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737 Study > SOP > Flashcards

SOP Flashcards

1
Q

SOP: If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate?

A

ALT ACQ

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2
Q

SOP: The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (precision or non precision) is?

A

1000ft

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3
Q

SOP: VMC criteria

A

Cloudbase above 1000ft, visibility above 5000m

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4
Q

SOP: Monitored approach met criteria (precision)

A

Vis 1000m or less and/or reported ceiling 300ft AAL or less

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5
Q

SOP: Monitored approach met criteria (non precision)

A

Vis 3000m or less and/or reported ceiling 1000ft AAL or less

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6
Q

SOP: During a two engine GA the correct roll mode at 400ft, providing routing is available is?

A

LNAV

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7
Q

SOP: Recommended engine cool down period?

A

3 minutes

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8
Q

SOP: Where can you find the non-normal flight patterns and manoeuvres?

A

Manoeuvres section in the QRH

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9
Q

SOP: When is the check of the intermittent warning horn completed?

A

During the preliminary flight deck procedure by PF and during preflight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check by PF

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10
Q

SOP: Who checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

A

PF

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11
Q

SOP: Who checks the Ships Library prior to the first flight?

A

PF

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12
Q

SOP: When should the EMERGENCY EDIT LIGHTS be armed?

A

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure by PF

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13
Q

SOP: Minimum oil quantity for dispatch

A

12 liters

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14
Q

SOP: Which items will the captain review as part of the ‘Before Takeoff Checklist’ under ‘Takeoff Briefing’?

A
  • Packs
  • Bleeds
  • Speeds
  • SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude
  • ET if required
  • adverse weather
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15
Q

SOP: What is the earliest height STD may be set on climb out?

A

When above 3000ft AAL & cleared to a FL

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16
Q

SOP: What is the earliest point flap retraction from F15-F5 may be commenced on a two engine GA?

A

400ft

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17
Q

SOP: How long should the APU be running prior to using as a bleed source?

A

1min

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18
Q

SOP: When should PF “bug up” on a normal NADP2 departure?

A

1000ft AAL

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19
Q

SOP: When may crew plan to fly high speed below FL100?

A

Climb: Class A, B or C airspace and authorised by ATC

Descent: Class A, B or C airspace when requested by ATC. No discretionary high speed allowed

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20
Q

SOP: What is the earliest point the autopilot may be engaged on departure?

A

1000ft AAL

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21
Q

SOP: What is the correct technique for flying an emergency turn procedure?

A

Flown at V2 (magenta bug) and 15AOB. Turn complete before level accel and flap retraction

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22
Q

SOP: In RVSM airspace you have a difference between the Capt & FO altimiters of 180ft, what is the correct procedure?

A

Split the difference and use ALT HLD to control airplane’s flight path

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23
Q

SOP: What is the double brief sequence?

A
  • Independantly verify and pre-set QNH/Minimums
  • Cold temp corr
  • Config seq
  • AFDS & A/T Modes and Selections
  • Actions when visual
  • Actions if not visual
  • Landing gate
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24
Q

SOP: What is a ‘fail passive’ automatic landing system?

A

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

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25
Q

SOP: When will the ‘MINIMUMS’ aural call not sound?

A

When the captain has not set his minimums

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26
Q

SOP: When selecting a takeoff alternate, how far can it be from the departure aerodrome?

What speed is the diversion distance calculated at?

A

B737-800 - 427NM
B737-700 - 416NM

Speed - M.79 / 330Kts

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27
Q

SOP: When shall wing anti-ice be used on the ground?

A

Always when icing conditions exist unless the aircraft is or will be anti iced using type II or type IV fluid

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28
Q

SOP: What must you consider when starting engines during cold weather?

A
  • If cold soaked for 3 or more hours at -40 you must contact maintenance
  • If temperature is below -35 you must idle engine for 2 mins
  • Oil can take up to 3.5mins to reach minimum operating pressure when temperature below -35
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29
Q

SOP: Where can you find hold-over times?

A

FAA guidelines on Docunet

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30
Q

SOP: When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?

A

SG .79

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31
Q

SOP: A new loadsheet is required for an LMC equal to or greater than?

A

501kg

32
Q

SOP: How will the captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

A

Press the attendant call button once and use the phrase “No 1 to the flight deck” over the PA

33
Q

SOP: How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?

A

The crewmember that first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and tells the flight crew.

34
Q

SOP: During pre-flight planning, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?

A
  • CAT II/CAT III requires CAT I RVR
  • CAT I requires non precision RVR/Visibility and ceiling mins
  • NPA requires NPA minima plus 1,000m/200ft
  • APV BARO-LNAV/VNAV requires NPA or CAT I mins, depending on the DH/MDH
  • Circling requires circling minima
35
Q

SOP: When is assumed temperature not permitted?

A
  • Contaminated or slippery runway
  • windshear suspected
  • anti-skid inop
  • thrust reverser inop
  • EEC in alternate mode
  • landing gear extended flight
  • bleeds off takeoff
  • when prohibited by airfield brief
  • crosswind exceeds 10kts
  • aircraft has been deiced
36
Q

SOP: What minimum level of fire fighting equipment does FR normally require?

A

Level 7

37
Q

SOP: Where would you find the table to establish effects on ‘landing minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?

A

OPS A 8.4.1.5

38
Q

SOP: What are the night circling restrictions?

A
  • Max reported crosswind 20kts, gust shall not exceed 40kts
  • ceiling required before commencing approach circling mins +300ft
  • “new” captains may not conduct circling approaches at night
39
Q

SOP: What is a “new” captain?

A

A captain is ‘new’ until he has completed 100hrs since his first successful line check.

40
Q

SOP: What is a “new” co-pilot?

A

A co-pilot is ‘new’ until he has completed 100hrs since his first successful line check.

41
Q

SOP: When is an ‘inexperienced’ co-pilot not permitted to perform take-off or landing?

A
  • A ‘new’ co-pilot shall not operate with a ‘new’ captain
  • XW not more than 2/3rds limiting value
  • runway is performance limited
  • take-off and landing RVR less than 1000m
  • ceiling less than 100’ above decision altitude for a precision approach and 200’ above mins for a NPA
  • contaminated runway
  • abnormal procedures required due defects
  • crosswind in excess of 15kts during normal ops
  • windshear reported or forecast
42
Q

SOP: What are the crew restrictions with ‘new’ crew member?

A

New co-pilot shal lnot operate with new captain; new co-pilots must verifiy status of captain at briefing

43
Q

SOP: What is an “inexperienced” co-pilot?

A

FR co-pilot is inexperienced until he has completed 500hrs in FR

44
Q

SOP: What docs need to be retained in the flight envelope?

A
  • Voyage reports (if used)
  • loadsheets/LID
  • flight plans
  • NOTOC for dangerous goods
  • disputed fuel receipts
  • OPT solutions if sent by OPS
  • de-icing docs
  • SAFA inspection forms
45
Q

SOP: When is conversion of reported met vis to RVR/CMV not to be used?

A
  • When reported RVR is available; for calculating take-off minima
  • for any RVR less than 800m
46
Q

SOP: Below what conditions will a monitored approach be conducted on an ILS?

A

= 1,000m, 300ft AAL

47
Q

SOP: Below what conditions will a monitored approach be conducted on a NPA?

A

= 3,000m, 1,000ft AAL unless conducting a circling approach

48
Q

SOP: What is the latest point to select gear down/f15 during an ILS approach?

A

3.5nm

49
Q

SOP: Describe FR policy regarding weather related missed approaches

A

If a missed approach has been excecuted for meteorological reasons, another approach shall only be commenced if the commander has reason to believe a second approach will lead to a successful landing. In the event of two wx related missed approaches, the commander shal divert unless he receives wx info indicating improvement double the previously given weather. - vis needs to increase by a factor of 2, and ceiling to twice the previous reported height.

50
Q

SOP: What is the minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA?

A

Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars

51
Q

SOP: What is the maximum approach speed additive?

A

15kts

52
Q

SOP: Unless a lower turning alt is published, what is the lowest turning altitude on departure?

A

400ft

53
Q

SOP: Which is the formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors?

A

2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg multiplied by the flight time in hours

54
Q

SOP: What is the signal to the cabin crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen if they feel OK after an emergency descent?

A

ATTEND button and “No. 1 to the flight deck”

55
Q

SOP: What is the company approved RVR for a CAT I approach?

A

550/125/75

56
Q

SOP: When are you permitted to take-off again after a high speed RTO (>80kts)?

A

Once released by maintrol

57
Q

SOP: What is the minimum cruise speed when not in LNAV

A

At least 10kts above the lower amber band

58
Q

SOP: When must the I/C Hot mike be used?

A

After pushback, prior to taxi clearance until completion of TEN Checks climbing. Turned back on prior to the descent checks until parking brake set on stand

59
Q

SOP: What is the immediate level off procedure?

A

ALT HOLD’, reset MCP alt, engage ‘LVL CHG’

60
Q

SOP: When do we have to adjust all problished altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections chart on the Winter Ops checklist?

A

Below corrected MSA when the surface tempearture is below 0 degrees Celsius

61
Q

SOP: What distance Rx point should be used for a visual approach?

A

4nm or greater

62
Q

SOP: Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate?

A

Final approach waypoint

63
Q

SOP: Does the aircraft registration have to match the registration on the OFP?

A

Yes

64
Q

SOP: What is FR policy regarding contingency fuel?

A

EITHER: 5% of the planned trip fuel, or in the event of in flight re-planning - 5% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight

OR:

Not less than 3% of planned trip fuel, or in the event of in-flight re-planning - 3% of trip fuel for remainder of the flight, provided that an ERA is available. If more than required for 3%/5%, fuel for 5mins holding at 1500ft in ISA conditions at destination aerodrome.

65
Q

SOP: What lateral clearance is the Route MORA based on?

A

10NM either side of the route ceterline

66
Q

SOP: Which option should you use when both Wet (Good BA) and WSR are available in the OPT?

A

Takeoff: WSR
Landing: Wet (Good BA)

67
Q

SOP: Within what units is engine vibration acceptable?

A

0-4 units

68
Q

SOP: What distance must be added to an autoland distance calculation?

A

F40 - 140m

F30 - 185m

69
Q

SOP: By what factor must OPT NNC landing disatnces be increased by?

A

1.3

70
Q

SOP: When can non factored NNC landing distances be used?

A
  • Uncontained fire/security threat
  • no alternative landing airfields available
  • if in the opinion of the commander, delaying the landing may compromise overall safety of the flight.
71
Q

SOP: What is the minimum LDA acceptable for non normal operations?

A

1900m

72
Q

SOP:

Max alt difference on ground between CPT & F/O and CPT or F/O and field elevation

A

Between CPT & F/O - 50ft

Between CPT or F/O and field elevation - 75ft

73
Q

SOP:

Maximum thrust reduction below certified rating?

A

25%

74
Q

SOP:

What are the limitations when intercepting the G/S from above?

A
  • Ensure LOC capture before arming APP

- G/S must be captured before 5 DME or 5nm from RW point for all ILS approaches

75
Q

SOP:

With what conditions can you take-off with antiskid inop?

A

Dry runway ops only.

76
Q

SOP:

What is the LNAV engagement criteria in flight

A
  • Active route entered in FMC
  • Within 3nm of active route, LNAV engagement occurs with any airplane heading
  • Outside of 3nm, airplane must:
    • be on intercept course of 90deg or less
    • intercept route segment before active waypoint

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