Physiology Flashcards
Depolarization phase AKA
ascending phase
Depolarization has an influx of what
Sodium
During which phase of the action potential is an impulse likely to occur
Depolarization phase
What gates close during the end of depolarization phase
Na++ gates close
When does threshold occur during depolarization
-55 to -50 mV
Repolarization has in efflux of what
Potassium (through facilitated diffusion)
During repolarization of an action potential, is the inside membrane more positive, or less positive
less positive inside membrane
Repolarization AKA
descending phase
What is the name of the stage before the action potential begins
resting state
Membrane becomes polarized at what level mV
-90 mV
During depolarization, the inside of the membrane becomes more positive, or less positive?
Na+ influx makes inside more positive
-90mV is immediately neutralized
Repolarization stage happens how quickly?
10,000th of a second
During repolarization phase, Na+ channels begin to close. What channels open wider to reestablish a negative resting membrane potential
K+ (potassium)
What are the names of the two voltage gated sodium channel gates?
activation gate
inactivation gate
What does the activation gate do
Outside of the channel, the activation gate will flip all the way open at -70 to -50 mV causing Na+ ions to pour in
What does the inactivation gate do
The inactivation gate is inside of the channel. It closes more slowly than the activation gate. The inactivation gate will not re-open until membrane potential is at or nearly at “resting membrane potential” level
What is the name of the most common synaptic transmission
Axodendritic
Tunnels (connexons) to connect cytosol of two cells are called what
gap junction
What is needed to burst the telodendria (terminal bulb) to release the stored neurotransmitter
Ca++
Norepinephrine, glutamate, and nitric oxide are all excitatory or inhibitory
excitatory
NE is found where
brain stem, hypothalamus
Glutamate is found where
CNS, cerebral cortex
Nitric oxide is found where
Brain (quickly diffuses)
Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, and Serotonin are all excitatory or inhibitory
inhibitory
Avetylcholine is found where
Motor cortex
Dopamine is found where
substantia nigra
Glycine is found where
spinal cord
GABA is found where
spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia
Serotonin
Brain stem
Myelin is stripped and replaced with scar tissue is called what
sclerosis
Myelin is primarily made of what
Fat
Post synaptic potentials spatial summation
buildup NT’s released- SEVERAL presynaptic bulbs
Post synaptic potentials, temporal summation
NT released- SINGLE presynaptic bulb fires 2x or more
What are the 3 other names for a neuron cell body
soma, perikaryon, karyon
Free nerve endings, pain, tickle, itch and temperature are categorized as what type of receptor
Pain- nociceptors
Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor is called what
End bulbs of Krause
Temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated and multi branched. 2-5 degrees perception is specifically what
Corpuscles of Ruffini
General touch is what type of receptor
Merkel’s Disc
Fine touch is what type of receptor
Meissner’s corpuscles
What tract is Merkel’s disc located?
Anterior spinothalamic tract
Where are Meissner’s Corpuscles located
Dorsal column
What is the only receptor that is NOT encapsulated
Merkel’s Disc
Pressure, vibration, encapsulated is what type of touch receptor
Pacinian Corpuscle*
Which touch receptor is also known as the ‘phasic receptor’
Pacinian corpuscles
Stretch (dynamic and static ONLY in skeletal muscle) is what type of proprioception receptor
Muscle spindles
Load or weight is which type of proprioception receptor
Golgi tendon organ
Prevents excessive tension in a muscle is which type of proprioception receptor
Golgi tendon reflex
Sympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle
vasoconstricts- shunts blood via vasomotor control to proximal limbs and lungs
Sympathetic response to heart
increases heart rate
‘Tachycardia’
Sympathetic response to lung and bronchi
Deep breaths
dilates bronchi
‘Mydriasis’= dilation
Sympathetic response to eyes-pupils
dilates
Sympathetic response to GI peristalsis and colon
decreases secretions
decreases digestion
Sympathetic response to receptors
adrenergic
Sympathetic response to neurotransmitters- Preganglionic, postganglionic
Pre: acetylcholine
Post: epinephrine
norepinephrine
Parasympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle
Little or no effect
Parasympathetic response to heart
decreases heart rate
‘bradycardia’
Parasympathetic response to lung or bronchi
shallow breaths
constricts
Parasympathetic response to eyes-pupils
constricts
Parasympathetic response to GI peristalsis, and colon
Increase secretions
Increase bowel movement activity
Parasympathetic response to receptors
Cholinergic
Parasympathetic response to neurotransmitter: pre and postganglionic
Pre: Acetylcholine
Post: Acetylcholine
Influx of sodium
Depolarization
Efflux of potassium
Repolarization
No action potential possible
Absolute refractory*
Action potential available with increase potential
relative refractory*
Many synapse single cell
spatial summation
Rapid succession of action potential, few synapses
temporal
Sympathetic ganglion has a _____ preganglion and a _______ postganglion
Short pre
long post
When you see the word cerebellum, Think
Coordination
When you see the word pons, think
Breathing
Location of somatosensory input
postcentral gyrus (parietal lobe)
Location of Visual sensory area
occipital lobe, striate cortex, calcarine fissure
Location of auditory area
superior temporal lobe, gyrus (Heschl’s gyrus)
Location of Gustatory area
base of postcentral gyrus
Location of olfactory area
Medial temporal lobe
Location of Wernicke’s area
superior temporal lobe
What is the RECEPTIVE portion of language
Wernicke’s
Location of motor area of cerebellum
precentral gyrus (frontal lobe)
Location of premotor area of cerebellum
anterior to motor cortex
What area are skilled movements of the cerebellum located
premotor, anterior to motor cortex
What area is the EXPRESSIVE portion of language located
Broca’s area
Where is Broca’s area specifically
Inferior portion of frontal lobe
When you see the word Pon’s, think
Breathing
Which CN are involved in the origin of the pons
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
Midbrain is located where
superior colliculi
inferior colliculi
What is the primary function of the midbrain at the superior colliculi
coordinate the eyeball movements in response to visual stimuli
What is the primary function of the midbrain at the inferior colliculi
coordinate head and trunk auditory stimuli
Which CN are involved with the midbrain
CN III, IV
Medulla is known as the reflex center for what
vitals
heartbeat, breathing, and blood vessel diameter
The medulla coordinates what actions
swallowing, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and hiccuping.
Which nuclei helps to maintain equilibrium with the medulla
vestibular
What is the origin of the Medulla CN
CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
When you see the word cerebellum, think
coordination
‘SIN’ is a mnemonic for what, dealing with the cerebellum
staccato or slurred speech
intention tremor
nystagmus
Thalamus is the main relay between what two structures
cortex and spinal cord
Thalamus deals with what type of sensation
crude sensation
What two systems does the hypothalamus control
ANS and endocrine system
body temp, food intake, and thirst are all controlled by what brain center
hypothalamus
What helps to maintain a waking state and sleeping state
hypothalamus
What area of the brain releases somatostatin
hypothalamus
fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus all deal with what
emotional aspects of behavior
fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus are collectively known as what
limbic system
What is known as the pacemaker of the heart
SA node
SA node is innervated by what CN
X (vagus)
SA node prevents what from happening to the heart
tetany
What is the ONLY artery that is not oxygenated
Pulmonary artery
Carried deoxygenated blood from RV to lungs
What is the ONLY vein that is oxygenated
Pulmonary vein
Carries oxygenated blood to the LA
If there is a pathology associated with valves of the heart, what valves are most likely to be affected?
Mitral Valve (aka bicuspid, or left AV valve) Aortic valve (aka left semilunar valve)
because they are on the left side of the heart and are pumping to the whole body
How many beats/min for the sinus node
60-80 beats/min
How many beats/min for the AV node
40-60 beats/min
How many beats/min for the bundle of HIS
20-40 beats/min
How many beats/min for the bundle branches
zero
How many beats/min for the purkinje fibers
0-20 beats/min
What is the ratio of Na+:K+ that maintains resting state of heart
3Na:2K
3 na out for every 2 k in
When looking at an EKG what is the P wave
Atrial depolarization
When looking at an EKG how long is the duration between the S wave and T Wave
.04 - .06 seconds
When looking at an EKG what is the QRS complex
ventricular depolarization AND
atrial repolarization
When looking at an EKG what is the T wave
Ventricular repolarization
When looking at an EKG, what is happening during the depolarization phase
WORK
depol: apex-base
When looking at an EKG, what is occurring during the Repolarization phase
REST
When looking at an EKG, what is happening to the ventricles and atria while in the QRS phase
Ventricular contraction (shown on EKG) atrial relaxation (hidden or obscured on EKG, because is occurring at same time as ventricular contraction)
The Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves is referred to as what during normal heart contraction
S1- ‘lub’
The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunars) is known as what in normal heart contraction
S2- ‘dub’
EKG (aka ECG) are used to test what organ
heart
EEG is used to test what
Brain
EMG is used to test what
Muscle
Force exerted by fluid against a wall is called what
hydrostatic pressure
Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane
osmotic pressure
** What type of murmurs are the most clinically significant
diastolic murmurs
- What are the diastolic murmur functions on the right side of the heart
Pulmonic regurgitation
Tricuspid stenosis
(PRTS)
** Opposite for systolic murmurs (Ie. pulmonic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation)
**What are the diastolic murmur functions for the left side of the heart
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
(arms)
**Opposite for systolic murmur : (Ie. Mitral regurgitation, aortic stenosis)
What law states what muscle will increase in size when used
Davis’ law
Which law states that stroke volume increases in response to increase volume of blood filling heart
Frank-Starling law (aka Maestrini heart’s law)
What is another name for the frank-starling law
Maestrini heart’s law
Which law states that there is an inversely proportional relationship between absolute pressure and volume of gas, if temp is kept constant within a closed system
Boyle’s law
What are the precursor platelets for hematology and immunity
megakaryocytes
What are the two proteins found in blood
albumin and globulin
What is produced while an embryo
yolk sac
What is produced while a fetus
liver, spleen, lymph, bone marrow
What is produced while an adult
membranous bone marrow
Where is erythropoietin made and what does it stimulate
made in kidney
stimulates RBC production
Bilirubin is taken care of by which organ
liver
What is the sequence of events that takes place during blood clotting
damaged cells–> prothrombin activator changes prothrombin to thrombin–> thrombin is changed to fibrinogen–> fibrinogen is changed to fibrin–> mixes with RBC, platelets, and plasma–> blood clot is formed
white blood cells are known as what
leukocytes
Leukocytes are composed of what
neutrophil (60%) lymphocyte (30%) monocyte (8%) eosinophil (3%) basophil (0%)
Granulocytes
basophil, eosinophils, neutrophil
BEN
Agranulocytes
lymphocytes
monocytes
mnemonic for remembering granulocytes and agranulocytes
never let my engine blow, 60-30-8-3-0
Neutrophils can also be called what
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PML)
Where are Kupffer cells found
liver
Where are alveolar macrophages located
alveoli
Where are microglial cells located
brain
Where are histiocyte or fixed macrophages located
tissue
*Cell membrane found in skeletal and cardiac muscle
sarcolemma
*Stores Ca++ to be released (skeletal muscle)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
*Telephone line to send the action potential into the muscle to cause calcium release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum
T-tubules
two types, actin and myosin, ratio 2:1
myofibril
Thick, H zone, cross bridges, (ATPase attach to the myosin head)
Actin
contains the binding site
F-actin filament
Covers F actin’s binding sites
tropomyosin “mom”
Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding site (found skeletal and cardiac)
troponin “dad”
Consists of actin, myosin, and sarcoplasmic reticulum
smooth muscle
What is needed for smooth muscle contraction
calmodulin
When the muscle is contracted, what band shortens
I band
During muscle contraction, what band stays the same length
A band
Z line to Z line is called what
sarcomere
which band contains both actin and myosin
A band
What band contains myosin only
H band
What band contains actin only
I band
muscle lengthens while it contracts
eccentric contration
muscle shortens while it contracts
concentric contraction
Muscle contracts without joint movement or muscle lengthening
isometric
muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight
isotonic
muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight and speed
isokinetic
single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
motor unit
split ATP rapidly
fast-twitch muscle fibers
Alpha- extrafusal
Gamma- intrafusal
are what type of fibers
ventral root fibers
determined by number of muscle fibers recruited
strength of muscle
What is the name of the complex that moves to expose active sites
troponin-tropomyosin complex
What is impermeable to water
ascending loop of Henle
Abdominal swelling
ascites
Fats are digested where
duodenum
Edema of the whole body is known as what
anasarca
Kidney blood flow sequence
renal artery, interlobar, arcuate, interlobar, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capiullary, venule, interlobular vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein, renal vein, IVC
Urine flow sequence
collecting duct, calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
*Which part of the kidney contains no H2O
Ascending portion
*E = F - R + S
Refers to several questions regarding kidney
Know equation, but what does each letter stand for
Excreted (urine)
Filtered (in glomerulus)
Reabsorbed
Secreted
How much is filtered through the kidney per day
180L/day
other capillary beds only filter 3 L/day
What part of the kidney is responsible for filtration
Bowman’s capsule
Cells form filtration membrane of Kidney are known as what
Podocytes
Counter current membrane in kidney is called
Loop of Henle
Thin-walled vessels, parallel loops of Henle known as what
Vasa recta
Aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and secretes K+ occurs in what location of the kidney
Distal tubule
How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the proximal tubule
65%
How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the distal tubule in the kidney
99%
120-125 ml/min in an adult, determined by hyrdostatic pressure is referred to as what
Normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
