developed from what

A

neural plate

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112
Q

What is considered 90% of the cerebral cortex

A

neocortex (aka isocortex)

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113
Q

What is considered 10% of the cortex

A

allocortex

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114
Q

Diencephalon is mostly formed by what

A

thalamus

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115
Q

Diencephalon processes what infor

A

sensory information, sleep, and conciousness

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116
Q

Basal ganglia is responsible for what

A

postural adjustments, steadying of voluntary movements, and enkephalins

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117
Q

What contains reflex centers associated with respiration, CV and consciousness

A

brainstem

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118
Q

What nuclei does the brainstem include

A

CN III- CN XII

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119
Q

How much CSF in an adult

A

140-270 mL

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120
Q

Meninges from inside out

A

PAD

pia, arachnoid, dura mater

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121
Q

between arachnoid and pia

A

subarachnoid space

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122
Q

where a spinal tap is performed

A

subarachnoid space

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123
Q

inner most layer of neural tube

A

ependymal cell

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124
Q

produces CSF

A

choroid plexus

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125
Q

Resorbs- CSF

A

arachnoid granulations

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126
Q

How much CSF in the ventricles

A

Approx 25 ml

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127
Q

How many pair of spinal nerves

A

31

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128
Q

Dorsal roots are what

A

sensory (afferent)

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129
Q

Ventral roots

A

motor (efferent)

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130
Q

Spinal cord terminates at what level

A

L1/L2

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131
Q

What is the end of the spinal cord

A

conus medullaris

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132
Q

What forms the roots for lumbar, sacral,and coccygeal nerves

A

cauda equina

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133
Q

CSF exchange between 3rd and 4th ventricles

A

Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

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134
Q

Tegmentum, substantia nigra, crus cerebri, CN III and IV

A

Cerebral peduncle

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135
Q

Black color- dopamine from tyrosine, melanin is by product

A

substantia nigra

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136
Q

Part of cerebral peduncle- corticospinal, corticopontine, and corticomesencephalic

A

crus cerebri

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137
Q

integration of momentary static muscle contraction, joint tension, visual and auditory input regarding equilibrium

A

cerebellum

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138
Q

Medial portion of cerebellum

A

vermis

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139
Q

Coordination=

A

cerebellum

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140
Q

Anterior portion of cerebellum, general muscle tone

A

paleocerebellar

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141
Q

Posterior portion of cerebellum

coordination of skilled movement

A

neocerebellar

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142
Q

Equilibrium from cerebellum

A

archicerebellar

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143
Q

MC cell in cerebellum

A

purkinje

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144
Q

*Cerebellar Nuclei from medial to lateral and small to large

A

Fastigial
Globus
Emboliform
Dentate

Flowers grow every day

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145
Q

Smallest cerebellar nuclei

A

fastigial

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146
Q

Largest cerebellar nuclei

A

Dentate

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147
Q

Most medial cerebellar nuclei

A

Fastigial

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148
Q

Most lateral cerebellar nuclei

A

dentate

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149
Q
  • Deiter’s nuclei
A

lateral vestibular

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150
Q
  • Meynert’s nuclei
A

forebrain has ACH

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151
Q
  • Raphe nuclei
A

medulla oblongata, serotonin

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152
Q
  • Lenticular nuclei
A

part of corpus striatum

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153
Q

Centromedian nucleus of thalamus

A

largest intralaminar of dorsal thalamus

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154
Q

Crude sensation, integration, “relay center”

A

Thalamus

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155
Q

Conscious interpretation and movement

A

Cortex

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156
Q

Through internal capsule and corona radiata

A

main pathway between thalamus and cortex

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157
Q

primary SENSORY cortex

A

postcentral gyrus

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158
Q

Primary MOTOR cortex

A

precentral gyrus

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159
Q

T/F Upper motor neuron lesion (UMNL) has reflexes (babinski)

A

T

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160
Q

T/F Lower motor neuron lesion (LMNL) has reflexes (babinski)

A

F

NO REFLEXES

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161
Q

T/F Upper motor neuron lesion (UMNL) has increased superficial reflexes (bilaterally)

A

F

Decreased superficial reflexes bilaterally

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162
Q

T/F Lower motor neuron lesion (LMNL) has decreased superficial reflexes (unilateral)

A

True

This is also true of UMNL

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163
Q

Which descending motor tract is considered pyramidal (conscious)

A

Corticospinal

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164
Q

Which descending motor tract is considered extrapyramidal (unconscious)

A

Reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal

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165
Q

What are the names of the ascending tracts

A 
Lateral spinothalamic
anterior spinothalamic
dorsal columns (cuneatus and gracillis)
anterior spinocerebellar
spinotectal
spinoreticular
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166
Q

what is the function of the corticospinal tract

A

precise and skilled voluntary movement

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167
Q

function of reticulospinal tract

A

inhibit or facilitate voluntary movement

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168
Q

function of tectospinal tract

A

reflex postural movement to visual stimuli

169
Q

rubrospinal function

A

facilitates flexors

inhibits extensors

170
Q

vestibulospinal tract function

A

facilitates extensors

inhibits flexors

171
Q

Origin and destination of corticospinal tract

A

primary motor cortex, secondary motor cortex and parietal lobe

internunical neurons or alpha motor neurons

172
Q

Origin and destination of reticulospinal tract

A

reticular formation

alpha and gamma motor neurons

173
Q

origin and destination of tectospinal tract

A

superior colliculus (midbrain)

alpha and gamma motor neurons

174
Q

origin and destination of rubrospinal tract

A

red nucleus (midbrain)

alpha and gamma motor neurons

175
Q

Vestibulospinal tract origin and destination

A

lateral vestibular nucleus

alpha and gamma motor neurons

176
Q

where do most corticospinal tract fibers cross

A

at decussation of pyramids and descent as lateral corticospinal tract

177
Q

Where does the reticulospinal tract cross

A

at various locations

178
Q

Information from where is received by the rubrospinal tract

A

cerebral and cerebellar information

179
Q

Vestibulospinal tract receives information from where

A

inner ear (via vestibular nerves) and cerebrallar information

180
Q

function of lateral spinothalamic tract

A

pain and temp

181
Q

function of anterior spinothalamic tract

A

crude light touch, pain, temp

182
Q

Function of dorsal columns (gracilis and cuneatus)

A

discriminative 2 point touch
vibration
conscious proprioception

183
Q

what two ascending tracts function is unconscious proprioception

A

posterior spinocerebellar

anterior spinocerebellar

184
Q

function of spinotectal tract

A

spinovisual reflex

185
Q

function of spinoreticular tract

A

levels of consciousness

186
Q

when you see tract of Lissauer think what

A

PAIN

substance P

187
Q

Clark’s column pathway is associated with what two ascending tracts

A

posterior spinocerebellar

anterior spinocerebellar

188
Q

difference between pathways of anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts

A

Posterior spinocerebellar: through inferior cerebellar peduncle

anterior spinocerebellar: crosses segmentally and through superior cerebellar peduncle

189
Q

Clarks columns of posterior spinocerebellar spans

A

C8-L4

190
Q

Clark’s column of anterior spinocerebellar spans

A

C8-L4 BUT

some fibers dont cross

191
Q

Cuneatus is found at what level

A

above T6

192
Q

Gracilis is found at what level

A

Below T6

193
Q

Which ascending tract has movements of the eyes and head towards the stimulus

A

spinotectal

194
Q

tactile sensations

A

anterior spinothamic

195
Q

AKA spino-quadrigeminal system of mott

A

spinotectal tract

196
Q

PNS has what kind of cells

A

Schwann cells

P.S. I love you, my swan
and myelin (nodes of ranvier)
197
Q

Is PNS mostly myelinated or unmyelinated

A

myelinated axons

198
Q

unipolar cells are found where in the PNS

A

posterior root ganglion

199
Q

Bipolar cells in the PNS are mostly found where

A

retina and sensory ganglia of cochlear and vestibular nerves

200
Q

Spinal root for lesser occipital

A

C2 C3

201
Q

Spinal root for Greater auricular

A

C2, C3

202
Q

Spinal root for Transverse Cervical

A

C2, C3

203
Q

Spinal root for Supraclavicular

A

C3, C4

204
Q

Spinal root for ansa cervicalis

A

C1-C4

205
Q

Spinal root for Segmental branches

A

C1-C5

206
Q

*Spinal root for phrenic

A

C3, C4, C5

Keep the diaphragm alive!

207
Q

Spinal root for femoral n.

A

L2-L4

208
Q

Spinal root for Obturator N.

A

L2-L4

209
Q

Spinal root for Lateral Femoral Cutaneous N.

A

L2, L3

23 and too cute for me

210
Q

Spinal root for Iliohypogastric N

A

L1

211
Q

Spinal root for Ilioinguinal N

A

L1

212
Q

Spinal root for Genitofemoral N

A

L1, L2

213
Q

*Spinal root for Sciatic N.

A

L4, L5, S1-S3

214
Q

Spinal root for Tibial N

A

L4-S3

215
Q

Spinal root for Common peroneal (fibular)

A

L4-S2

216
Q

Spinal root for superficial peronieal aka fibular

A

L4-S2

217
Q

Spinal root for Superior gluteal N

A

L4, L5, S1

218
Q

Spinal root for Inferior gluteal n

A

L5-S2

219
Q

Spinal root for Pudendal N

A

S2-S4

S2,3,4 keep pee off the floor

220
Q

Parasympathetics include what cranial nerves

A

CNIII, CN VII, CN IX, CNX

but mostly CNX

221
Q

Short preganglionic nerve, long post ganglionic nerve

A

sympathetics

222
Q

Long preganglionic nerve fiber, short postgangionic nerve fiber

A

Parasympathetic

223
Q

Post gang neurotransmitter of sympathetics

A

NE

224
Q

Post Gang neurotransmitter of parasympathetics

A

Ach

225
Q

mnemonic for brachial plexus

A

rugby teams drink cold beer

roots, trunks, division, cords, branches

226
Q

CN 1

A

olfactory

227
Q

CN II

A

Optic

228
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor

229
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

230
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

231
Q

CN VI

A

abducens

232
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

233
Q

CN VIII

A

Vestibular-cochlear

234
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal

235
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

236
Q

CN XI

A

Accessory

237
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal

238
Q

Foramen of CN exit or path is referred to by which mnemonic

A

come on sofia sofia sofia roll over sofia i am in a (mood for) jugs jugs jugs, hello

239
Q

Foramen of exit for CN I

A

Cribriform plate

240
Q

Foramen of exit for CN II

A

Optic canal

241
Q

Foramen of exit for CN III

A

Superior orbital fissure aka SOF

242
Q

Foramen of exit for CN IV

A

Superior orbital fissure

243
Q

Foramen of exit for CN V (V1, V2, V3)

A

Superior orbital fissure v1
foramen rotundum V2
foramen ovale V3

244
Q

V1 of the trigeminal nerve is called

A

ophthalmic

245
Q

V2 of the trigeminal nerve is called

A

Maxillary

246
Q

V3 of the trigeminal nerve is called

A

mandibular

247
Q

Foramen of exit for CN VI

A

Superior orbital fissure

248
Q

Foramen of exit for CN VII

A

Internal auditory meatus exits through styloid mastoid

249
Q

Foramen of exit for CN VIII

A

Internal auditory meatus

250
Q

Foramen of exit for CN IX

A

Jugular foramen

temporal + occipital = jugular

251
Q

what makes up the jugular foramen*

A

temporal and occipital

252
Q

Foramen of exit for CN X

A

Jugular foramen

253
Q

Foramen of exit for CN XI

A

Jugular foramen

254
Q

Foramen of exit for CN XII

A

Hypoglossal canal

255
Q

mnemonic for function of cranial nerves

A

some say marry money but my brother says big boobs matter most

(S= sensory, M= motor, B= Both)

256
Q

CN I function

A

sensory, smell

257
Q

CN II function

A

sensory, vision

258
Q

CN III function

A

Motor - eye muscles EXCEPT

SO4 LR6 R3

259
Q

What does SO4 LR6 R3 refer to?

A

Oculomotor nerve function is motor supply to all eye muscles except superior oblique which is supplied by CN IV, and lateral rectus which is supplied by CN VI. The REST are supplied by CN III (oculomotor)

260
Q

CN IV function

A

Motor- superior oblique (of eye)

261
Q

CN V function

A

Sensory-face and tongue

Motor- mastication
‘tic doulaoureux’

(Both)

262
Q

CN VI function

A

motor, lateral rectus

263
Q

CN VII

A

Both

Sensory- anterior 2/3 taste (sweet, salty, sour)
Motor- Facial expression

264
Q

CN VIII function

A

Sensory- balance and hearing

265
Q

CN IX function

A

Both

sensory- posterior 1/3 taste (bitter)
motor- secretion of parotid

266
Q

CN X function

A

both

sensory- bitter taste epiglottis, external acoustic meatus
motor- pharynx, larynx

267
Q

CN XI function

A

motor- SCM, Trapezius

268
Q

CN XII function

A

Motor- tongue

269
Q

Nucleus of CN III

A

Edinger westphal nucleus

270
Q

Smallest CN

A

CN IV

271
Q

CN that does not synapse in thalamus

A

CN I

272
Q

CN that is responsible for opening eye

A

CN III

273
Q

Ganglion of CN V

A

Gasserian Semilunar or Trigeminal Ganglion

274
Q

largest CN

A

CN V

275
Q

CN responsible for closing eye

A

CN VII

276
Q

Nucleus of CN VII

A

Superior salvatory nucleus

277
Q

Bell’s palsy is in relation to which CN

A

CN VII

278
Q

Ganglion of CN VIII

A

Vestibular ganglion (of scarpa!!!)*

279
Q

Nucleus of CN IX

A

nucleus ambiguous (inferior salvatory)

280
Q

Nucleus of CN X

A

parasympathetic dorsal motor nucleus

281
Q

Nucleus of CN XI

A

nucleus ambiguous

282
Q

Nucleus of CN XII

A

Hypoglossal nucleus

283
Q

If CN X is weak, the uvula will deviate in what direction

A

away from side of weakness (lesion)

284
Q

If CN IX is weak, tongue will deviate to what side

A

towards side of weakenss

toward-tongue

285
Q

Middle meningeal artery exits where

A

foramen spinosum

286
Q

If there is a question about which bone a CN passes through, take a guess. one bone has a lot more holes than the other. what is it

A

Sphenoid!

287
Q

Sympathetic axons of the ANS are what levels

A

T1-L2/L3

288
Q

Parasympathetic of the ANS include what levels

A

CN III, VII, IX, X

S2-S4

289
Q

Enteric division includes the GI tract and what two neurons (ganglia)

A

Auerbach’s and Meissner’s

290
Q

Auerbach’s aka

A

Myenteric

291
Q

Meissner’s aka

A

submucosal

292
Q

Auerbach’s is for motor innervation of what

A

both layers of tunica muscularis- para and symp input

293
Q

Meissner’s contains only what type of fibers

A

parasympathetic only

secretomotor to lumen

294
Q

How many NT in the enteric division

A

over 30

295
Q

95% serotonin and 50% dopamine is found where

A

bowels

enteric division

296
Q

what percent of our immune systems depend on the gut to kill invaders

A

70%

297
Q

what is considered the second brain of the body

A

enteric division (gut)

298
Q

Ossification of skull begins when

A

7-8 wks embryo

299
Q

Coronal suture divides what

A

frontal and parietal

300
Q

Sagittal suture divides what

A

2 parietals

301
Q

Lambdoidal suture divides what

A

parietal and occipital

302
Q

Squamous suture divides what

A

temporal and parietal

303
Q

What bone is NOT a part of the orbit

A

nasal bone

304
Q

How many teeth at age 3

A

20

305
Q

How many adult teeth

A

32

306
Q

Top- bottom what is a tooth composed of

A

enamel- dentin- pulp (contains nerves and vessels)- cementum- root

EDPCR

307
Q

how many primary ossification centers in the vertebral column

A

3

308
Q

how many secondary ossification centers in the vertebral column

A

five secondary

309
Q

where are the primary ossification centers located

A

1- body

1 on each vertebral arch (totals 2)

310
Q

Where are the secondary ossification centers located

A

1- tip of spinous
2- transverse process
2- annular ring epiphysis (sup. and inf. aspect)

311
Q

lumbars have how many ossification centers instead of the total of 8

A

10 total (2 extra because of mamillary processes)

312
Q

typical ribs

A

3-9

313
Q

atypical ribs

A

1, 2, 10, 11, 12

314
Q

shortest rib

A

1

315
Q

rib that has serratus anterior tuberosity

A

rib 2

316
Q

ribs with no neck or tubercle. considered floating ribs

A

11, 12

317
Q

ribs 11, and 12 articulate with what only

A

vertebral body

318
Q

manubrium is what

A

top of sternum (contains jugular notch, and angle of louis)

319
Q

2nd rib attachment is called what

A

angle of louis

320
Q

sternum aka

A

Gladiolus

321
Q

Sternum is located at what vertebral level

A

T5-9

322
Q

Base of the sacrum contains what feature

A

sacral promontory

323
Q

ala of sacrum is known as what

A

wings

324
Q

sacral foramina have what special function

A

branches of sacral spinal nerves pass through them

325
Q

apex of sacrum articulates with what

A

coccyx

326
Q

Hyoid bone is at what cervical landmark

A

C3

327
Q

Cornu of thyroid is at what cervical landmark

A

C4

328
Q

Body of thyroid is at what cervical landmark

A

C5

329
Q

Cricoid cartilage is at what cervical landmark

A

C6

330
Q

Carotid tubercle is at what cervical landmark

A

C6

331
Q

How many atypical vertebra in adult

A

9

332
Q

C2-C6 are collectively referred to as what

A

Joints of Luska

333
Q

What is the lowest level vertebral artery

A

C6

334
Q

What body shape of Cervicals

A

Oval

335
Q

Whats the body shape of thoracics

A

heart

336
Q

Whats the body shape of lumbars

A

bean

337
Q

C1 superior articulating facet

A

BUM

338
Q

C2 superior articulating facet

A

BUL

339
Q

C3-C6 superior articulating facet

A

BUM

340
Q

C7 superior articulating facet

A

BUM

341
Q

T1-T11 superior articulating facet

A

BUL

342
Q

T12 superior articulating facet

A

BUL

343
Q

L1-L5 superior articulating facet

A

BUM

344
Q

S1 superior articulating facet

A

BUM

345
Q

C1 Inferior articular facet

A

BMD

346
Q

C2 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

347
Q

C3-C6 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

348
Q

C7 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

349
Q

T1-T11 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

350
Q

T12 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

351
Q

L1-L5 Inferior articular facet

A

FOLD

352
Q

S1 Inferior articular facet

A

NONE

353
Q

which artery traverses through the suboccipital triangle

A

vertebral artery

354
Q

which nerve traverses through the suboccibital triangle

A

suboccipital nerve

355
Q

name the superior, lateral boarder of the suboccipital triangle

A

superior oblique

356
Q

name the medial boarder of the suboccipital triangle

A

rectus capitis posterior major

357
Q

Name the inferior, lateral border of the suboccipital triangle

A

inferior oblique

358
Q

lateral to medial erector spinae muscles

A

i love sex

iliocostalis
longissimus
spinalis

359
Q

rectus abdominis origin

A

pubic crest and pubic symphysis

360
Q

rectus abdominis insertion

A

xipoind and 5-7 costal cartilages

361
Q

Rectus abdominis nerve

A

intercostal n. (T7-T11)

subcostal n. (T12)

362
Q
  • cremaster origin
A

inguinal ligament

lower internal oblique

363
Q

*cremaster insertion

A

pubic tubercle and crest

364
Q

*cremaster nerve

A

genitofemoral n.

365
Q

*cremaster action

A

retracts testes

366
Q

*psoas major origin

A

Tp’s, bodies, and discs of T12-L5

367
Q

Psoas major insertion

A

lesser trochanter

368
Q

Psoas major nerve

A

L2, L3

369
Q

Psoas major action

A

flexes thigh and trunk

370
Q

what pierces the psoas major muscle*****

A

FEMORAL NERVE

371
Q

*piriformis origin

A

anterior sacrum and sacrotuberous ligament

372
Q

Piriformis insertion

A

greater trochanter

373
Q

Piriformis nerve

A

S1-S2

374
Q

Piriformis action

A

external rotation of hip, abduction of thigh

375
Q

what muscles make up the levator ani

A

pubococcygeus
puborectalis
iliococcygeus

376
Q

levator ani origin

A

1, 2 pubis

3 pelvic fascia tendinous arch and ischial spine

377
Q

levator ani insertion

A

coccyx
U shaped rectal sling
coccyx and anococcygeal ligament

378
Q

levator ani nerve

A

S3, S4 and puedendal

379
Q

Levator ani action

A

supports pelvic viscera
resists increased abdominal pressure
completes pelvic floor

380
Q

Coccygeus origin

A

ischial spine and sacrospinous ligament

381
Q

coccygeus insertion

A

lower sacrum and coccyx

382
Q

Coccygeus nerve

A

S4-5

383
Q

coccygeus action

A

Supports and pulls coccyx anteriorly

384
Q

deep transversus perinei action

A

supportive role only

385
Q

anterior longitudinal ligament aka

A

atlanto occipital ligament

386
Q

ALL goes from where to where

A

atlas- occiput

387
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament aka

A

membrane tectoria ligament

388
Q

PLL goes from where to where

A

axis to occiput

389
Q

Ligamentum flavum aka

A

yellow ligament

390
Q

ligamentum flavum goes from where to where

A

lamina to lamina

391
Q

interspinous ligament is thickest where

A

lumbars

392
Q

Supraspinous ligament aka

A

ligamentum nuchae

393
Q

Supraspinous ligament goes from where to where

A

C7- occiput

394
Q

What ligament holds the dens

A

transverse ligament

395
Q

Cruciform ligament goes from where to where

A

C2-occiput

396
Q

Alar ligament goes from where to where

A

dens to occiput

397
Q

alar ligament aka

A

check ligament (limits rotation)

398
Q

what ligament limits rotation

A

alar ligament

399
Q

apical dental ligament goes from where to where

A

tip of dens to rim of occiput

400
Q

denticulate ligament means

A

‘toothed’

anchors spinal cord to the bony vertebral canal

401
Q

Which ligaments can affect the IVF

A

ligamentum flava and posterior longitudinal ligament

402
Q

which ligaments are involved in spinal canal stenosis

A

ligamentum flava and posterior longitudinal ligament

403
Q

least numerous taste buds, bitter

A

circum vallate

404
Q

most numerous taste buds, tip of tongue

A

fungiform

405
Q

posterior roof of mouth and lateral margins are what taste receptor

A

foliate

406
Q

which taste receptors have no taste, but are sensitive to touch

A

filiform

407
Q

embryonic thyroid diverticulum (dorsal depression of tongue)

A

foramen caecum

408
Q

limbic area, contains granular, mitral and tufted cells and a glomerulus

A

olfactory bulb

409
Q

retina develops from where

A

ectoderm

410
Q

sclera is derived from what

A

dura

411
Q

a blind spot is attributed to what structure

A

optic disc

412
Q

what muscle controls the shape of the lens of the eye

A

ciliary muscle

413
Q

middle ear to nasopharyngeal area

A

auditory tube

414
Q

auditory tube aka

A

eustachian tube

415
Q

intraocular pressure

A

glaucoma

416
Q

vitreous humor of the eye is located where directionally

A

posterior

417
Q

aqueous humor of the eye is located where directionally

A

anterior

418
Q

IVD remnant

A

nucleus pulposus

419
Q

structures that contain endolymph

A

scala media
saccule
utricle
semicircular duct

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