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O&P > KAFO/HKAFO/RGO > Flashcards

KAFO/HKAFO/RGO Flashcards

1
Q

What is the required knee joint clearance for mechanical knee joints on a KAFO?
a. 9mm medially, 8mm laterally
b. 8mm medially, 9mm laterally
c. 5mm medially, 6mm laterally
d. 6mm medially, 5mm laterally

A

a. 9mm medially, 8mm laterally

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2
Q

Which of these SCOs can be unlocked without a knee extension moment?
a. SPL
b. Stride 4
c. E-Mag Active
d. Free Walk

A

b. Stride 4

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3
Q

A patient is seen in clinic that presents with Legg Perthes, what ROM will the prescribed orthosis need to limit?
a. Hip internal rotation and adduction
b. Hip internal rotation and abduction
c. Knee flexion and hip abduction
d. Hip external rotation and adduction

A

d. Hip external rotation and adduction

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4
Q

Which of these SCOs cannot manage a significant knee valgus thrust?
a. UTX
b. Full Stride
c. Sensor Walk
d. SafetyStride

A

a. UTX

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5
Q

Which orthosis is used to treat developmental dysplasia of the hip?
a. Pavlik Harness
b. Toronto Orthosis
c. Newington Orthosis
d. Scottish Rite Orthosis

A

a. Pavlik Harness

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6
Q

When molding for a KAFO where do you place the palm of your hand to limit genu
valgum?
a. Just proximal to the lateral femoral condyle
b. One hand high pushing on the medial proximal thigh
c. Just proximal to the medial femoral condyle
d. One hand moving the ankle laterally

A

c. Just proximal to the medial femoral condyle

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7
Q

What is the main function of the ACL?
a. Prevents anterior translation of the tibia on the femur
b. Prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur
c. Prevents anterior translation of the femur on the tibia
d. Prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the calcaneus

A

a. Prevents anterior translation of the tibia on the femur

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8
Q

For correcting genu valgum, the 3 point forces should be applied over:

a. Thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and medial condyle of the femur
b. Thigh, proximal to the greater trochanter, medial aspect of the foot and medial condyle of the femur
c. Thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and lateral condyle of the femur
d. Thigh, proximal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and lateral condyle of the femur

A

a. Thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and medial condyle of the femur

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9
Q

What type of knee orthosis is used to decrease compressive forces across one compartment of the tibiofemoral joint?
a. Unloader
b. Rehabilitative
c. Functional
d. Patellofemoral

A

a. Unloader

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10
Q

What orthotic system is used to train young Spina bifida (L1 escape) patients to begin standing?
a. RGO
b. Parapodium
c. AFOs
d. UCBLs

A

b. Parapodium

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11
Q

Which knee joint locking mechanism would be most appropriate for a patient with upper limb involvement?
a. Bail Lock
b. Drop Lock
c. Lever lock
d. Key lock

A

a. Bail Lock

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12
Q

A HKAFO with free hip motion in the sagittal plane primarily allows
a. Flexion and circumduction
b. Flexion and extension
c. Transverse rotation and extension
d. Abduction and adduction

A

b. Flexion and extension

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13
Q

What is the most critical measurement to take for a plastic KAFO?
a. Length of the foot
b. Fibular neck to floor
c. Tibial tubercle to floor measurement
d. KC to floor

A

d. KC to floor

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14
Q

Minimum clearance for a mechanical ankle joint on a KAFO should be
a. 7mm medially and 6mm laterally
b. 7mm medially and 7mm laterally
c. 9cm medially and 5mm laterally
d. 6mm medially and 5mm laterally

A

d. 6mm medially and 5mm laterally

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15
Q

Which would not be used for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip?
a. Newington orthosis
b. Pavlik harness
c. Illfeld orthosis
d. Van Rosen orthosis

A

a. Newington orthosis

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16
Q

One of the biggest advantages of the SCO orthoyic system is _______.
a. Lower cost
b. Simplicity to fit
c. Ease of training the patient
d. Greatly reduced energy consumption vs locked knee systems

A

d. Greatly reduced energy consumption vs locked knee systems

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17
Q

What are all the stance control orthoses designed to do?
a. Be unlocked in initial contact and loading response, remain unlocked in mid-stance and lock during terminal stance, pre-swing, and swing
b. Be unlocked in initial contact and loading response, be locked in mid-
stance, and unlock during terminal stance or pre-swing, and remain
unlocked in swing
c. Be locked in initial contact and loading response, remain locked in mid-stance, unlock during terminal stance or pre-swing, and remain unlocked in
swing

A

c. Be locked in initial contact and loading response, remain locked in mid-stance, unlock during terminal stance or pre-swing, and remain unlocked in swing

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18
Q

In a KAFO, genu recurvatum can be controlled by:
a. Lowering the heel
b. Posterior offset knee joint
c. Deeping the distal thigh band
d. Using a free motion knee joint

A

b. Posterior offset knee joint

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19
Q
  1. What is a disadvantage of the bale lock?
    a.Can be disengaged by pushing on an object
    b. Requires two hands to disengage
    c. Requires one hand to disengage
    d. Can flex automatically with ankle DF
A

a.Can be disengaged by pushing on an object

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20
Q

What is a disadvantage of the drop lock knee joint?
a. Can be unlocked by bumping it on a chair
b. Patient has to bend down to unlock the joint manually
c. It is insecure in extension
d. It is complicated to use

A

b. Patient has to bend down to unlock the joint manually

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21
Q

When the mechanical knee joint center is distal to the AKCR, what happens to the
bars as the thigh flexes?
a. The bar moves distally and anteriorly
b. The bar moves distally and posteriorly
c. The bars move posteriorly and proximally
d. The bars move distally but stays midline on the thigh

A

c. The bars move posteriorly and proximally

22
Q

Which mechanical knee joint places the joint axis posterior to the anatomical knee
joint?
a. Posterior offset
b. Straight knee joint
c. Step joint
d. Double Axis

A

a. Posterior offset

23
Q

How do you determine the foot progression angle on a KAFO?

A

Have the patient lay prone with the knee flexed to 90°, place one arm of
the goniometer parallel to the medial border of foot and the other arm
parallel to the bisected thigh
OR
Have the patient sit in a chair with the bisected thigh perpendicular to the front edge of the chair. Record the angle of the medial border of the foot with the front edge of the chair

24
Q

Which SCO can limit any amount of knee flexion?
a. Fullstride
b. Safety Stride
c. SPL
d. UTX

A

b. Safety Stride

25
Q

The ankle joint is _____ rotated in relation to the knee joint.
a. Externally
b. Internally
c. Posteriorly
d. Anteriorly

A

a. Externally

26
Q

You have a patient with some cognitive impairment come into the office with a
knee flexion contracture. You want to make sure that he consistently maintains
maximum stretch while ambulating. Which knee joint would you recommend?
a. Dial Lock joint
b. Ratchet lock joint
c. Ultraflex joint
d. Mackie joint

A

a. Dial Lock joint

27
Q

Blount’s Disease is a bone deformity which primarily presents within the _____
plane.
a. Coronal
b. Sagittal
c. Transverse

A

a. Coronal

28
Q

Which style of knee joint locks in stance to prevent the knee collapsing and
unlocks in swing for the most energy efficient KAFO gait?
a. Bale Lock
b. Spring lever lock
c. Offset locking knee joints
d. Stance control joints

A

d. Stance control joints

29
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of the non-geared polycentric knee joint?
a. Does not control AP instability
b. Does not follow the anatomical bone alignment in flexion and extension
c. Does not control varus or valgus
d. Does not control recurvatum

A

a. Does not control AP instability

30
Q

One of the biggest advantages of the Stance Control Orthosis (SCO) orthotic system is _______.
a. Greatly reduced energy consumption vs locked knee systems
b. Lower cost
c. Simplicity to fit
d. Ease of training the patient

A

a. Greatly reduced energy consumption vs locked knee systems

31
Q

What is the function of the MCL?
a. Resists stressors that increase valgus on the knee when the knee is slightly
flexed to full extension
b. Prevents the tibia from shifting forward and excessively rotate medially as the knee goes into extension.
c. Prevents the femur from shifting forward and excessively rotate medially as the knee goes into extension
d. Resists stressors that increase varus on the knee when the knee is in slight
flexion

A

a. Resists stressors that increase valgus on the knee when the knee is slightly
flexed to full extension

32
Q

What causes the knee joint to unlock in a Stance Control KAFO?
a. Plantarflexion
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Hip flexion
d. Drop lock retainers

A

b. Dorsiflexion

33
Q

A medial unloading knee orthosis is used to treat:
a. Genu Valgum Deformity
b. Genu Recurvatum Deformity
c. Genu Varum Deformity
d. Knee Flexion Contracure Deformity

A

c. Genu Varum Deformity

34
Q

All of the following are contraindications for an RGO, EXCEPT:
a. Knee flexion contracture
b. Spasticity
c. Poor family support
d. LE weakness

A

d. LE weakness

35
Q

In the transverse plane, the hip joint of a HKAFO is aligned
a. Perpendicular to the ankle axis
b. Parallel to the ankle axis
c. Parallel to the knee axis
d. Perpendicular to the knee axis

A

c. Parallel to the knee axis

36
Q

At which point do you place the proximal medial trimline of a plastic KAFO?
a. 10 cm distal to the perineum
b. At the perineum
c. 5 inches below the perineum
d. 3 cm below the perineum

A

d. 3 cm below the perineum

37
Q

What can be added to a drop lock if you want to allow an option for free swing?
a. Bale
b. Drop lock retainer
c. Dial lock
d. Ratchet

A

b. Drop lock retainer

38
Q

Which is the best type of knee joint for extensor paralysis or paresis when a
stance control orthosis is not feasible?
a. Offset knee joint no lock
b. Locking knee joint
c. Polycentric joint
d. Variable position joint

A

b. Locking knee joint

39
Q

What is an advantage of the bale lock?
a. Only requires one hand to disengage
b. Can be disengaged by pushing on the chair to sit on
c. Automatically unlocks with full knee extension
d. Is inherently stable due to the location of the center of rotation

A

b. Can be disengaged by pushing on the chair to sit on

40
Q

How is the AP position of KC determined?
a. Halfway between the anterior patella and the popliteal accounting for the
foot progression angle
b. Measure the AP between the patella and the popliteal accounting for the
foot progression angle, then mark a point 40% anterior to the popliteal
c. Measure the AP between the patella and the popliteal accounting for the
foot progression angle, then mark a point 40% posterior to the patella

A

b. Measure the AP between the patella and the popliteal accounting for the
foot progression angle, then mark a point 40% anterior to the popliteal

41
Q

Which of the following is required for an RGO to be appropriate?
a. Trunk extension strength
b. Hip flexion strength
c. Hip extension strength
d. Knee extension strength

A

a. Trunk extension strength

42
Q

What type of presentation is expected with a patient with myelomeningocele?
a. flaccid paralysis
b. spasticity
c. contracture
d. clonus

A

a. flaccid paralysis

43
Q

Arthrogryposis treatment focuses on
a. Stabilizing flexible joints
b. Keloid scar prevention
c. Spinal realignment
d. Contracture prevention

A

d. Contracture prevention

44
Q

A patient is seen in clinic that presents with Legg Calve Perthes, what ROM will the prescribed orthosis need to limit?
a. Hip internal rotation and adduction
b. Hip internal rotation and abduction
c. Knee flexion and hip abduction
d. Hip external rotation and adduction

A

d. Hip external rotation and adduction

45
Q

A positive Trendelenburg sign is caused by loss of strength from the

A

Gluteus medius

46
Q

What muscle in the leg has the most prominent tendon?
a. Rectus Femoris
b. Vastus Lateralis
c. Adductor Brevis
d. Adductor Longus

A

d. Adductor Longus

47
Q

What primary nerve do the nerves supplying the muscles of the leg originate?
a. Sciatic
b. Ulnar
c. Vagus
d. Popliteal

A

a. Sciatic

48
Q

The anterior muscles of the thigh are innervated by the
a. Deep peroneal nerve
b. Sciatic nerve
c. Obturator nerve
d. Femoral nerve

A

d. Femoral nerve

49
Q

Which is not a muscle that can flex the knee?
a. Gracilis
b. Semimembranosus
c. Tensor Fascia latae
d. Popliteus

A

c. Tensor Fascia latae

50
Q

Poliomyelitis is the result of:
a. A bacterial invasion of the anterior horn cells
b. A viral invasion of the anterior horn cells
c. Degeneration of muscle fibers
d. Inflammation of the axon nerve roots

A

b. A viral invasion of the anterior horn cells

51
Q

The Biceps Femoris is innervated by
a. Tibial nerve
b. Sciatic nerve
c. Obturator nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

A

b. Sciatic nerve

O&P (11 decks)

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