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O&P > Gait > Flashcards

Gait Flashcards

1
Q

A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side

A

a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

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2
Q

This muscle is crucial in single limb support to stabilize the pelvis.
a. Psoas major
b. Adductor brevis
c. Gracilis
d. Gluteus medius

A

d. Gluteus medius

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3
Q

In the sagittal plane at mid-stance, the GRF creates what type of moment at the ankle during normal gait?
a. Plantarflexion
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Pronation
d. Supination

A

b. Dorsiflexion

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4
Q

These muscles are responsible for regulating the rate of tibial progression during normal gait:
a. Tibialis anterior/Pretibial b. Quadriceps
c. Hamstrings
d. Gastrocs/Soleus

A

d. Gastrocs/Soleus

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5
Q

At Loading Response during normal gait, where is the GRF located in reference to the hip in the sagittal plane?
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. lateral
d. medial

A

a. anterior

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6
Q

What action is achieved when muscles fire eccentrically?
a. The muscles shorten and provide shock absorption
b. The muscles lengthen for shock absorption
c. The muscles shorten and provide more power
d. The muscles lengthen and provide more power

A

b. The muscles lengthen for shock absorption

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7
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the passenger unit?
a. postural integrity
b. forward progression
c. stability
d. shock absorption

A

a. postural integrity

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8
Q

In the coronal plane, the GRF is ___________ to the knee causing a _________ moment.
a. medial; varus
b. medial; valgus
c. lateral; varus
d. lateral; valgus

A

a. medial; varus

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9
Q

Which of the following describes a “4-point” gait pattern?
a. Right crutch, left foot; left crutch right foot
b. Left crutch and right foot simultaneously
c. Left and right crutch; left and right foot
d. Right crutch and foot; left crutch and foot

A

a. Right crutch, left foot; left crutch right foot

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10
Q

If the ground reaction force (GRF) is posterior the knee, you would expect to see:
a. Extension
b. Valgus
c. Flexion
d. Varus

A

c. Flexion

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11
Q

At initial contact, the hip is flexed how many degrees?
a. 20 degrees
b. 40 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. Neutral

A

a. 20 degrees

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12
Q

Maximum hip flexion occurs at:
a. Initial contact
b. Midstance
c. Terminal swing
d. Midswing

A

d. Midswing

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13
Q

In the sagittal plane at Loading Response, Where is the GRF located in reference to the ankle during normal gait?
a. Posterior
b. Anterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral

A

a. Posterior

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14
Q

During normal gait, the second highest torque demand on the carrier unit occurs at the hip during which phase of gait?
a. Initial contact
b. Terminal stance
c. Loading response
d. Midstance

A

c. Loading response

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15
Q

During normal gait you see the pelvis drop during mid stance. What muscle weakness could cause this?

A

Gluteus medius

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16
Q

At initial contact, the knee is in what position?
a. 0 degrees (full extension)
b. 5 degrees flexion
c. 15 degrees flexion
d. 20 degrees flexion

A

b. 5 degrees flexion

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17
Q

Which of the following structural impairments would cause the body weight vector to be posterior to the knee, and cause significant increased demand of the quadriceps muscles?
a. Knee hyperextension
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Knee flexion contracture d. Genu Valgum

A

c. Knee flexion contracture

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18
Q

What is the correct order of phases of gait?
a. IC-LR-MSt-TSt-PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw
b. IC-LR-MSt-PSw-MSw-TSw
c. PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw-IC-LR-MSt-TSt d. IC-LR-TSt-MSt-ISw-PSw-TSw-MSw

A

a. IC-LR-MSt-TSt-PSw-ISw-MSw-TSw

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19
Q

The COM is at its highest point during this sub-phase of normal gait:
a. Initial contact
b. Midstance
c. Preswing
d. Midswing

A

b. Midstance

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20
Q

Which of the following motions does NOT assist in shock absorption?
a. Hip extension
b. knee flexion
c. contralateral pelvic drop d. ankle plantarflexion

A

a. Hip extension

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21
Q

A prosthetic foot that is excessively outset in relation to the socket will create which type of moment at the knee?
a. Flexion
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Extension

A

c. Valgus

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22
Q

What position is the knee in during Loading Response?
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Hyperextension

A

a. Flexion

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23
Q

In the sagittal plane, the highest torque demand of any joint within the locomotor unit occurs at the:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
d. Forefoot

A

c. Ankle

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24
Q

A person with severe quadriceps muscle weakness could be negatively affected by this type of moment at the knee:
a. Extension
b. Flexion
c. Varus
d. Valgus

A

b. Flexion

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25
Q

At what phase of gait do the hamstring muscles peak?
a. Terminal Swing
b. Terminal stance
c. Pre-swing
d. Loading Response

A

a. Terminal Swing

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26
Q

What is the significance of knee flexion in Initial Swing?
a. toe clearance of 1cm
b. increase step length
c. shock absorption
d. thigh deceleration

A

a. toe clearance of 1cm

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27
Q

What foot support pattern is considered foot-flat support?
a. plantigrade
b. calcaneograde
c. digigrade
d. unguligrade

A

a. plantigrade

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28
Q

During pre-swing:
a. The knee remains fixed in a fully extended position
b. Circumduction of the hip assists in clearing foot with the ground
c. Weight is rapidly transferred to contralateral limb
d. The ipsilateral foot is in weight acceptance

A

c. Weight is rapidly transferred to contralateral limb

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29
Q

What causes trendelenburg gait?
a. hip abductor weakness
b. hip adductor weakness
c. compensation for painful limb
d. contracture

A

a. hip abductor weakness

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30
Q

In a normal gait cycle, the knee flexes to a maximum angle of ____ during stance.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 60
d. 40

A

d. 40

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31
Q

During terminal swing of normal gait in the transverse plane, what position is the pelvis in?
a. forward rotation
b. backward rotation
c. neutral
d. posterior pelvic tilt

A

a. forward rotation

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32
Q

What deviation is used to compensate for weak hip abductor muscles?
a. Backward trunk lean
b. Scissors gait
c. Abducted gait
d. Lateral trunk lean

A

d. Lateral trunk lean

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33
Q

The average degree of pelvic tilt/obliquity is:
a. 2 degrees
b. 4 degrees
c. 8 degrees
d. 15 degrees

A

b. 4 degrees

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34
Q

Which muscle is NOT a knee extensor?
a. biceps femoris
b. vastus lateralis
c. rectus femoris
d. gluteus maximus

A

a. biceps femoris

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35
Q

At initial contact, the muscles that dorsiflex the foot will ______ to decrease/prevent foot slap.
a. Spasm, then relax
b. Concentrically contract
c. Shorten and relax
d. Eccentrically contract

A

d. Eccentrically contract

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36
Q

Initial contact makes up what percent of the gait cycle?
a. 0-2%
b. 2-12%
c. 12-31%
d. 31-50%

A

a. 0-2%

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37
Q

A gait abnormality in which the patient tends to take a long step with the affected limb and a short step with the sound limb in order to avoid pain on the affected side is called _______.
a. Ataxic
b. Apraxic
c. Antalgic
d. Scissors

A

c. Antalgic

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38
Q

How much pelvic rotation is noted in normal human locomotion?
a. 6-8 degrees
b. 10-15 degrees
c. 8-10 degrees
d. 10-12 degrees

A

c. 8-10 degrees

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39
Q

These muscles are active to limit the rate of hip flexion and tibial advancement at mid-swing during normal gait.
a. Quadriceps
b. Pre-tibials
c. Hamstrings
d. Tensor fascia lata

A

c. Hamstrings

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40
Q

A single gait cycle is defined a the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side

A

a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

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41
Q

During normal standing, the weight line is _______ to the hip, _______ to the knee and ______ to the ankle.
a. Anterior, Anterior, Posterior
b. Posterior, Posterior, Anterior
c. Posterior, Anterior, Anterior
d. Anterior, Posterior, Posterior

A

c. Posterior, Anterior, Anterior

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42
Q

What muscles are active during peak midstance and quiet standing?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastroc/soleus
c. Hamstrings
d. Pretibials

A

b. Gastroc/soleus

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43
Q

A possible cause for circumduction in the gait cycle is:
a. Hamstring weakness
b. Skeletal lengthening of the uninvolved limb
c. Hip flexor weakness
d. poor proprioception

A

c. Hip flexor weakness

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44
Q

Where is the COM located?
a. ~22 cm superior to the hip joints
b. anterior toT10
c. at the pelvis
d. at the hip joint

A

b. anterior toT10

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45
Q

Which is not a cause of ‘crouch gait’
a. Weakened quadriceps
b. Weak calf group musculature
c. Tightness of the hamstrings
d. Achilles tendon tightness

A

d. Achilles tendon tightness

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46
Q

What percentage of the gait cycle does midstance take up?
a. 0-2%
b. 2-24%
c. 12-31%
d. 24-36%

A

c. 12-31%

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47
Q

When are the plantarflexors active?
a. TSt
b. IC
c. MSw
d. TSw

A

a. TSt

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48
Q

This hip’s maximum forward rotation is initially achieved at:
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Midstance
d. Terminal stance

A

a. Initial contact

49
Q

The following phases of gait are a part of which gait TASK?
Pre-swing
Initial Swing
Mid-Swing
Terminal Swing

a. Swing Limb Advancement
b. Weight Acceptance
c. Single Limb Support
d. Double Limb Support

A

a. Swing Limb Advancement

50
Q

What deviation might we expect to see associated with weak quadriceps?
a. Backward trunk lean
b. Forward trunk lean
c. Excessive posterior pelvic tilt
d. Vaulting

A

b. Forward trunk lean

51
Q

You are assessing a new patient and discover that they have hip abductor weakness. What gait deviation can we expect to see in the coronal plane as the patient begins to ambulate?

A

Excessive contralateral pelvic drop

52
Q

The initial point of knee stability during normal gait occurs at:
a. Initial swing
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance
d. Midstance

A

d. Midstance

53
Q

During which phase does the hip and knee flex in order to clear the toe from dragging as the limb advances?
a. Mid-Swing
b. Initial Swing
c. Terminal Swing
d. Mid-Stance

A

a. Mid-Swing

54
Q

At LR, the knee moves to:
a. 15 degrees knee flexion
b. 30 degrees knee flexion c. 60 degrees knee flexion d. 0 degrees knee flexion

A

a. 15 degrees knee flexion

55
Q

During weight acceptance in the coronal plane, the GRF is slightly medial to the calcaneus. What motion does this cause at the subtalar joint?
a. dorsiflexion
b. internal rotation
c. inversion
d. pronation

A

d. pronation

56
Q

In normal gait, the torque moment at this phase requires the greatest muscle demand at the hip joint.
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance
d. Preswing

A

b. Loading response

57
Q

At terminal stance the ground reaction force is positioned ________ to the hip joint during normal gait.
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. In line
d. There is no GRF in Terminal Stance

A

b. Posterior

58
Q

The ankle joint is _____ rotated in relation to the knee joint.
a. Externally
b. Internally
c. Posteriorly
d. Anteriorly

A

a. Externally

59
Q

Which of the following structural impairments would cause the ground reaction force to be posterior to the knee?
a. Genu recurvatum
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Knee valgus
d. Knee flexion contracture

A

d. Knee flexion contracture

60
Q

At midstance, the ground reaction force (GRF) creates what type of torque at the ankle?
a. Supination
b. Plantarflexion
c. Pronation
d. Dorsiflexion

A

d. Dorsiflexion

61
Q

When using an assistive device, such as a cane, for ambulation the patient should use the device
a. In the contralateral hand
b. On the effected side
c. Under supervision of a therapist
d. With a gait belt

A

a. In the contralateral hand

62
Q

When does push-off occur?
a. Terminal Swing
b. Pre-Swing
c. Initial Swing
d. Initial Contact

A

b. Pre-Swing

63
Q

During terminal swing:
a. The knee flexes rapidly
b. The pelvis rotates backwards 5 degrees
c. The knee extends and prepares for initial contact
d. The ankle plantarflexes to 5 degrees

A

c. The knee extends and prepares for initial contact

64
Q

During normal gait, the knee will flex to ________ degrees during loading response.
a. 5
b. 25
c. 15
d. 40

A

a. 5

65
Q

What is the maximal amount of dorsiflexion the ankle experiences during a normal gait cycle
a. 25
b. 30
c. 10
d. 40

A

c. 10

66
Q

What type of moment is created at the knee during stance in the coronal plane?
a. varus moment
b. valgus moment
c. flexion moment
d. internal rotation

A

a. varus moment

67
Q

During normal gait, the knee extends to allow the tibia to reach a vertical position during:
a. Loading response
b. Midstance
c. Terminal stance
d. Midswing

A

d. Midswing

68
Q

The action of the pretibial muscles in midswing allow for:
a. Knee stability
b. Toe clearance
c. Single limb support
d. Tibial progression

A

b. Toe clearance

69
Q

At what phase of gait does the gastroc / soleus muscles peak?
a. Midstance
b. Terminal Stance
c. Loading Response
d. Terminal Swing

A

b. Terminal Stance

70
Q

You are assessing a new patient and during gait analysis you notice a minimal amount of heel contact at loading response and forefoot contact is rapid. Knee flexion is also minimal at loading response. There is decreased dorsiflexion at mid- stance and forefoot rocker starts early accompanied by rapid heel rise. What structural impairment may be causing this?
a. Paralytic foot drop
b. Hip flexion contracture
c. Plantarflexion contracture

A

c. Plantarflexion contracture

71
Q

Lateral displacement of the pelvis helps to bring the COM under the supporting foot and creates a gait width of
a. 2 inches
b. 4 mm
c. 6 inches
d. 2 cm

A

a. 2 inches

72
Q

At mid-swing which muscles are active to ensure the foot clears the ground by 1 cm?

A

Pretibials

73
Q

During Passive Stability, the GRF must be located _________ to the hip and _______ to the knee to maintain stability without utilizing muscle action.
a. posterior to the hip, anterior to the knee
b. posterior to the hip, posterior to the knee
c. anterior to the hip, anterior to the knee

A

a. posterior to the hip, anterior to the knee

74
Q

At what phase of gait are hamstrings firing to decelerate the advancing limb in preparation for the task of weight acceptance?
a. Terminal stance
b. Preswing
c. Midswing
d. Terminal swing

A

d. Terminal swing

75
Q

If the prosthetic foot is too dorsiflexed/anteriorly placed, what deviation of gait will we expect to see in early stance phases of gait?
a. Delayed tibial progression
b. Rapid knee flexion
c. Knee hyperextension
d. Varus thrust

A

b. Rapid knee flexion

76
Q

Initial contact is defined as:

A

The moment when the foot contacts the ground

77
Q

Which determinant of gait occurs in the transverse plane?
a. horizontal pelvic rotation
b. pelvic tilt
c. lateral pelvic displacement
d. knee flexion

A

a. horizontal pelvic rotation

78
Q

A positive Trendelenburg sign is caused by loss of the
a. Biceps femoris
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Psoas major

A

b. Gluteus medius

79
Q

During terminal swing, how far does the body free fall before initial contact?
a. 1 cm
b. 0.02 cm
c. 33cm
d. 60mm

A

a. 1 cm

80
Q

Why are the hamstrings active at TSw?
a. to decelerate the thigh
b. stance stability
c. foreward progression
d. ensure full knee extension

A

a. to decelerate the thigh

81
Q

In normal ambulation, the Quadriceps are most active during
a. Pre-swing to terminal stance
b. Mid-stance only
c. Initial contact to loading response
d. Terminal swing to mid-swing

A

c. Initial contact to loading response

82
Q

In reference to the knee, what position is the GRF at Loading Response?

A

Posterior

83
Q

At Weight Acceptance, the subtalar joint moves into _____________ motion which assists with shock absorption, reduces rotary stress at the ankle and absorbs shear forces on the plantar surface of the foot.
a. pronation
b. supination
c. dorsiflexion
d. plantarflexion

A

a. pronation

84
Q

In theory, what do the 6 determinants of gait aim to do?
a. Improve speed and style of normal human locomotion
b. Allow the human to advance from a quadruped to a biped
c. Reduce the magnitude of vertical and lateral displacement of the center of mass
d. Increase energy expenditure by adding compensatory pelvic motions

A

c. Reduce the magnitude of vertical and lateral displacement of the center of mass

85
Q

At IC, the GRF is _________ to the knee in the sagittal plane.
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. medial
d. lateral

A

a. anterior

86
Q

what position is the hip in during midswing?
a. 25 degrees flexion
b. 60 degrees flexion
c. 5 degrees flexion
d. 10 degrees hyperextension

A

a. 25 degrees flexion

87
Q

How much ankle ROM is needed for normal gait in the sagittal plane?

A

25 degrees

88
Q

What is the most common deformity that causes decreased ROM and thus gait abnormalities?
a. contractures
b. abnormal joint contours c. congenital disorders
d. pain

A

a. contractures

89
Q

Posterior offset knee joints provide stability during what phase of gait?
a. Swing phase
b. Initial contact
c. Terminal stance
d. Mid-stance

A

d. Mid-stance

90
Q

70% of the body’s weight is located in:
a. Locomotor Unit
b. Center of Mass
c. Passenger Unit
d. Pelvis

A

c. Passenger Unit

91
Q

A person with weakness in the gluteus maximus and hamstrings muscles would most like display an excessive:
a. knee flexion moment
b. knee extension moment c. hip flexion moment
d. hip extension moment

A

c. hip flexion moment

92
Q

During the Ankle Rocker, what controls the rate of tibial progression?
a. soleus muscle
b. gastroc muscle
c. elastic recoil of the plantarflexors
d. ankle dorsiflexors

A

a. soleus muscle

93
Q

In the sagittal plane at Initial Contact, the GRF creates what type of moment at the ankle during normal gait?
a. plantarflexion
b. dorsiflexion
c. inversion
d. eversion

A

a. plantarflexion

94
Q

The stance period of a gait cycle comprises approximately ____________ % of the total for a normal gait cycle

A

60

95
Q

In normal gait, the___________ muscles reach peak activity to control the rate of ankle _____________ in early loading response.
a. Gastroc; plantarflexion
b. Gastroc; dorsiflexion
c. Pretibial; dorsiflexion
d. Pretibial;plantarflexion

A

d. Pretibial;plantarflexion

96
Q

What is a possible cause for a patient experiencing foot slap in their transfemoral prosthesis immediately after initial contact?
a. heel bumper too soft
b. patient lost weight
c. heel bumper too firm
d. knee flexion resistance too strong

A

a. heel bumper too soft

97
Q

In normal gait, during initial and mid-swing, the action of the pretibial muscles are:
a. Isometric
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. isotonic

A

c. Concentric

98
Q

At what phase is the dorsiflexors at rest?
a. TSt
b. IC
c. LR
d. ISw

A

a. TSt

99
Q

During normal gait, the ____________ undergoes a _____________ contraction during loading response to allow the knee to flex for shock absorption while preventing it from over flexing.
a. Hamstrings; concentric b. Hamstrings; eccentric
c. Quadriceps; concentric
d. Quadriceps;eccentric

A

d. Quadriceps;eccentric

100
Q

The reversal motion of the subtalar joint afer midstance is caused by the external rotation of the tibia, and it in turn is being driven by:
a. Pelvic obliquity of the contralateral hip
b. Forward pelvic rotation of the contralateral hip
c. Forward pelvic rotation of the ipsilateral hip
d. Pelvic obliquity of the ipsilateral hip

A

b. Forward pelvic rotation of the contralateral hip

101
Q

What is the fulcrum point of the heel rocker?
a. calcaneus
b. ankle
c. achilles
d. MTP joint

A

a. calcaneus

102
Q

At terminal stance in the sagittal plane, the GRF is _________ to the knee, making it __________.
a. Anterior; Unstable
b. Anterior;Stable
c. Posterior; Stable
d. Posterior; Unstable

A

b. Anterior;Stable

103
Q

Which anatomical landmark acts as the fulcrum for the forefoot rocker?
a. Ankle
b. Calcaneus
c. Metatarsal heads
d. Malleoli

A

c. Metatarsal heads

104
Q

At what subphase of gait does maximum ankle dorsiflexion occur?
a. Initial contact
b. Mid-swing
c. Mid-stance
d. Terminal stance

A

d. Terminal stance

105
Q

What causes foot drop?
a. plantarflexion contracture
b. dorsiflexor weakness
c. spasticity
d. equinovarus deformity

A

b. dorsiflexor weakness

106
Q

If the prosthetic foot is too dorsiflexed, what deviation of gait will we expect to see in early stance phases of gait?
a. Delayed tibial progression
b. Knee hyper flexion
c. Knee hyper extension

A

b. Knee hyper flexion

107
Q

Which muscles prevent foot slap at Initial Contact?
a. Dorsiflexors
b. Plantarflexors
c. Quadriceps
d. Evertors

A

a. Dorsiflexors

108
Q

Define: Steppage gait
a. excessive knee flexion during swing
b. excessive ankle dorsiflexion during swing
c. asymmetrical step lengths
d. gait traversing up or down stairs

A

a. excessive knee flexion during swing

109
Q

During quiet standing and peak midstance, the anatomical joint that requires muscle activity for stabilization is the:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
d. Metatarsal-phalangeal

A

c. Ankle

110
Q

In normal gait, maximum hip flexion angle is:
a. 90 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 25 degrees
d. 40 degrees

A

c. 25 degrees

111
Q

At initial contact, the GRF creates what type of moment at the hip during normal gait?
a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. forward rotation

A

a. flexion

112
Q

At terminal stance the GRF on the stance side is _____ to the hip and _____ to the ankle.
a. Anterior; posterior
b. Posterior; anterior
c. Anterior; Anterior
d. Posterior; Posterior

A

b. Posterior; anterior

113
Q

Maximum hip extension occurs at which phase of gait?
a. Mid-swing
b. Terminal swing
c. Terminal stance
d. Mid-stance

A

c. Terminal stance

114
Q

Prosthetic deviations at mid-stance are best viewed from the
a. Sagittal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Coronal plane
d. Tri-planar view

A

c. Coronal plane

115
Q

Impact is reduced during ___________________ through shock absorbing actions of the hip, knee, and ankle
a. Initial contact
b. Loading response
c. Terminal stance

A

b. Loading response

116
Q

How much MTP motion is needed for the Toe Rocker at PreSwing?
a. 55 degrees hyperextension
b. 25 degrees hyperextension
c. 0 degrees
d. 21 degrees flexion

A

a. 55 degrees hyperextension

117
Q

The knee rapidly flexes to 40 degrees at which phase of the gait cycle?
a. PSw
b. ISw
c. LR
d. MSw

A

a. PSw

118
Q

The gastroc inserts ____________, causing strong _______________ capabilities.
a. laterally/ eversion
b. medially/ eversion
c. laterally/ inversion
d. medially/ inversion

A

a. laterally/ eversion

119
Q

The forefoot rocker action in late stance phases initiates knee ______________ for swing phase and assists in efficient clearance of the foot with the ground.
a. Extension
b. Valgum
c. Flexion
d. Varum

A

c. Flexion

O&P (11 decks)

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