Specifics (Stolen from others) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mission of the HMH? (Verbatim)

A

The mission of the HMH is to support the MAGTF commander by providing assault support transport of heavy equipment, combat troops, and supplies, day or night under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

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2
Q

10 of the 21 mandatory items on a LZ diagram

(ASATACSOP 6-5)

A
  1. Location (grid)
  2. LZ size in meters
  3. Magnetic North
  4. Topography
  5. Soil composition
  6. Elevation Hazards
  7. Hazards
  8. Buildings
  9. Winds
  10. Ingress direction
  11. Sectors of Fire/WCS
  12. FSCMs/ACMs/Targets
  13. ITG (far/near)
  14. Landing Formation/sites/points
  15. Landing Direction
  16. Egress direction
  17. Wave-off direction
  18. Sun/Moon position
  19. Freq
  20. FN pos/Marking and SOM
  21. EN pos
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2
Q

Publications .1-.5 and who is responsible for updating them.

A
  • ANTTP 3-22.1-USMCRW TACTICAL EMPLOYMENT (MAWTS-1)
  • NTRP 3-22.2-CH-53E NAVAL AVIATION TECHNICAL INFORMATION PRODUCT (Naval Air Systems Command)
    -ANTTP 3-22.3-AIR NAVAL TACTICS TECHNIQUES AND PRODECURES COMBAT AIRCRAFT FUNDAMENTALS (MAWTS-1)
  • NTRP 3-22.4-CH-53E NAVAL AVIATION TECHNICAL INFORMATION PRODUCT (Naval Air Systems Command)
  • ANTTP 3-22.5-ASSAULT SUPPORT TACTICAL SOP (ASTACSOP) (MAWTS-1)
  • ANTTP 3-22.5-CH-53E TACTICAL POCKET GUIDE (MAWTS-1)
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3
Q

Principles of TAC Turn:

(.3 2-8)

A
  1. The aircraft on the outside of the turn will always turn first.
  2. Wing will always change sides in formation.
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4
Q

EMCON LEVELS:

(.5 8-1)

A
  1. Level One. Electromagnetic Warfare Support (ES) threat is negligible. Essential radio transmissions are made and aircraft emitters may be used. Code words, RAMROD, and other techniques will be utilized to prevent Beadwindow events.
  2. Level Two. A significant ES threat exists; takeoffs and landings use MINCOM procedures. Voice communications require encryption (secure) and/or Anti-jam communications. Operate radios at a bare minimum and use brevity codes to reduce transmission time. All other emitters may be used.
  3. Level Three. A serious ES threat exists; data links which offer Low Probability of Intercept / Low Probability of Detection (LPI / LPD) are utilized to mitigate vulnerability of UHF / VHF comms. UHF/ VHF radios, TACAN DME, and unencrypted IFF (i.e. Mode 3) are prohibited.
  4. Level Four. The most restrictive condition and is used when a serious ES threat exists. Electronic emissions are prohibited, including radios, TACAN DME, and IFF / SIF (except required Mode 5 in theater). Radar altimeters are permitted based on risk analysis of adversary ES capability. Takeoffs and landings use NO COMM procedures. Communications with controlling agencies shall be made by ground observers or Air Boss via landline to report departure times and numbers.
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5
Q

Roles for Escorts

(.3 7.4)

A

a. Protection from RW threat
b. Protection from FW threat
c. Protection from EN ground fire
d. Route reconnaissance
e. Clear the LZ by fire
f. Support of downed aircraft

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6
Q

CASEVAC Classifications

(.5 14-1)

A
  1. Urgent: short-notice evacuation (max of 1 hr)a. Urgent Surgical
  2. Priority: evacuation within a maximum of four hours to prevent the medical condition from deteriorating to an URGENT
  3. Routine: They should be evacuated within 24 hours.
  4. Convenience:
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7
Q

Can a HAC downgrade a CASEVAC?

(.3 6.6.2.6.1

A

The aircraft commander may upgrade a casualty’s precedence if the commander believes the condition of the patient has deteriorated to such a degree that a higher precedence is warranted. However, at no time will the aircraft commander downgrade a CASEVAC precedence.

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8
Q

What is the max range, max effective range, rate of fire, rounds per can, and tracer burnout of the GAU-21?

A

a. Max range: 6,500m
b. Max effective: 1,850m
c. Rate of Fire: 950-1100 rds/per
d. Rounds per Can: 300
e. Tracer burnout: 365-1,463m (3-22.4 pg 1-12) OR 1,100m (3-22.3, pg13-8)

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9
Q

10) What laser system do we have for the weapons?

A

IZLID-200P 425P A25

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10
Q

When does the APR missile alert lamp come on?

(.4 5-5)

A

DSCRM ON: flashes when low band signals associated with missile guidance system correlated with high band signals associated with radar tracking systems.

DSCRM OFF: flashes when processed low band signals are intercepted.

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11
Q

What conditions must be met for the Missile Alert Lamp to Illuminate with the DSCRM On:

A

> SL, PRF, PT; <PW

  1. The signal level must be greater than the minimum threshold level.
  2. PRF must be greater than the minimum pulses per second.
  3. The pulse train must exist with not less than minimum pulse train persistence.
  4. Pulse width must be less than the maximum pulse width.
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12
Q

Which BI has the longest burn time?

(.4 TABLE A-8)

A

LUU-19

LUU-19: 7-9 MIN
LUU-2: 4 MIN

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13
Q

X and Y Axis of Ps Diagram

A

X: KCAS
Y: Pressure Altitude

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14
Q

Axioms of Survival

A

LTG AA

  1. Lookout Doctrine/Threat Detection
  2. Threat Evaluation
  3. Giving the Attach Warning
  4. Air Combat Maneuvering
  5. Avoiding Detection
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15
Q

Design Weight of the Rollers

A

(Cargo Manual 2.15) The conveyors are designed to support a 2,200-pound load on a 48-inch-long pallet.

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16
Q

Aircraft Tiedown fittings:

(Cargo Manual 2-3)

A

4.4 (snatch blocks), 5k. 9.7k, 10k, 20k,

The cargo floor is equipped with 5,000-pound, 9,700-pound, 10,000-pound and 20,000-pound tiedown fittings.

NATOPS does not include 9.7k but is in diagram 2-22.3

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17
Q

Restraints Required for internal Cargo:

(Cargo Manual A1-H53BE-CLG-000)

A

Forward: 4 Gs.
Aft: 3 Gs.
Side: 3 Gs.
Vertical: 3 Gs Up.

This means the force exerted by an object or cargo to be restrained is the normal weight times the Gs of the restraint criteria. For example, an object weighing 1,000 pounds must have a forward restraint criteria of 4,000 pounds (1,000 pounds X 4 Gs = 4,000 pounds)

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18
Q

Pubs to reference for TRAP of another Aircraft

A
  1. Its NATOPS
  2. MSSLM
  3. Crash and Salvage Manual
  4. Our NATOPS
  5. .3/.5
19
Q

ALE MDF and OFP

(.4 5.4.2

A

Mission Data File: 4508 and 4513

Operational flight Program: 1137

  • Only OFP 1137 is authorized for AAR-47 42.00*
20
Q

Weapons Control Status

(.3 13.11.3.2)

A

Free: gunners may engage any target not positively identified as friendly

Tight: Gunners may only engage hostile targets positively identified as hostile.

Hold: Gunners may only engage hostile targets in self defense or in response to a formal order.

20
Q

Do sectors of fire change if you reverse landing heading?

A

No

21
Q

Contingencies we always plan for:

A
  1. Asset Attrition
  2. Immediate Reembark
  3. Emergency Extract
  4. CASEVAC
  5. TRAP
22
Q

Lights associated with the 2pt external suspension system.

A

Overhead: Flt mode unsafe light

Caution Lights: 2 PT Flight Unarmed

AL: FWD hook open, AFT hook open

23
Q

Lights associated with 1pt external Suspension System

A

AL: Auto-Release On, Single Pt Hook Open

24
Q

5 steps of the air assault planning process:

A

a. Ground tactical plan
b. Landing plan
c. Air movement plan
d. Loading plan
e. Staging plan

25
Q

Types of HAAR RV

A
  1. Bravo (Head On)
  2. Delta (Head On Offset)
  3. Echo (Tanker Orbit)
  4. Golf (En route)
  5. Hotel (Random)
26
Q

Where must you be established for the tanker to turn at night?

(.3 16.4.1.16 Warning)

A

Observation or Refueling Position

27
Q

HAAR timing considerations around the tanker?

A

(Day/Night minutes)
OBS to Astern: 1/2
Astern to refuel: 3/6
Refuel to disconnect: 1/2
Total: 5/10

28
Q

Rate of Transfer for HAAR:

A

2040 ppm

29
Q

TBFDs Capacity:

A

800gal/ 5440lbs (JP-5)

30
Q

Types of Trap

A
  1. Deliberate
  2. Immediate
31
Q

What is Currency?

A

a. Currency is a control measure used to provide an additional margin of safety based on exposure frequency to a particular skill set and applies to all MOSs that must comply with NATOPS and OPNAV requirements.

32
Q

What is proficiency?

A

a.Event proficiency is defined as successful completion of the performance standard as defined by the T&R.

b. Skill proficiency is defined as meeting the performance standards for all events within a skill. So if you go delinquent in 2211, you are no longer proficient in the CAL core skill,

33
Q

Which antennas are UHF only?

A

Comm 2 FWD and Helostat

34
Q

Reference for mixing HAZMAT and Cargo?

A

AFMAN 24-604 (MCO P4030.19)

35
Q

Weight limits of the ramp:

A

(.3 4.4.1.2) Below + The ramp can support up to 900 pounds of cargo in flight at the HAC’s discretion.

(Cargo Manual) level: 2200; one conner on the ground: 5150

The ramp, when horizontal, will support 2,200-pound pallet loads. With the ramp extended to the ground, one aft corner supported and the opposite corner 3 inches off the ground (representing uneven terrain), it will support a symmetrically placed axle load of 5,150 pounds for a rolling load.

36
Q

What are the effects of High Altitude

A
  1. Decreased Hover Preformance
  2. Decreased FWD Airspeed
  3. Increased Blade Stall
37
Q

Mission Precedence

A

Routine
Priority
Urgent
Emergency
Mandatory

38
Q

Reference for conducting externals:

A

MCRP 4-11.3E Multiservice Sling Load Manual

39
Q

CAN YOU FREQUENCY HOP WHILE COVERED?

A

Yes

40
Q

Landing to the X/Y/Offset

A
  • X: <300M
    o ASSAULT SUPPORT AIRCRAFT LAND WITHIN 300 METERS OF THE TARGET OR OBJECTIVE
  • Y: 300-1000 M
    o ASSAULT SUPPORT AIRCRAFT LAND 300 TO 1,000 METERS FROM THE TARGET OR OBJECTIVE
  • OFFSET: >1000 M
    o DEFINED AS LANDING AT DISTANCES OF 1,000 METERS OR GREATER FROM THE TARGET OR OBJECTIVE OR OUTSIDE OF AUDIBLE DETECTION
41
Q

WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN A PROWORD AND A CODEWORD

A
  1. Proword: PROWORDS ARE USED FOR PASSING PROCEDURAL INFORMATION DURING THE EXECUTION OF A MISSION AND ARE NOT INTENDED TO KEEP THE MEANING CLASSIFIED FROM THE ENEMY.
  2. Codewords: CODE WORDS ARE MOST OFTEN USED IN AN EXECUTION CHECKLIST AND INDICATE THAT SOMETHING HAS BEEN DONE. ARE TO BE KEPT SECRET.
42
Q

WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN COMSEC AND TRANSEC

A
  1. COMSEC: Keeping the information secret. (Ky-58s)
  2. TRANSEC:
43
Q

Prereqs for WTI:

A
  • QUALIFIED 7566
  • NSI
  • ARI
  • DL
  • 500 HOURS IN TYPE
  • GTR 2540/4340, 2331, 2640 PROFICIENT
  • 10 HOURS IN LAST 30 DAYS, 3.0 NVG IN LAST 30 DAYS