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Part I Boards > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

0
Q

Depolarization phase AKA

A

ascending phase

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1
Q

Depolarization has an influx of what

A

Sodium

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2
Q

During which phase of the action potential is an impulse likely to occur

A

Depolarization phase

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3
Q

What gates close during the end of depolarization phase

A

Na++ gates close

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4
Q

When does threshold occur during depolarization

A

-55 to -50 mV

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5
Q

Repolarization has in efflux of what

A

Potassium (through facilitated diffusion)

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6
Q

During repolarization of an action potential, is the inside membrane more positive, or less positive

A

less positive inside membrane

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7
Q

Repolarization AKA

A

descending phase

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8
Q

What is the name of the stage before the action potential begins

A

resting state

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9
Q

Membrane becomes polarized at what level mV

A

-90 mV

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10
Q

During depolarization, the inside of the membrane becomes more positive, or less positive?

A

Na+ influx makes inside more positive

-90mV is immediately neutralized

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11
Q

Repolarization stage happens how quickly?

A

10,000th of a second

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12
Q

During repolarization phase, Na+ channels begin to close. What channels open wider to reestablish a negative resting membrane potential

A

K+ (potassium)

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13
Q

What are the names of the two voltage gated sodium channel gates?

A

activation gate

inactivation gate

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14
Q

What does the activation gate do

A

Outside of the channel, the activation gate will flip all the way open at -70 to -50 mV causing Na+ ions to pour in

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15
Q

What does the inactivation gate do

A

The inactivation gate is inside of the channel. It closes more slowly than the activation gate. The inactivation gate will not re-open until membrane potential is at or nearly at “resting membrane potential” level

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16
Q

What is the name of the most common synaptic transmission

A

Axodendritic

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17
Q

Tunnels (connexons) to connect cytosol of two cells are called what

A

gap junction

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18
Q

What is needed to burst the telodendria (terminal bulb) to release the stored neurotransmitter

A

Ca++

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19
Q

Norepinephrine, glutamate, and nitric oxide are all excitatory or inhibitory

A

excitatory

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20
Q

NE is found where

A

brain stem, hypothalamus

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21
Q

Glutamate is found where

A

CNS, cerebral cortex

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22
Q

Nitric oxide is found where

A

Brain (quickly diffuses)

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23
Q

Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, and Serotonin are all excitatory or inhibitory

A

inhibitory

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24
Q

Avetylcholine is found where

A

Motor cortex

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25
Q

Dopamine is found where

A

substantia nigra

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26
Q

Glycine is found where

A

spinal cord

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27
Q

GABA is found where

A

spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia

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28
Q

Serotonin

A

Brain stem

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29
Q

Myelin is stripped and replaced with scar tissue is called what

A

sclerosis

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30
Q

Myelin is primarily made of what

A

Fat

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31
Q

Post synaptic potentials spatial summation

A

buildup NT’s released- SEVERAL presynaptic bulbs

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32
Q

Post synaptic potentials, temporal summation

A

NT released- SINGLE presynaptic bulb fires 2x or more

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33
Q

What are the 3 other names for a neuron cell body

A

soma, perikaryon, karyon

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34
Q

Free nerve endings, pain, tickle, itch and temperature are categorized as what type of receptor

A

Pain- nociceptors

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35
Q

Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor is called what

A

End bulbs of Krause

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36
Q

Temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated and multi branched. 2-5 degrees perception is specifically what

A

Corpuscles of Ruffini

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37
Q

General touch is what type of receptor

A

Merkel’s Disc

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38
Q

Fine touch is what type of receptor

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

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39
Q

What tract is Merkel’s disc located?

A

Anterior spinothalamic tract

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40
Q

Where are Meissner’s Corpuscles located

A

Dorsal column

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41
Q

What is the only receptor that is NOT encapsulated

A

Merkel’s Disc

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42
Q

Pressure, vibration, encapsulated is what type of touch receptor

A

Pacinian Corpuscle*

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43
Q

Which touch receptor is also known as the ‘phasic receptor’

A

Pacinian corpuscles

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44
Q

Stretch (dynamic and static ONLY in skeletal muscle) is what type of proprioception receptor

A

Muscle spindles

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45
Q

Load or weight is which type of proprioception receptor

A

Golgi tendon organ

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46
Q

Prevents excessive tension in a muscle is which type of proprioception receptor

A

Golgi tendon reflex

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47
Q

Sympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle

A

vasoconstricts- shunts blood via vasomotor control to proximal limbs and lungs

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48
Q

Sympathetic response to heart

A

increases heart rate

‘Tachycardia’

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49
Q

Sympathetic response to lung and bronchi

A

Deep breaths
dilates bronchi

‘Mydriasis’= dilation

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50
Q

Sympathetic response to eyes-pupils

A

dilates

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51
Q

Sympathetic response to GI peristalsis and colon

A

decreases secretions

decreases digestion

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52
Q

Sympathetic response to receptors

A

adrenergic

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53
Q

Sympathetic response to neurotransmitters- Preganglionic, postganglionic

A

Pre: acetylcholine

Post: epinephrine
norepinephrine

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54
Q

Parasympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle

A

Little or no effect

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55
Q

Parasympathetic response to heart

A

decreases heart rate

‘bradycardia’

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56
Q

Parasympathetic response to lung or bronchi

A

shallow breaths

constricts

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57
Q

Parasympathetic response to eyes-pupils

A

constricts

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58
Q

Parasympathetic response to GI peristalsis, and colon

A

Increase secretions

Increase bowel movement activity

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59
Q

Parasympathetic response to receptors

A

Cholinergic

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60
Q

Parasympathetic response to neurotransmitter: pre and postganglionic

A

Pre: Acetylcholine

Post: Acetylcholine

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61
Q

Influx of sodium

A

Depolarization

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62
Q

Efflux of potassium

A

Repolarization

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63
Q

No action potential possible

A

Absolute refractory*

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64
Q

Action potential available with increase potential

A

relative refractory*

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65
Q

Many synapse single cell

A

spatial summation

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66
Q

Rapid succession of action potential, few synapses

A

temporal

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67
Q

Sympathetic ganglion has a _____ preganglion and a _______ postganglion

A

Short pre

long post

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68
Q

When you see the word cerebellum, Think

A

Coordination

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69
Q

When you see the word pons, think

A

Breathing

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70
Q

Location of somatosensory input

A

postcentral gyrus (parietal lobe)

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71
Q

Location of Visual sensory area

A

occipital lobe, striate cortex, calcarine fissure

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72
Q

Location of auditory area

A

superior temporal lobe, gyrus (Heschl’s gyrus)

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73
Q

Location of Gustatory area

A

base of postcentral gyrus

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74
Q

Location of olfactory area

A

Medial temporal lobe

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75
Q

Location of Wernicke’s area

A

superior temporal lobe

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76
Q

What is the RECEPTIVE portion of language

A

Wernicke’s

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77
Q

Location of motor area of cerebellum

A

precentral gyrus (frontal lobe)

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78
Q

Location of premotor area of cerebellum

A

anterior to motor cortex

79
Q

What area are skilled movements of the cerebellum located

A

premotor, anterior to motor cortex

80
Q

What area is the EXPRESSIVE portion of language located

A

Broca’s area

81
Q

Where is Broca’s area specifically

A

Inferior portion of frontal lobe

82
Q

When you see the word Pon’s, think

A

Breathing

83
Q

Which CN are involved in the origin of the pons

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

84
Q

Midbrain is located where

A

superior colliculi

inferior colliculi

85
Q

What is the primary function of the midbrain at the superior colliculi

A

coordinate the eyeball movements in response to visual stimuli

86
Q

What is the primary function of the midbrain at the inferior colliculi

A

coordinate head and trunk auditory stimuli

87
Q

Which CN are involved with the midbrain

A

CN III, IV

88
Q

Medulla is known as the reflex center for what

A

vitals

heartbeat, breathing, and blood vessel diameter

89
Q

The medulla coordinates what actions

A

swallowing, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and hiccuping.

90
Q

Which nuclei helps to maintain equilibrium with the medulla

A

vestibular

91
Q

What is the origin of the Medulla CN

A

CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

92
Q

When you see the word cerebellum, think

A

coordination

93
Q

‘SIN’ is a mnemonic for what, dealing with the cerebellum

A

staccato or slurred speech
intention tremor
nystagmus

94
Q

Thalamus is the main relay between what two structures

A

cortex and spinal cord

95
Q

Thalamus deals with what type of sensation

A

crude sensation

96
Q

What two systems does the hypothalamus control

A

ANS and endocrine system

97
Q

body temp, food intake, and thirst are all controlled by what brain center

A

hypothalamus

98
Q

What helps to maintain a waking state and sleeping state

A

hypothalamus

99
Q

What area of the brain releases somatostatin

A

hypothalamus

100
Q

fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus all deal with what

A

emotional aspects of behavior

101
Q

fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus are collectively known as what

A

limbic system

102
Q

What is known as the pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

103
Q

SA node is innervated by what CN

A

X (vagus)

104
Q

SA node prevents what from happening to the heart

A

tetany

105
Q

What is the ONLY artery that is not oxygenated

A

Pulmonary artery

Carried deoxygenated blood from RV to lungs

106
Q

What is the ONLY vein that is oxygenated

A

Pulmonary vein

Carries oxygenated blood to the LA

107
Q

If there is a pathology associated with valves of the heart, what valves are most likely to be affected?

A 
Mitral Valve (aka bicuspid, or left AV valve) 
Aortic valve (aka left semilunar valve)

because they are on the left side of the heart and are pumping to the whole body

108
Q

How many beats/min for the sinus node

A

60-80 beats/min

109
Q

How many beats/min for the AV node

A

40-60 beats/min

110
Q

How many beats/min for the bundle of HIS

A

20-40 beats/min

111
Q

How many beats/min for the bundle branches

A

zero

112
Q

How many beats/min for the purkinje fibers

A

0-20 beats/min

113
Q

What is the ratio of Na+:K+ that maintains resting state of heart

A

3Na:2K

3 na out for every 2 k in

114
Q

When looking at an EKG what is the P wave

A

Atrial depolarization

115
Q

When looking at an EKG how long is the duration between the S wave and T Wave

A

.04 - .06 seconds

116
Q

When looking at an EKG what is the QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization AND

atrial repolarization

117
Q

When looking at an EKG what is the T wave

A

Ventricular repolarization

118
Q

When looking at an EKG, what is happening during the depolarization phase

A

WORK

depol: apex-base

119
Q

When looking at an EKG, what is occurring during the Repolarization phase

A

REST

120
Q

When looking at an EKG, what is happening to the ventricles and atria while in the QRS phase

A 
Ventricular contraction (shown on EKG)
atrial relaxation (hidden or obscured on EKG, because is occurring at same time as ventricular contraction)
121
Q

The Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves is referred to as what during normal heart contraction

A

S1- ‘lub’

122
Q

The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunars) is known as what in normal heart contraction

A

S2- ‘dub’

123
Q

EKG (aka ECG) are used to test what organ

A

heart

124
Q

EEG is used to test what

A

Brain

125
Q

EMG is used to test what

A

Muscle

126
Q

Force exerted by fluid against a wall is called what

A

hydrostatic pressure

127
Q

Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane

A

osmotic pressure

128
Q

** What type of murmurs are the most clinically significant

A

diastolic murmurs

129
Q
  • What are the diastolic murmur functions on the right side of the heart
A

Pulmonic regurgitation

Tricuspid stenosis
(PRTS)

** Opposite for systolic murmurs (Ie. pulmonic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation)

130
Q

**What are the diastolic murmur functions for the left side of the heart

A

Aortic regurgitation

Mitral Stenosis

(arms)

**Opposite for systolic murmur : (Ie. Mitral regurgitation, aortic stenosis)

131
Q

What law states what muscle will increase in size when used

A

Davis’ law

132
Q

Which law states that stroke volume increases in response to increase volume of blood filling heart

A

Frank-Starling law (aka Maestrini heart’s law)

133
Q

What is another name for the frank-starling law

A

Maestrini heart’s law

134
Q

Which law states that there is an inversely proportional relationship between absolute pressure and volume of gas, if temp is kept constant within a closed system

A

Boyle’s law

135
Q

What are the precursor platelets for hematology and immunity

A

megakaryocytes

136
Q

What are the two proteins found in blood

A

albumin and globulin

137
Q

What is produced while an embryo

A

yolk sac

138
Q

What is produced while a fetus

A

liver, spleen, lymph, bone marrow

139
Q

What is produced while an adult

A

membranous bone marrow

140
Q

Where is erythropoietin made and what does it stimulate

A

made in kidney

stimulates RBC production

141
Q

Bilirubin is taken care of by which organ

A

liver

142
Q

What is the sequence of events that takes place during blood clotting

A

damaged cells–> prothrombin activator changes prothrombin to thrombin–> thrombin is changed to fibrinogen–> fibrinogen is changed to fibrin–> mixes with RBC, platelets, and plasma–> blood clot is formed

143
Q

white blood cells are known as what

A

leukocytes

144
Q

Leukocytes are composed of what

A 
neutrophil (60%)
lymphocyte (30%)
monocyte (8%)
eosinophil (3%)
basophil (0%)
145
Q

Granulocytes

A

basophil, eosinophils, neutrophil

BEN

146
Q

Agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes

monocytes

147
Q

mnemonic for remembering granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

never let my engine blow, 60-30-8-3-0

148
Q

Neutrophils can also be called what

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PML)

149
Q

Where are Kupffer cells found

A

liver

150
Q

Where are alveolar macrophages located

A

alveoli

151
Q

Where are microglial cells located

A

brain

152
Q

Where are histiocyte or fixed macrophages located

A

tissue

153
Q

*Cell membrane found in skeletal and cardiac muscle

A

sarcolemma

154
Q

*Stores Ca++ to be released (skeletal muscle)

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

155
Q

*Telephone line to send the action potential into the muscle to cause calcium release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

T-tubules

156
Q

two types, actin and myosin, ratio 2:1

A

myofibril

157
Q

Thick, H zone, cross bridges, (ATPase attach to the myosin head)

A

Actin

158
Q

contains the binding site

A

F-actin filament

159
Q

Covers F actin’s binding sites

A

tropomyosin “mom”

160
Q

Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding site (found skeletal and cardiac)

A

troponin “dad”

161
Q

Consists of actin, myosin, and sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

smooth muscle

162
Q

What is needed for smooth muscle contraction

A

calmodulin

163
Q

When the muscle is contracted, what band shortens

A

I band

164
Q

During muscle contraction, what band stays the same length

A

A band

165
Q

Z line to Z line is called what

A

sarcomere

166
Q

which band contains both actin and myosin

A

A band

167
Q

What band contains myosin only

A

H band

168
Q

What band contains actin only

A

I band

169
Q

muscle lengthens while it contracts

A

eccentric contration

170
Q

muscle shortens while it contracts

A

concentric contraction

171
Q

Muscle contracts without joint movement or muscle lengthening

A

isometric

172
Q

muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight

A

isotonic

173
Q

muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight and speed

A

isokinetic

174
Q

single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

175
Q

split ATP rapidly

A

fast-twitch muscle fibers

176
Q

Alpha- extrafusal
Gamma- intrafusal
are what type of fibers

A

ventral root fibers

177
Q

determined by number of muscle fibers recruited

A

strength of muscle

178
Q

What is the name of the complex that moves to expose active sites

A

troponin-tropomyosin complex

179
Q

What is impermeable to water

A

ascending loop of Henle

180
Q

Abdominal swelling

A

ascites

181
Q

Fats are digested where

A

duodenum

182
Q

Edema of the whole body is known as what

A

anasarca

183
Q

Kidney blood flow sequence

A

renal artery, interlobar, arcuate, interlobar, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capiullary, venule, interlobular vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein, renal vein, IVC

184
Q

Urine flow sequence

A

collecting duct, calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra

185
Q

*Which part of the kidney contains no H2O

A

Ascending portion

186
Q

*E = F - R + S

Refers to several questions regarding kidney
Know equation, but what does each letter stand for

A

Excreted (urine)
Filtered (in glomerulus)
Reabsorbed
Secreted

187
Q

How much is filtered through the kidney per day

A

180L/day

other capillary beds only filter 3 L/day

188
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for filtration

A

Bowman’s capsule

189
Q

Cells form filtration membrane of Kidney are known as what

A

Podocytes

190
Q

Counter current membrane in kidney is called

A

Loop of Henle

191
Q

Thin-walled vessels, parallel loops of Henle known as what

A

Vasa recta

192
Q

Aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and secretes K+ occurs in what location of the kidney

A

Distal tubule

193
Q

How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the proximal tubule

A

65%

194
Q

How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the distal tubule in the kidney

A

99%

195
Q

120-125 ml/min in an adult, determined by hyrdostatic pressure is referred to as what

A

Normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

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