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O&P > Pedorthics/SMO/AFO > Flashcards

Pedorthics/SMO/AFO Flashcards

1
Q

What is a characteristic of the Klenzak ankle joint?
a. Built in dorsiflexion assist
b. Dorsi/Plantarflexion resist
c. Plastic joint to be used for thermoplastic devices
d. Dual chamber for pins and spring

A

a. Built in dorsiflexion assist

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2
Q

What is the anatomical landmark used to locate the ankle axis?
a. Apex of medial malleolus
b. Distal tip of medial malleolus
c. Apex of lateral malleolus
d. Distal tip of lateral malleolus

A

b. Distal tip of medial malleolus

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3
Q

You have a patient presenting with a wound, which of the following FOs would be best for her?
a. Accommodative FO
b. UCBL
c. Semi-rigid FO
d. Rigid FO

A

a. Accommodative FO

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4
Q

A patient comes into your office for a CAM walker after an Achilles tendon tear, what modification must be done to decrease tension on the Achilles tendon?
a. Heel lift to plantarflex the foot
b. Forefoot lift to dorsiflex the foot
c. Plastazote to protect the foot
d. Heel pad to decrease pistoning

A

a. Heel lift to plantarflex the foot

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5
Q

What is the difference between metatarsus adductus and clubfoot?
a. In metatarsus adductus the heel is in rigid varus
b. In metatarsus adductus the ankle motion is rigid
c. In metatarsus adductus ankle PF/DF motion is normal
d. In clubfoot the ankle motion is within normal limits

A

c. In metatarsus adductus ankle PF/DF motion is normal

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6
Q

How long is the ponseti AFO/bar worn full time?
a. 3-4 years
b. 2-3 months
c. 3-4 months
d. 2-3 years

A

b. 2-3 months

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7
Q

The ankle joint is _____ rotated in relation to the knee joint.
a. Externally
b. Internally
c. Posteriorly
d. Anteriorly

A

a. Externally

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8
Q

What is true for shoe wedges and flares?
a. A wedge is used to stabilize a shoe without changing the position of the foot.
b. A wedge makes up for leg length discrepancy
c. A flare is used to help correct flexible deformities of the hind foot and/or
forefoot
d. A flare is used to stabilize a shoe without changing the position of the foot.

A

d. A flare is used to stabilize a shoe without changing the position of the foot.

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9
Q

What is one result of a Charcot foot?
a. Increased bone growth causing heel spurs
b. Collapse of the IP joints
c. Collapse of the midfoot
d. Hyperextension of the MTP joint

A

c. Collapse of the midfoot

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10
Q

What does the correct shape for a metatarsal pad include?
a. Same outline shape as a distorted guitar pick
b. Thicker proximally than distally
c. Round ball shape
d. Flat in the coronal view (viewed from the front)

A

a. Same outline shape as a distorted guitar pick

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11
Q

Patient presents with moderate hindfoot varus and pes cavus. Which orthosis would be most appropriate?
a. SMO
b. UCBL
c. AFO
d. KAFO

A

a. SMO

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12
Q

Which soling material would be the least effective for wet pavement?
a. Leather
b. Vibram
c. Gum rubber
d. Crepe

A

a. Leather

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13
Q

What sole rocker design would be indicated for a Charcot joint?
a. Heel-to-Toe Rocker
b. Mild Rocker
c. Severe-Angle Rocker
d. Double Rocker

A

d. Double Rocker

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14
Q

What is true for the Sabolich modification?
a. If the medial one is too distal it can impinge on a motor nerve
b. If the lateral one is too distal it can impinge on a sensory nerve
c. If the lateral one is too distal it can impinge on a motor nerve
d. If the medial one is too distal it can impinge on a sensory nerve

A

b. If the lateral one is too distal it can impinge on a sensory nerve

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15
Q

Which of the following are guidelines for proper shoe fit?
a. Check the shoe fit while sitting only.
b. Make certain that the metatarsal heads are resting in the widest part of the shoe.
c. There should be at least a 1/8” beyond the end of the longest toe and the end of the shoe.
d. The vamp and throat should fit tightly over the forefoot.

A

b. Make certain that the metatarsal heads are resting in the widest part of the shoe.

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16
Q

What is a pathology whose treatment demonstrates the molding and guiding the growth and development of a body part?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Spinal cord injury
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Metatarsus adductus

A

d. Metatarsus adductus

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17
Q

The Posterior Leaf Spring AFO provides support in which plane of motion?
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Transverse
d. Tri-planar

A

a. Sagittal

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18
Q

When turning a conventional AFO into a dorsiflexion assist AFO, what is the best way to set up the double action ankle joint?
a. Springs in the posterior channels
b. Springs in the anterior channels
c. Pins in the anterior channels

A

a. Springs in the posterior channels

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19
Q

Which foot test can be used to determine if the patient has lack of sensation?
a. Surface test
b. Cool bearing test temperature
c. Monofilament test
d. Warm filament test

A

c. Monofilament test

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20
Q

When would you add an anterior pin in a DAAJ?
a. Increase knee flexion after midstance
b. Dorsiflexion assist during swing phase
c. Control knee flexion after midstance
d. Plantarflexion assist during swing phase

A

c. Control knee flexion after midstance

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21
Q

Where are the trimlines located for a solid AFO in reference to the malleoli?
a. Anterior to the malleoli
b. Thru the malleoli
c. Posterior to the malleoli d. Distal to the malleoli

A

a. Anterior to the malleoli

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22
Q

What is true for the foam impression block (crush box) foot impression technique?
a. Provides the clinician with the most control of the foot and its joints during the procedure
b. It is possible to obtain subtalar neutral in the shape capture
c. Should only be used for rigid foot deformities
d. Should only be used for diabetic foot molding

A

b. It is possible to obtain subtalar neutral in the shape capture

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23
Q

Which of the following about GRFs is not true?

a. Plantarflexion creates a knee extension moment
b. Dorsiflexion creates a knee flexion moment
c. A solid ankle AFO set in slight dorsiflexion can block mild knee
hyperextension
d. Setting a Floor reaction AFO in slight dorsiflexion produces a knee extension moment

A

d. Setting a Floor reaction AFO in slight dorsiflexion produces a knee extension moment

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23
Q

Of the orthoses listed below which would be the best for someone with flaccidity below the knee?
a. Articulated AFO
b. SMO
c. PLS AFO
d. Solid AFO

A

d. Solid AFO

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24
Q

Which footplate option limits the 3rd and 4th rockers the most?
a. Full Length
b. Sulcus (distal to met heads)
c. Proximal to the met heads
d. Full length with trimlines on the medial and lateral sides of the toes

A

d. Full length with trimlines on the medial and lateral sides of the toes

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25
Q

A PLS AFO provides support in which plane of motion?
a. Tri-planar
b. Transverse
c. Sagittal
d. Coronal

A

c. Sagittal

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26
Q

Which AFO design effectively limits knee flexion?
a. Posterior Leaf Spring (PLS)
b. None, AFOs cannot control the knee
c. Articulated AFO
d. Floor Reaction AFO

A

d. Floor Reaction AFO

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27
Q

You are fabricating a standard solid AFO for your patient. Where do you set the proximal trimline?
a. 20-25mm below Fibular Head
b. 35mm below Fibular Head
c. 20mm below Fibular neck
d. 2/3 of the length of the leg

A

a. 20-25mm below Fibular Head

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28
Q

What is the medial ankle joint clearance needed for a conventional AFO?
a. 6mm
b. 5mm
c. 9mm
d. 8mm

A

a. 6mm

29
Q

Internal Rotatory Deformity (IRD) includes the following:
a. The forefoot ADDucts and the midfoot pronates
b. The forefoot ABDucts and the tibia externally rotates
c. The forefoot ABDucts and the midfoot supinates
d. The forefoot ABDucts and the midfoot pronates

A

d. The forefoot ABDucts and the midfoot pronates

30
Q

Why are the distal trimlines of the UCBL usually to the sulcus or proximal to the metatarsal heads?
a. Because a rigid toe plate would cause the UCBL to slip off the posterior heel in terminal stance
b. It is more comfortable to the patient
c. With the sulcus or proximal to met head design provides an increased toe
lever arm for more control of the foot
d. It provides for increased 3 point control of the foot in the transverse plane

A

a. Because a rigid toe plate would cause the UCBL to slip off the posterior heel in terminal stance

31
Q

What happens to the foot when there is a rigid 1st ray?
a. The calcaneus goes into valgus
b. The forefoot goes into valgus
c. There is pressure on the 1st metatarsal head
d. The calcaneus goes into varus

A

d. The calcaneus goes into varus

32
Q

When double action ankle joints on a metal AFO are posteriorly aligned to the ankle joint, what path will the calf band follow during dorsiflexion?
a. Anterior and proximal to original path
b. Posterior and proximal to original path
c. Posterior and distal to original path
d. Anterior and distal to original path

A

d. Anterior and distal to original path

33
Q

Forefoot stress can be reduced by performing which of the following shoe modifications?
a. Thomas heel
b. Medial heel flare
c. Rigid rocker sole
d. Increasing heel height on the effected side

A

c. Rigid rocker sole

34
Q

3 point force system to control calcaneal valgus with an AFO (coronal plane)

A
  • proximal lateral AFO
  • proximal and distal to medial malleolus
  • distal lateral calcaneus
35
Q

3 point force system to control calcaneal varus with an AFO (coronal plane)

A
  • proximal medial AFO
  • proximal and distal to lateral malleolus
  • distal medial calcaneus
36
Q

3 point force system to control plantarflexion with an AFO (sagittal plane)

A
  • proximal posterior AFO
  • ankle strap
  • distal plantar AFO under met heads
37
Q

3 point force system to control dorsiflexion with an AFO (sagittal plane)

A
  • proximal strap of AFO
  • plantar surface of calcaneus
  • dorsal aspect of foot (via shoe or strap)
38
Q

3 point force system to control forefoot adduction in the transverse plane

A
  • 1st metatarsal head
  • just proximal to the base of the 5th metatarsal
  • medial proximal calcaneus
39
Q

3 point force system to control forefoot abduction in the transverse plane

A
  • 5th metatarsal head
  • ST groove
  • lateral proximal calcaneus
40
Q

Which is not a result of adding a cushioned heel and rocker sole for shoe modification?
a. Simulated plantarflexion at initial contact
b. Shock absorption
c. Simulated dorsiflexion at terminal stance
d. Decreased stability at initial contact

A

d. Decreased stability at initial contact

41
Q

What differentiates the solid ankle AFO from the other plastic AFOs?
a. Trimlines anterior to the malleolar apex
b. Trimlines through the apex of the malleoli
c. Trimlines posterior to the malleoli
d. Hinged at the mechanical ankle axis

A

a. Trimlines anterior to the malleolar apex

42
Q

Which is not a clinical indication for an Axial Resist AFO
a. Delayed unions of the lower limb
b. Crouch gait
c. Diabetic ulceration
d. Chronic, painful conditions of the lower extremity

A

b. Crouch gait

43
Q

Patient presents with a flexible pes planovalgus, severe navicular drop, with a valgus calcaneus. Which orthosis would be most appropriate?
a. UCBL
b. Functional FO- proximal to metatarsal head length c. PLS AFO
d. Accommodative FO

A

a. UCBL

44
Q

What is the lateral ankle joint clearance needed for a conventional AFO?
a. 5mm
b. 6mm
c. 8mm
d. 9mm

A

a. 5mm

45
Q

If a patient has a rigid first ray (metatarsal-tarsal joint) how would you post the foot?
a. Extrinsically post the first metatarsal head
b. Extrinsically post the lateral 4 metatarsal heads
c. Intrinsically post the medial heel
d. Extrinsically post the medial heel

A

b. Extrinsically post the lateral 4 metatarsal heads

46
Q

What is an example of an exception to “Fit the shoe to the foot, not the foot the shoe” rule?
a. Skew foot deformity
b. Hammer toes
c. Hallux rigidus
d. Metatarsus Adductus

A

d. Metatarsus Adductus

47
Q

Which rocker sole is designed to allow the patient to go from initial contact to toe-off (pre-swing) without having to push past a flat spot?
a. Heel-to-Toe Rocker
b. Mild Rocker
c. Severe-Angle Rocker
d. The Roller Sole

A

d. The Roller Sole

48
Q

The primary consideration for initially choosing the ankle trim lines on a plastic orthosis is:
a. Patients preferred shoe style
b. What the patient wants
c. Trunk control
d. Condition of ankle musculature

A

d. Condition of ankle musculature

49
Q

When fabricating an AFO, the lateral proximal trimline is located inferior to the fibular neck. What anatomical structure are you trying to avoid by doing this?
a. Saphenous nerve
b. Tibial nerve
c. Common fibular nerve
d. Fibular head

A

c. Common fibular nerve

50
Q

You have a patient come into your office with plantar fasciitis. Which of these FOs would be most appropriate?
a. Accommodative FO
b. Diabetic FO
c. Rigid FO
d. Semi-rigid FO

A

c. Rigid FO

51
Q

Proximal anterior trimlines for a floor reaction AFO terminate:
a. At mid patella
b. Distal to the patella
c. Superior to the patella
d. 20mm distal to the fibular head

A

a. At mid patella

52
Q

When establishing the SVA for an AFO where do you measure the shank?
a. Bisect the calf in lateral view
b. Vertical “plumb” line
c. Apex of the calf to the apex of the posterior calcaneus
d. Tibia from tubercle to distal anterior

A

d. Tibia from tubercle to distal anterior

53
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a functional foot orthotic?
a. made from semirigid materials such as plastic or graphite
b. fabricated with a softer material such as plastazote
c. indicated for painful calluses on the plantar aspect of the foot
d. used for rigid foot deformities

A

a. made from semirigid materials such as plastic or graphite

54
Q

What effect would a posterior channel spring have on a DAAJ ankle joint?
a. Dorsiflexion assist
b. Plantarflexion assist
c. Dorsiflexion resist
d. Plantarflexion resist

A

a. Dorsiflexion assist

55
Q

Excessive lateral foot contact could be resultant of
a. Calcaneal varus
b. Genu valgum
c. Pes planus
d. Genu recurvatum

A

a. Calcaneal varus

56
Q

You have a patient with moderate spasticity with significant IRD and you are wanting to allow 2nd rocker for stretching purposes. Which type of ankle strap should you use?
a. Figure “8” ankle strap
b. Internal double pull ankle strap
c. Forefoot strap

A

b. Internal double pull ankle strap

57
Q

The primary motions of the talocrural joint are plantarflexion and dorsiflexion. The joint axis is pitched 10° from the transverse plane and 20° to 30° off the frontal plane. What are the secondary motions?
a. PF: with eversion and abduction
b. DF: with inversion and adduction
c. PF: with eversion and adduction
d. DF: with eversion and abduction

A

d. DF: with eversion and abduction

58
Q

Which is not an indication for an axial resist AFO?
a. Drop foot
b. Heel ulceration
c. Distal tibial fracture
d. Avascular necrosis of talus

A

a. Drop foot

59
Q

Most common presentation from patient with left CVA, right hemiparesis is:
a. Right side neglect
b. Passive tremor
c. Left side neglect
d. Aphasia

A

d. Aphasia

60
Q

What nerve wraps around the fibular neck?
a. Obturator
b. Peroneal
c. Tibial
d. Femoral

A

b. Peroneal

61
Q

____ occurs at the subtalar joint.
a. Flexion / extension
b. Internal / External Rotation
c. Inversion / eversion
d. Abduction / adduction

A

c. Inversion / eversion

62
Q

What manual muscle testing grade requires elimination/minimization of gravity?
a. 0,1,2
b. 1,2,3
c. 3,4,5
d. 4,5

A

a. 0,1,2

63
Q

Muscular Dystrophy and Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
a. progressively improve with age.
b. progressively worsen over time
c. may worsen, then improve
d. are curable

A

b. progressively worsen over time

64
Q

Posterior tibial dysfunction (PTTD) usually results in
a. Forefoot pronation
b. Rigid hindfoot
c. A cavus midfoot
d. Plantarflexion contracture

A

a. Forefoot pronation

65
Q

What is the best treatment option for Charcot foot?
a. CROW walker
b. cam boot
c. diabetic shoes/inserts
d. toe filler

A

a. CROW walker

66
Q

What is the best treatment for talipes equinovarus?
a. ponseti
b. pavlik harness
c. scottish rite orthosis
d. KAFO

A

a. ponseti

67
Q

What orthotic intervention may be needed for early stages of MS?
a. PLS AFO
b. rigid solid AFO
c. KAFO

A

a. PLS AFO

68
Q

Why is it so important for a person with diabetes to frequently check their feet?
a. neuropathy may cause them to be unaware of skin wound on foot
b. dry skin
c. proprioception
d. contracture prevention

A

a. neuropathy may cause them to be unaware of skin wound on foot

69
Q

What typical presentation do you see on a patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth?
a. pes cavus
b. pes planus
c. redness/swelling
d. flexible foot deformity

A

a. pes cavus

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