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737 Study > OMA > Flashcards

OMA Flashcards

1
Q

OMA

New commander restrictions

A

For first 100 hours:

  • No CatB, RYR Restricted or CatC airfield.(also applies for alternate selection). Does not apply in emergency.
  • Not operate with new copilots (below 100hrs since first linecheck)
  • No visual approaches unless no other approach available
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2
Q

OMA

SAFA finding levels

A

3 Levels

  • Level 1: Info to Commander
  • Level 2: Info to authority and company
  • Level 3:
    a) Restriciton to aircraft flight operation
    b) Corrective actions before flight
    c) grounded by authority
    d) immediate operating ban

File report after SAFA check

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3
Q

OMA

minimum experience to operate as SCCM

A

1 year experience + SCCM training

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4
Q

OMA

How many cabin crew are required with pax on-board and when can the number be reduced?

A

4 must be present with exceptions:

  • During normal ground ops not involving fuelling/de-fuelling when aircraft is parked
  • Unforeseen circumstances when pax nr is reduced (report must be submitted to IAA after)

CONDITIONS

  • Procedures ensuring equivalent level of safety with reduced crew numbers
  • 1 Nr1 required
  • 1 cc for 50pax
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5
Q

OMA

CAT A aerodrome criteria

A

CAT A:

  • An approved instrument appr. procedure
  • 1 rwy with no performce limit on takeoff/landing
  • Circling minima not higher than 1000ft
  • Night operations capability
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6
Q

OMA

CAT B aerodrome criteria

A

CAT B:

  • Does not meet CAT A requirements

OR

  • Non-standard approach aids or patterns
  • Unusual local weather conditions
  • Unusual characteristics or performance limits, including ETP
  • Any other relevant considerations (obstructions, physical layout, lighting etc)
  • Cpt signs with the OFP that he has been briefed about the aerodrome (e.g. airfield brief read)
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7
Q

OMA

CAT B RESTRICTED aerodrome criteria

A

Within CAT B, “restricted“ used to alert of:

  • Narrow Runway
  • LDA <1800m
  • Circling requirement
  • Any other consideration
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8
Q

OMA

LVO restrictions for new captains

A

100m must be added to CAT2/3 minimums until cdr has a total of 100hrs or 40sectors (including line training)

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9
Q

OMA

First officer LVO restrictions

A

FO shall act as PM during takeoff in visibility of less than 400m RVR.

FO designated PF for landing until minima and will remain PF unless commander decides to take control and land (i.e go around flown by FO)

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10
Q

OMA

Flight currency requirements

A
  • 90 days 3 landings
  • 45 days no flight -> complete a line flight with a TRI or LTC or simulator
  • 6 months -> complete refresher course + linecheck
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11
Q

OMA

Cabin crew contingent minimum experience for flight

A

Minimum of two experienced crew per flight

Experienced defined as >3 months on line

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12
Q

OMA

After what time should crew seek AME advice

A

Illness lasting at least 21 days

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13
Q

OMA

Vaccine restrictions

A

At least 24 hours before operation

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14
Q

OMA

Diving restrictions

A

No-Compression: min 24 hours before duty

Compression: min 48 hours before duty

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15
Q

OMA

Blood donation restrictions

A

Interval of 24 between donation and flight duty

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16
Q

OMA

Bone marrow and stem cell donation restrictions

A

After donation crew member considered unfit until satisfactory medical re-examination

In addition- for stem cell donations crew considered unfit from commencement of pre-donation hormone therapy

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17
Q

OMA

Define FDP

A

Flight duty period:

Commences when a crew member is required to report for duty

Finishes at on block time

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18
Q

OMA

Where can you find maximum flight duty period

A

OMA 7.9

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19
Q

OMA

Duty period limitations

A
  • 60hrs in 7 days
  • 110hrs in 14 days
  • 190hrs in 28 days
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20
Q

OMA

Total Flight time limitations

A
  • 100hrs in 28days
  • 900hrs in any calendar year
  • 1000hrs in any 12 months
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21
Q

OMA

Limitations on home standby

A
  • Max duration 16hrs
  • if called for duty the standby stops at reporting time
  • if called for duty in first 6 hours FDP starts at assigned flight report time
  • if called for duty after 6 hours, allowable FDP is reduced by the time exceeding 6 hours
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22
Q

OMA

Minimum rest home or away

A

Home base:

  • 12 hours or length of preceding duty, whichever is greater
  • may be reduced to 10 hours if a hotel is provided

OOB

  • 10 hours or length of preceding duty, whichever is greater
  • period includes 8 hours for sleep and 1 hour for physiological needs in addition to the travel time
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23
Q

OMA

When is an overweight landing recommended?

A
  • A serious malfunction that affects the airworthiness of the aircraft. 

  • A condition where an expeditious landing would prevent a non-normal situation developing into an unsafe situation (reduce the exposure to a degrading level of safety). 

  • A serious illness on board requiring prompt medical attention. 

  • If directed by the QRH to “land at the nearest suitable airfield”. 

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24
Q

OMA

When should headsets be used?

A
  • Clearance
  • Ground with engines running
  • Flight except cruise
  • When deemed necessary by cpt
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25
Q

OMA

What does the cabin crew briefing in the crew room need to include at a minimum?

A
  • Registration/Location of AC
  • Security code, procedures and status
  • Operational issues: flight time, slots, specials, weather, turbulence/icing
  • Defects: Serviceability, health/safety issues, any conflicts
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26
Q

OMA

Inexperienced or new co pilot operating limitations

A
  • Xwind more than 2/3 of limit
  • Runway perf. Limited
  • Takeoff rvr less than 1000m
  • Ceiling less than 100 ́above minimum for Prec.app. and 200`above for non-prec.app.
  • Rwy contaminated
  • Abnormal procedures due system defects
  • Inexperienced when xwind exceeds 15knots, except monitored approach
  • Windshear reported or forecasted
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27
Q

OMA

EFB use limitations

A
  • must be attached to mount during all critical phases of flight. If no mount available it must be stowed in flight bag during these phases.
  • not normally handled below 1000’
  • minimum charge at pre flight 70%
  • EFB charging is only permitted when battery level is below 20%
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28
Q

OMA

Minimum RFFS

A

for destination:

  • normally available required 7
  • temporary downgrade 5

any alternate:
- required 5

temporary: as published via notam, for a period not exceeding 72 hours

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29
Q

OMA

Minimum RVR for visual approach

A

800m

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30
Q

OMA

What is final reserve fuel?

A

Fuel to fly for 30 mins at 1500’ AAL ISA conditions at alternate or destination if no alt required

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31
Q

OMA

Standard pax masses for weight and balance

A

Adult: 84kg
Children: 35kg

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32
Q

OMA

Standard bag masses for weight and balance

A

Domestic: 11kg
European region: 13kg
Inter-Continental: 15kg

European region defined in OMA

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33
Q

OMA

what is the maximum departure delay before flight plan is cancelled?

A

> 15 mins

Crew must coordinate with ops to prevent

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34
Q

OMA

Standard mass for flight crew and cabin crew

A

Flight crew: 85kg

Cabin crew: 75kg

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35
Q

OMA

what levels are the sheer values taken from?

A

+/-2000’ around datum level

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36
Q

OMA

If a fault occurs during taxi out requiring return to stand war is the correct phraseology to use with ATC?

A

“RYR XXX requests a return to stand to contact our company”

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37
Q

OMA

When comparing the sum of arrival fuel plus uplift fuel what is the maximum difference?

A

tollerance is 200kg

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38
Q

OMA

What are the different types of airbridge boarding and what are the limitations of use?

A

Two types:

Standard boarding (2 queues - Priority and other)

Adjusted (Priority, 22-33, Other)

Adjusted boarding is not permitted when engineering spare parts are being loaded/offloaded in the rear hold

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39
Q

OMA

How many assistance dogs are permitted on board?

A
  1. Cabin crew must check they are listed on the boarding card
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40
Q

OMA

What are the limitations for accepting battery operated wheelchairs?

A

Wet cell battery chairs cannot be accepted.

Gel/Dry cell battery operated wheelchairs are permitted to be carried in the hold if the battery is disconnected and terminals insulated.

Wheelchairs are not permitted to be carried in the cabin.

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41
Q

OMA

What are the limitations for traveling pregnant?

A

if over 28 weeks pregnant, can be refused travel if does not present a ‘fit to fly’ letter from doctor/midwife

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42
Q

OMA

Max number of deportees/inad on one flight?

A

2

if a family is traveling (greater than 2 persons) prior written authorisation from RYR to commander required

43
Q

OMA

Procedures for accepting inad/deportees

A
  • pre-boarded and disembark last
  • inad/deportee and escort (if applicable) seated at rear
  • where possible, restraints removed while on board
  • Cannot occupy emergency exit seats or isle seats
  • no access to alcohol
  • hold baggage is loaded last
  • documentation retained in flight deck and handed to officials/dispatcher after flight. NOT given to deportee/inad
44
Q

OMA

High wind ops on ground- considerations

A

between 41-60kts

  • if forecast to exceed 40 kts and a/c left unattended crew must contact MAINTROL for guidance.
  • unnecessary ramp equipment will be removed to sheltered location
  • stab trim set to zero units (full nose down)
  • Parking brake set and wheels DOUBLE chocked
  • fuelled to min 7t
  • DO NOT DE-ICE placard put in capt window even if no de-icing expected

60kts and above (including gusts)

all ops suspended until wind below 60kts for more than 30 mins
e.g. 240/30g60 - all ops suspended

45
Q

OMA

Max taxi speeds

A 
Runway when backtracking to vacate or take-off: 50kts
Taxiway: 30kts
Apron: 15kts
turn of 45deg or greater: 10kts
Contaminated runways or taxiways: 5kts
46
Q

OMA

When should “minimum fuel” be declared?

A

When all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change in clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel.

47
Q

OMA

When is an RTO classed as high speed?

A

Above 80kts

48
Q

OMA

In what situations after an RTO must you return to stand?

A
  • High speed RTO (>80kts)

- Take-off config warning

49
Q

OMA

What is the minimum turn altitude on departure?

A

400ft unless specified in SID.
Up to 15deg offset departures not considered a turn and can be followed below 400ft by selection of HDG SEL or LNAV as appropriate

50
Q

OMA

What ‘stuck mike’ protection do Ryanair aircraft have?

A

After 35s of transmission the VHF comm transceiver will revert to receive mode.

51
Q

OMA

Max speed in climb and descent below FL100

A

Climb:

  • A, B, C: 250kts or faster if released by ATC
  • D, E, F, G: 250kts max

Descent:

  • A, B, C: 250kts max, unless otherwise instructed. decline discretionary offers of faster
  • D, E, F, G: 250kts max, no ATC discretion for faster
52
Q

OMA

What is the Ryanair preferred flight level policy?

A
  • If filed lower than FMC OPT FL, fly FP level
  • If filed higher than FMC OPT FL, fly FMC OPT FL

Note: some flights may be filed with a lower FL due to route restrictions. A climb can be considered if deemed appropriate by the commander

53
Q

OMA

Under what conditions can an ‘orbit’ be performed to correct profile?

A
  • Not less than 10nm to touchdown
  • Descent to not below MSA or 3000ft, whichever is higher
  • Max F10, with speedbrake
  • Gear UP
  • VMC
54
Q

OMA

Can you join a visual circuit from an incomplete go-around?

A

No

55
Q

OMA

Define an approach ban

A

A commander may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR or vis but the approach shall not be continued beyond the OM or equivalent position if the RVR or vis is less than published minima.

EUROPE:
If there is no OM, then PIC shall make go/no go decision before descending below 1,000ft on final approach segment

UK
Regardless of OM position, shall not descend below 1000ft if RVR or vis is less than required.

EUR+UK
If after passing OM or equivalent position and the RVR/vis falls below minima, PIC may elect to continue approach to DA or MDA and landing may be completed if required visual reference is established.

56
Q

OMA

What is the minimum RVR required for the midpoint and stop-end during landing?

A

125m, 75m

57
Q

OMA

What are the restrictions for commencing an approach with active thunderstorms in the vicinity of the aerodrome?

A

Avoid making approach if thunderstorm active over the airfield, or cells on final approach center line within 3 nautical miles of the field.

58
Q

OMA

Below what minima should a monitored approach be performed for an ILS?

A

=1000m, 300ft AAL

59
Q

OMA

Below what minima should a monitored approach be performed for a NPA?

A

=3000m, 1000ft AAL

60
Q

OMA

Stabilized approach criteria

A 
Target speed VREF to VREF+15
Max speed VREF+20
Glidepath +/- 1 dot
Localiser +/- 1 dot
Appropriate thrust
Landing checks complete (excluding landing lights)
61
Q

OMA

What are the minimums for all visual approaches?

A

500ft AAL

62
Q

OMA

What is the minimum RVR to conduct a visual approach?

A

800m

63
Q

OMA

Who can conduct a visual approach?

A

Captains and experienced FOs (>500hrs FR)

If the captain has less than 100 hrs since first line check then visual approach only permitted if no other approach available.

64
Q

OMA

What V/S is allowable to achieve a CDA?

A

Any V/S, including <500fpm

65
Q

OMA

If no downwind direction is specified for a circling approach, which direction must you go?

A

Left downwind

66
Q

OMA

For a NPA, if no FAF is published, what point shall be nominated as FAF?

A

5/4nm from the runway threshold when conducting the approach in VNAV. If not practicable to identify a 5/4nm point, the FAF in VNAV shall be 2,000ft AAL

67
Q

OMA

When must a SAIR be filed regarding a GO-AROUND?

A

All go-arounds <1,000ft AAL
Or
if there are additional reportable circumstances

68
Q

OMA

Minimum visual reference for CAT II approach

A

Segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being either or a combination of:

  • centerline approach lights,
  • touchdown zone lights
  • runway centerline lights
  • runway edge lights

This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern e.g. an approach light crossbar

69
Q

OMA

Minimum visual reference for CAT III approach

A

Segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being either or a combination of:

  • centerline approach lights,
  • touchdown zone lights
  • runway centerline lights
  • runway edge lights
70
Q

OMA

If electronic stand parking guidance is required, can you start to turn towards the stand?

A

No. It is forbidden to turn without. Contact ATC

71
Q

OMA

What should you do if you receive a ‘cut-throat’ signal from the ground staff?

A

Shutdown engines immediately, even if you lose AC power.

72
Q

OMA

Maximum altimeter difference at or before the FAF to conduct a baro VNAV approach?

A

100ft at or before FAF

73
Q

OMA

Can ‘direct to’ clearences be accepted to the IF during RNP APCH operations?

A

Yes, as long as the track change does not exceed 45 deg

74
Q

OMA

Can ‘direct to’ clearances be accepted to the FAF/FAP during RNP APCH operations?

A

No, but extending the centerline from the FAF/FAP or a waypoint further out is acceptable for radar vectored arrials.

75
Q

OMA

If the temperature falls below the chart minimum for an RNP APCH in LNAV/VNAV, what is the procedure?

A

Only LNAV minima to be used with appropriate temperature corrections applied to fly the procedure.

76
Q

OMA

To which altitudes must you apply the cold temperature corrections

A

All published minimum departure, en route and approach altitudes including missed approach below the corrected MSA.

Do not correct altitudes while under ATC radar vectors, ATC assigned FLs or the temperature is above the chart minimum for the approach being flown.

77
Q

OMA

Max vertical deviation on final approach for RNAV approach

A

Vertical deviation +/-75ft

78
Q

OMA

When must you add 40ft to the published minimums?

A

NPAs.

Do not add for APV BARO LNAV/VNAV approaches.

79
Q

OMA

Even at max altitude can you follow a TCAS RA CLIMB command?

A

Yes, as the aircraft still has a residual climb capacity. If unable to climb the system will generate another resolution in response.

80
Q

OMA

What is the procedure if TCAS fails in flight?

A
  • Continue to destination as normal
  • No requirement to inform ATC
  • Subsequent flights dispatched IAW MEL
81
Q

OMA

What is the procedure if during an in flight fuel check indications show the aircraft will land with less than the required alternate fuel (but still with final reserve available)

A

Commander can opt to continue (‘divert to’) destination after taking into account:

  • traffic, EAT, expected delays
  • weather
  • effects of single failures
82
Q

OMA

When is no alternate aerodrome required?

A
  • Two separate runways available at ETA. These may cross only if this will not prevent the planned type of ops on the other runway, when one of the runways is blocked.
  • Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate nav aid
  • Ceiling >/= 2000ft or circling height +500ft whichever is greater
  • Vis >/= 5km
83
Q

OMA

At what distance minimum should you make a decision regarding thunderstorm avoidance?

A

40nm

84
Q

OMA

In flight, approaching a thunderstorm what returns should you avoid and by how far?

A

Avoid all yellow, red, or magenta weather radar returns by at least 20nm

Avoid all green, yellow, red and magenta returns of cells taller than 28,000ft by at least 20nm

Cells exceeding 35,000ft - consider further separation

Do not overfly cells over 25,000ft

85
Q

OMA

What is the definition of windshear?

A

15kts indicated airspeed
500fpm vertical speed
5deg pitch altitude
1 dot displacement from glidepath

86
Q

OMA

Can you depart with severe windshear reported or forecast?

A

Nope

87
Q

OMA

What is the volcanic ash maneuver?

A
  • 180deg turn - idle descent with current speed
  • Disconnect auto-throttle
  • Packs to HIGH
  • Oxygen 100%
  • turn on APU
  • Use engine and wing anti ice
  • 7700 and mayday
88
Q

OMA

Limitations for operating in a sandy or dusty environment

A

No planned operations in Sand Storm (SS) or Dust Storm (DS) with vis below 500m and/or wind above 20kts reported in TAF/METAR

89
Q

OMA

Wake turbulence departure and arrival restrictions

A

Arrivals behind:
747/A380 - 5nm (3min non radar)
757 - 4nm

Departures behind from same position:
A380 - 3 mins
747/787 - 2min

Departures behind from intermediate holding point:
A380 - 4 mins (also if on parallelrunway closer than 760m)
747 - 3 mins

90
Q

OMA

Maximum time for controlled rest?

A

45mins plus 20mins recovery time where rested pilot may not be in SOLE control of the aircraft

91
Q

OMA

At what RVR is a takeoff considered low visibility?

A

<400m LVTO

92
Q

OMA

What facilities are required for takeoff RVR not less than 200m?

A

Runway edge and runway centre line lights

93
Q

OMA

What facilities are required for takeoff RVR not less than 300m?

A

Day: runway edge lights and runway centre line markings

Night: runway edge lights or runway centre line lights and runway end lights

94
Q

OMA

What facilities are required for takeoff RVR not less than 150m?

A

Requires RVR value to be achieved for all relevant RVRs (TDZ, MID, rollout)

runway edge lights and runway centre line lights

95
Q

OMA

What facilities are required for takeoff RVR below 150m and not less than 125m?

A

Requires RVR value to be achieved for all relevant RVRs (TDZ, MID, rollout)

  • High intensity centre line lights spaced 15m or less
  • High intensity edge lights spaced 60m or less
  • 90m visual segment available from flight deck (6 ctl lights)
96
Q

OMA

What is the lowest RVR allowable for takeoff under any circumstances?

A

125m achieved for all relevent RVRs.

Lower down to 75m requires lateral guidance or HUD which Ryanair does not have

97
Q

OMA

What are the required met conditions to carry out a practice CAT II/III approach?

A

Vis >/= 1,500m
Cloudbase >/= 500ft

Day or night

98
Q

OMA

Below what RVR must low visibility procedures be in force?

A

<800m

99
Q

OMA

Above what altitude must the glide-slope be captured to conduct an autoland?

A

1,500ft

100
Q

OMA

Until when is the MEL valid?

A

Before the aircraft first moves under its own power.

The MEL should still be referenced if a failure occurs during taxi before takeoff to aid decision making.

101
Q

OMA

What is the CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List.

Contains items of secondary structure or engine parts which may be missing or U/S but for which the aircraft may be dispatched.

102
Q

OMA

In which situation can third party cargo be carried?

A

The only exception is human organs for transplant reasons.

103
Q

OMA

What should be referenced in the case of an in flight bomb warning?

A

QRH Ops Info

104
Q

OMA

What are the current KORAs?

A
  • Aircraft fire
  • Bird strikes
  • CFIT
  • GCOL
  • HEA
  • Loss of control in flight
  • Mid air collision
  • Runway excursion
  • Runway incursion
  • Safety of ground ops

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