Spinal Flashcards
Spinal stenosis is characterized by
a. Hemi paralysis
b. Narrowing of the spinal foramen
c. Osteoporosis
d. scoliosis
b. Narrowing of the spinal foramen
The rhomboids originate on
a. Cervical vertebrae and inserts along the inferior edge of the scapula to the medial aspect of the clavicle
b. Thoracic vertebrae and insert along the spine of the scapula
c. Lumbar vertebrae and insert along the scapula from the root of the spine to
inferior angle
d. Thoracic vertebrae and inserts along the scapula from the root of the spine to inferior angle
d. Thoracic vertebrae and inserts along the scapula from the root of the spine to inferior angle
What action is the erector spinae group responsible for?
a. Spinal flexion
b. Spinal extension
c. Spinal rotation
d. Hip flexion
b. Spinal extension
How many ‘grades’ of spondylolisthesis are recognized?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 3
d. 7
b. 5
What vertebral levels are indicated for a CTO?
a. C4-C7
b. C2-C6
c. C3-T6
d. T1-T8
c. C3-T6
What grades of spondylolisthesis can be orthotically managed?
a. Grade 1-3
b. Grade 1-2
c. Grade 3-5
d. Grade 4-5
b. Grade 1-2
Which is not a biomechanical principle utilized in a TLSO?
a. Kinesthetic reminder
b. 3 point pressure
c. Endpoint control
d. Intracavitary pressure
d. Intracavitary pressure
Which is not a goal in managing the paralytic spine?
a. Total contact
b. Comfort
c. Spinal correction
d. Accommodation
c. Spinal correction
There are _____ pre-sacral vertebra
a. 24
b. 18
c. 12
d. 20
a. 24
When doing a blue print for a scoliosis curvature, which brace design does this create?
a. Boston
b. Wilmington
c. Charleston
d. Providence
a. Boston
Ideally the distal trimlines for lumbar corsets terminate where?
a. Iliac crest
b. Proximal to Gluteus Maximus
c. Costal margin
d. The SC junction
d. The SC junction
Of the following fractures, which is the most stable?
a. spinous process
b. teardrop
c. burst
d. chance
a. spinous process
Which is not a clinical indicator of scoliosis?
a. Risser sign
b. Adam’s test
c. Asymmetrical gapping between the arms and waist
d. Shoulder asymmetry
a. Risser sign
The THORACIC BAND on the chairback orthosis terminates at:
a. 1” inferior to inferior angle of scapula
b. 1” inferior to spine of scapula
c. at the axilla level
d. at the trochanter level
a. 1” inferior to inferior angle of scapula
What plane(s) of motion does the Knight Taylor brace primarily control?
a. Sagittal and coronal control
b. Sagittal control only
c. Tri-planar control
d. No Control- used for comfort only
a. Sagittal and coronal control
Orthotic treatment for Scheuermann’s Kyphosis is indicated for curvatures at what range?
a. 20-40 degrees Kyphosis
b. 40-50 degrees kyphosis
c. 50-75 degrees kyphosis
d. 50-75 degrees scoliosis
c. 50-75 degrees kyphosis
Which orthosis is appropriate in treating spondylolisthesis?
a. Williams Orthosis
b. Minerva
c. Taylor Orthosis
d. CASH Orthosis
a. Williams Orthosis
Which of the following orthoses is the best treatment option for an L1 burst fracture?
a. Rigid TLSO
b. semi-rigid LSO
c. Jewett
d. Minerva
a. Rigid TLSO
Where should the iliac crest rolls in a Boston Brace should be placed?
a. L1/L2
b. L2/L3
c. L3/L4
d. Will vary based on the patient presentation
b. L2/L3
What percentage of the iliac crest would be represented with Risser Grade 3?
a. 0–25%
b. 51-75%
c. 26 – 50%
d. 100%
b. 51-75%
Which is a criteria for understanding scoliosis curves’ tendency for progression?
a. Apex of the curve
b. Risser sign
c. Menarche
d. Gender
d. Gender
While playing his last football game of the year, an 18 year old was tackled from behind and felt instant pain in his lower back. He was taken by ambulance to the emergency department where he had a radiograph and MRI scan. The radiograph confirmed spondylolisthesis of L4 with 20% slippage. He has no other injuries. Which of the following orthotic designs is most appropriate?
a. Custom fit LSO
b. Custom fabricated thermoplastic LSO in neutral spinal alignment
c. Custom fabricated thermoplastic TLSO in neutral spinal alignment
d. Boston Overlap Brace
d. Boston Overlap Brace
When the annulus fibrosis is injured and shifts out of alignment with the vertebra, ____ has occurred.
a. Vertebral disc herniation
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Hemiparalysis
d. Ankylosing Spondylosis
a. Vertebral disc herniation
What percentage of the iliac crest would be represented with Risser Grade 3?
a. 0–25%
b. 51-75%
c. 26 – 50%
d. 100%
b. 51-75%
A patient has been referred to you with a prescription stating DX: L5, S1 spondylolisthesis, please fit with LSO aligned appropriately. How would you appropriately align the LSO on the patient in the sagittal plane?
a. Decrease Lumbar Lordosis
b. Increase Lumbar Lordosis
c. Recommend TLSO
d. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
a. Decrease Lumbar Lordosis
Which of the following is not an orthotic treatment goal for treating Scheuermann’s Kyphosis?
a. Bracing for correction of deformity by passive manipulation
b. Bracing to diminish any pain present
c. Bracing to control the deformity progression
d. Bracing to reconstitute the anterior vertebral height through the
application of spinal extension forces
a. Bracing for correction of deformity by passive manipulation
What is the recommendation for juvenile kyphosis?
a. Williams Orthosis
b. Knight Orthosis
c. Boston Overlap Brace
d. Milwaukee Orthosis
d. Milwaukee Orthosis
Which is not a unique characteristic of the cervical vertebrae?
a. Rotate when head is laterally flexed
b. Largest weight-bearing vertebrae
c. Transverse foramen
d. Atlas and Axis allows transverse rotation
b. Largest weight-bearing vertebrae
What biomechanics are used for control in a Jewett Orthosis?
a. Three Point Pressure Systems
b. Increased Intra-Cavitary Pressure
c. Total Contact
d. Kinesthetic Reminder
a. Three Point Pressure Systems
Which condition will not result in pathomechanic changes to the spine?
a. Osteochondritis Dessicans
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta d. Scoliosis
a. Osteochondritis Dessicans
Based on the Denis Three Column Theory, which of the following presentations would not be indicated for orthotic management?
a. Transverse process fracture of two levels
b. Anterior compression fracture
c. Single column fracture with 75% vertebral height compression
d. Three vertebral levels of spinous process fractures
c. Single column fracture with 75% vertebral height compression
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Risser Sign?
a. Can be determined by physical evaluation
b. is used to indicate skeletal maturity based on the degree of ossification of the iliac apophysis
c. is used to indicate whether orthotic treatment is appropriate
d. has stages 0-5
a. Can be determined by physical evaluation
Which of the following is not a low-profile TLSO design for scoliosis?
a. Milwaukee
b. Boston Brace
c. Providence system
d. Wilmington Orthosis
a. Milwaukee
What is the CSL in relaBon to Cobb Technique?
a. Center Sacral Line
b. Cross Spinal Line
c. Cervical Spinal Line
d. Costal Spinal Line
a. Center Sacral Line
Which of the following orthoses are to be used for night-time only treatment of scoliosis?
a. Providence
b. Milwaukee
c. Boston
d. Wilmington
a. Providence
You have a patient with a scoliotic curvature with an apex of T12. What level is this curvature considered?
a. Thoracolumbar
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Cervicothoracic
a. Thoracolumbar
Which orthosis is the most appropriate for treating Scheuermann’s Kyphosis with an apex at T6?
a. Milwaukee Orthosis
b. Underarm TLSO with anterior infraclavicular outriggers
c. Jewett TLSO
d. Halo
a. Milwaukee Orthosis
Spondylolysis results from a fracture of the _____ and occurs primarily in the _____ spine.
a. Transverse foramen; cervical
b. Pars interarticularis; cervical
c. Vertebral body; thoracic
d. Pars interarticularis; lumbar
d. Pars interarticularis; lumbar
You have been paged to see a patient in the hospital with a STABLE T10 anterior compression fracture, they are asking you what orthosis would be most appropriate for this patient?
a. Jewett TLSO
b. SI belt
c. Williams LSO
d. Corset TLSO
a. Jewett TLSO
Which is not a characteristic of Scheuermann’s Kyphosis?
a. Involves wedged vertebrae
b. Self-limiting disease
c. Vertebral rotation
d. It is an idiopathic etiology
c. Vertebral rotation
When measuring for a custom TLSO, all length measurements should be in reference to which landmark?
a. Waist
b. ASIS
c. Xiphoid
d. Scapula
a. Waist
Normal adult thoracic curvature is:
a. 40 degrees kyphosis
b. 30 degrees lordosis
c. 45 degrees lordosis
d. 20 degrees kyphosis
a. 40 degrees kyphosis
Which criteria is BEST for understanding scoliosis curves’ tendency for progression?
a. Apex of the curve
b. Risser sign
c. Menarche
d. Gender
b. Risser sign
Flexion of the lumbar spine results in
a. decreased lumbar lordosis
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Neuropathy
a. decreased lumbar lordosis
Which vertebral level is the inferior angle of the scapula located at?
a. T7
b. T3
c. T10
d. T1
a. T7
Cauda Equina is associated with _____ lumbar plexus
a. T12-L2
b. L1-L2
c. L4-L5
d. L3-L5
b. L1-L2
What is the highest spinal level you can adequately treat with a TLSO?
a. T6
b. T3
c. T8
d. T10
a. T6
