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SOP Flashcards

1
Q

SOP: If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate?

A

ALT ACQ

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2
Q

SOP: The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (precision or non precision) is?

A

1000ft

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3
Q

SOP: VMC criteria

A

Cloudbase above 1000ft, visibility above 5000m

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4
Q

SOP: Monitored approach met criteria (precision)

A

Vis 1000m or less and/or reported ceiling 300ft AAL or less

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5
Q

SOP: Monitored approach met criteria (non precision)

A

Vis 3000m or less and/or reported ceiling 1000ft AAL or less

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6
Q

SOP: During a two engine GA the correct roll mode at 400ft, providing routing is available is?

A

LNAV

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7
Q

SOP: Recommended engine cool down period?

A

3 minutes

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8
Q

SOP: Where can you find the non-normal flight patterns and manoeuvres?

A

Manoeuvres section in the QRH

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9
Q

SOP: When is the check of the intermittent warning horn completed?

A

During the preliminary flight deck procedure by PF and during preflight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check by PF

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10
Q

SOP: Who checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

A

PF

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11
Q

SOP: Who checks the Ships Library prior to the first flight?

A

PF

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12
Q

SOP: When should the EMERGENCY EDIT LIGHTS be armed?

A

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure by PF

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13
Q

SOP: Minimum oil quantity for dispatch

A

12 liters

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14
Q

SOP: Which items will the captain review as part of the ‘Before Takeoff Checklist’ under ‘Takeoff Briefing’?

A
  • Packs
  • Bleeds
  • Speeds
  • SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude
  • ET if required
  • adverse weather
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15
Q

SOP: What is the earliest height STD may be set on climb out?

A

When above 3000ft AAL & cleared to a FL

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16
Q

SOP: What is the earliest point flap retraction from F15-F5 may be commenced on a two engine GA?

A

400ft

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17
Q

SOP: How long should the APU be running prior to using as a bleed source?

A

1min

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18
Q

SOP: When should PF “bug up” on a normal NADP2 departure?

A

1000ft AAL

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19
Q

SOP: When may crew plan to fly high speed below FL100?

A

Climb: Class A, B or C airspace and authorised by ATC

Descent: Class A, B or C airspace when requested by ATC. No discretionary high speed allowed

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20
Q

SOP: What is the earliest point the autopilot may be engaged on departure?

A

1000ft AAL

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21
Q

SOP: What is the correct technique for flying an emergency turn procedure?

A

Flown at V2 (magenta bug) and 15AOB. Turn complete before level accel and flap retraction

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22
Q

SOP: In RVSM airspace you have a difference between the Capt & FO altimiters of 180ft, what is the correct procedure?

A

Split the difference and use ALT HLD to control airplane’s flight path

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23
Q

SOP: What is the double brief sequence?

A
  • Independantly verify and pre-set QNH/Minimums
  • Cold temp corr
  • Config seq
  • AFDS & A/T Modes and Selections
  • Actions when visual
  • Actions if not visual
  • Landing gate
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24
Q

SOP: What is a ‘fail passive’ automatic landing system?

A

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

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25
SOP: When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?
When the captain has not set his minimums
26
SOP: When selecting a takeoff alternate, how far can it be from the departure aerodrome? What speed is the diversion distance calculated at?
B737-800 - 427NM B737-700 - 416NM Speed - M.79 / 330Kts
27
SOP: When shall wing anti-ice be used on the ground?
Always when icing conditions exist unless the aircraft is or will be anti iced using type II or type IV fluid
28
SOP: What must you consider when starting engines during cold weather?
- If cold soaked for 3 or more hours at -40 you must contact maintenance - If temperature is below -35 you must idle engine for 2 mins - Oil can take up to 3.5mins to reach minimum operating pressure when temperature below -35
29
SOP: Where can you find hold-over times?
FAA guidelines on Docunet
30
SOP: When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?
SG .79
31
SOP: A new loadsheet is required for an LMC equal to or greater than?
501kg
32
SOP: How will the captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?
Press the attendant call button once and use the phrase "No 1 to the flight deck" over the PA
33
SOP: How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?
The crewmember that first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and tells the flight crew.
34
SOP: During pre-flight planning, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?
- CAT II/CAT III requires CAT I RVR - CAT I requires non precision RVR/Visibility and ceiling mins - NPA requires NPA minima plus 1,000m/200ft - APV BARO-LNAV/VNAV requires NPA or CAT I mins, depending on the DH/MDH - Circling requires circling minima
35
SOP: When is assumed temperature not permitted?
- Contaminated or slippery runway - windshear suspected - anti-skid inop - thrust reverser inop - EEC in alternate mode - landing gear extended flight - bleeds off takeoff - when prohibited by airfield brief - crosswind exceeds 10kts - aircraft has been deiced
36
SOP: What minimum level of fire fighting equipment does FR normally require?
Level 7
37
SOP: Where would you find the table to establish effects on 'landing minima' during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?
OPS A 8.4.1.5
38
SOP: What are the night circling restrictions?
- Max reported crosswind 20kts, gust shall not exceed 40kts - ceiling required before commencing approach circling mins +300ft - "new" captains may not conduct circling approaches at night
39
SOP: What is a "new" captain?
A captain is 'new' until he has completed 100hrs since his first successful line check.
40
SOP: What is a "new" co-pilot?
A co-pilot is 'new' until he has completed 100hrs since his first successful line check.
41
SOP: When is an 'inexperienced' co-pilot not permitted to perform take-off or landing?
- A 'new' co-pilot shall not operate with a 'new' captain - XW not more than 2/3rds limiting value - runway is performance limited - take-off and landing RVR less than 1000m - ceiling less than 100' above decision altitude for a precision approach and 200' above mins for a NPA - contaminated runway - abnormal procedures required due defects - crosswind in excess of 15kts during normal ops - windshear reported or forecast
42
SOP: What are the crew restrictions with 'new' crew member?
New co-pilot shal lnot operate with new captain; new co-pilots must verifiy status of captain at briefing
43
SOP: What is an "inexperienced" co-pilot?
FR co-pilot is inexperienced until he has completed 500hrs in FR
44
SOP: What docs need to be retained in the flight envelope?
- Voyage reports (if used) - loadsheets/LID - flight plans - NOTOC for dangerous goods - disputed fuel receipts - OPT solutions if sent by OPS - de-icing docs - SAFA inspection forms
45
SOP: When is conversion of reported met vis to RVR/CMV not to be used?
- When reported RVR is available; for calculating take-off minima - for any RVR less than 800m
46
SOP: Below what conditions will a monitored approach be conducted on an ILS?
= 1,000m, 300ft AAL
47
SOP: Below what conditions will a monitored approach be conducted on a NPA?
= 3,000m, 1,000ft AAL unless conducting a circling approach
48
SOP: What is the latest point to select gear down/f15 during an ILS approach?
3.5nm
49
SOP: Describe FR policy regarding weather related missed approaches
If a missed approach has been excecuted for meteorological reasons, another approach shall only be commenced if the commander has reason to believe a second approach will lead to a successful landing. In the event of two wx related missed approaches, the commander shal divert unless he receives wx info indicating improvement double the previously given weather. - vis needs to increase by a factor of 2, and ceiling to twice the previous reported height.
50
SOP: What is the minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA?
Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars
51
SOP: What is the maximum approach speed additive?
15kts
52
SOP: Unless a lower turning alt is published, what is the lowest turning altitude on departure?
400ft
53
SOP: Which is the formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors?
2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg multiplied by the flight time in hours
54
SOP: What is the signal to the cabin crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen if they feel OK after an emergency descent?
ATTEND button and "No. 1 to the flight deck"
55
SOP: What is the company approved RVR for a CAT I approach?
550/125/75
56
SOP: When are you permitted to take-off again after a high speed RTO (>80kts)?
Once released by maintrol
57
SOP: What is the minimum cruise speed when not in LNAV
At least 10kts above the lower amber band
58
SOP: When must the I/C Hot mike be used?
After pushback, prior to taxi clearance until completion of TEN Checks climbing. Turned back on prior to the descent checks until parking brake set on stand
59
SOP: What is the immediate level off procedure?
ALT HOLD', reset MCP alt, engage 'LVL CHG'
60
SOP: When do we have to adjust all problished altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections chart on the Winter Ops checklist?
Below corrected MSA when the surface tempearture is below 0 degrees Celsius
61
SOP: What distance Rx point should be used for a visual approach?
4nm or greater
62
SOP: Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate?
Final approach waypoint
63
SOP: Does the aircraft registration have to match the registration on the OFP?
Yes
64
SOP: What is FR policy regarding contingency fuel?
EITHER: 5% of the planned trip fuel, or in the event of in flight re-planning - 5% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight OR: Not less than 3% of planned trip fuel, or in the event of in-flight re-planning - 3% of trip fuel for remainder of the flight, provided that an ERA is available. If more than required for 3%/5%, fuel for 5mins holding at 1500ft in ISA conditions at destination aerodrome.
65
SOP: What lateral clearance is the Route MORA based on?
10NM either side of the route ceterline
66
SOP: Which option should you use when both Wet (Good BA) and WSR are available in the OPT?
Takeoff: WSR Landing: Wet (Good BA)
67
SOP: Within what units is engine vibration acceptable?
0-4 units
68
SOP: What distance must be added to an autoland distance calculation?
F40 - 140m | F30 - 185m
69
SOP: By what factor must OPT NNC landing disatnces be increased by?
1.3
70
SOP: When can non factored NNC landing distances be used?
- Uncontained fire/security threat - no alternative landing airfields available - if in the opinion of the commander, delaying the landing may compromise overall safety of the flight.
71
SOP: What is the minimum LDA acceptable for non normal operations?
1900m
72
SOP: Max alt difference on ground between CPT & F/O and CPT or F/O and field elevation
Between CPT & F/O - 50ft Between CPT or F/O and field elevation - 75ft
73
SOP: Maximum thrust reduction below certified rating?
25%
74
SOP: What are the limitations when intercepting the G/S from above?
- Ensure LOC capture before arming APP | - G/S must be captured before 5 DME or 5nm from RW point for all ILS approaches
75
SOP: With what conditions can you take-off with antiskid inop?
Dry runway ops only.
76
SOP: What is the LNAV engagement criteria in flight
- Active route entered in FMC - Within 3nm of active route, LNAV engagement occurs with any airplane heading - Outside of 3nm, airplane must: - be on intercept course of 90deg or less - intercept route segment before active waypoint

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