Sofia - Psych

Question 1

glial cells

Answer 1

manage microenvironments around neurons and perform support functions

Question 2

oligodendrocytes

Answer 2

produce myelin in CNS

Question 3

Schwann cells

Answer 3

produce myelin in PNS

Question 4

Astrocytes

Answer 4

Provide structural and metabolic support for neurons.

Question 5

ependymal cells

Answer 5

produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid

Question 6

satellite cells

Answer 6

control the microenvironment around cell bodies in the ganglia in the PNS

Question 7

Microglia

Answer 7

microphages that clean out microbes and debris in the CNS

Question 8

unipolar

Answer 8

a single dendrite that splits into dendrioles but no axon, found in cerebellum and associated with balance, more commonly found in insects and invertibrates than in humans

Question 9

bipolar

Answer 9

sensory neuron for smell, sight, taste, hearing, and balance

Question 10

pseudounipolar

Answer 10

Sensory neuron in PNS. One axon splits with one part running to the spinal cord and one running to the periphery. Found in the dorsal root ganglia.

Question 11

multipolar

Answer 11

has a single axon and multiple dendrites, the classic image of a neuron, includes motor neurons and interneurons (in the CNS)

Question 12

interneurons

Answer 12

neurons within the brain and spinal cord that communicate internally and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs

Question 13

nerve cells maintains a resting potential of

Answer 13

-70 mV, when the cell loses this negative potential, the cell is said to be depolarized (peaks at +40mV which is called hyperpolarization)

Question 14

sodium potassium pump uses

Answer 14

sodium-potassium ATPase which pushes 3 sodium ions out of the cell for every 2 potassium ions it brings in

Question 15

sympathetic nervous system

Answer 15

stimulates the body in the classic fight or flight response

Question 16

parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 16

rest and digest system that increases blood flow to the digestive system, slows the heart rate, etc

Question 17

autonomic nervous system

Answer 17

The part of the PNS that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs.

Question 18

somatic nervous system

Answer 18

Division of the PNS that controls the body’s skeletal muscles.

Question 19

visceral nervous system

Answer 19

the portion of the peripheral nervous system composed of a motor division (autonomic nervous system) and sensory division. also controls glands

Question 20

basal ganglia

Answer 20

voluntary movement, learning, and emotion

Question 21

cerebellum

Answer 21

coordinated movement

Question 22

medulla oblongata

Answer 22

autonomic functions such as breathing, heart rate, blood pressure

Question 23

pons

Answer 23

relays signals between the cerebellum, medulla, and the rest of the brain, involved in sleep, respiration, swallowing, taste, bladder control, and balance

Question 24

Inferior colliculus

Answer 24

processes auditory signals and sends them to the medial geniculate nucleus in the thalamus

Question 25

superior colliculus

Answer 25

processes visual signals and participate in control of eye movements

Question 26

amygdala

Answer 26

process memory, emotions,and decision-making

Question 27

basal ganglia

Answer 27

participate in motivation, in controlling eye movements, and modulate decision-making

Question 28

frontal lobe

Answer 28

involved in voluntary movement, memory processing, planning, motivation, and attention

Question 29

hippocampus

Answer 29

consolidation of short-term memory into long-term memory

Question 30

hypothalamus

Answer 30

links the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland

Question 31

occipital lobe

Answer 31

visual processing

Question 32

parietal lobe

Answer 32

sensory processing

Question 33

pineal gland

Answer 33

modulates sleep through melationin production

Question 34

posterior pituitary

Answer 34

projection through which the hypothalamus secretes oxytocin and vasopresin

Question 35

septal nuclei

Answer 35

part of the reward pathway

Question 36

temporal lobe

Answer 36

involved in processing sense information to help form memory and attach meaning to information, includes wernicke’s area

Question 37

thalamus

Answer 37

relays sense and motor signals to the cerebral cortex and regulates sleep and alertness

Question 38

Acetylcholine

Answer 38

enables muscle action, learning, and memory

Question 39

Dopamine

Answer 39

used in reward pathways and motor pathways, particularly associated with Parkinson’s disease and the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substania nigra

Question 40

endorphin

Answer 40

pain suppression and can produce euphoria

Question 41

epinephrine

Answer 41

stimulates fight or flight reponse

Question 42

GABA

Answer 42

main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS, associated with hyperpolarizing cells which reduces action potential firing, associated with alcohol intoxication

Question 43

Glutamate

Answer 43

The most common neurotransmitter in the brain. Excitatory.

Question 44

glycine

Answer 44

inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord and nrainstem, can work in conjunction with GABA

Question 45

norepinephrine

Answer 45

used in post-ganglionic connections in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, increases arousal, alertness, and focuses attention

Question 46

serotonin

Answer 46

regulates intestinal movement in the GI tract and regulates mood appetite, and sleep in the brain, low levels particularly associated with depressive mood disorders

Question 47

MRI

Answer 47

use magnetic fields and radio waves to image parts of the brain while avoiding the dangers of bombarding the body with ionizing radiation such as x rays

Question 48

PET scans

Answer 48

inject radioactive glucose to visualize activity

Question 49

CT scans

Answer 49

Multiple X-Rays of successive slices of the brain. Looks at brain structure.

Question 50

oxytocin

Answer 50

secreted by:posterior pituitary in response to: childbirth effect: uterine contraction, emotional bonding type: peptide

Question 51

vasopressin (ADH)

Answer 51

secreted by: posterior pituitary in response to: high plasma osmolarity effect: retain water, increase aquaporin channels in collecting duct type: peptide

Question 52

FSH

Answer 52

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: GnRH effect: female- initiate follicle growth male- increase spermatocyte development both-helps with maturation of germ cells type: glycoprotein

Question 53

LH

Answer 53

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: GnRH, estrogen spike from follicle just before ovulation effect:female-ovulation, follicle becomes corpus luteum male-stimulates leydig cells which increase testosterone production type: glycoprotein

Question 54

ACTH

Answer 54

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: CRH, stress effect: increase adrenal release of coriticosteroids type: npeptide

Question 55

TSH

Answer 55

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: TRH, low plasma levels of T4 and T3 effect: increases release of T3 and T4 type:glycoprotein

Question 56

Prolactin

Answer 56

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: falling progesterone at the end of preganancy effect: mammary gland enlargement, milk production type: peptide

Question 57

endorphin

Answer 57

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: pain effect: pain relief type: peptide

Question 58

growth hormone

Answer 58

secreted by: anterior pituitary in response to: GHRH effect: growth of long bones, general anabolism type: peptide

Question 59

Calcitonin

Answer 59

secreted by: thyroid in response to: high plasma [Ca2+] effect: reduce plasma [Ca2+] type: peptide

Question 60

Glucagon

Answer 60

secreted by: Pancreas alpha cells in response to: low blood glucose effect: increases blood glucose type: peptide

Question 61

insulin

Answer 61

secreted by: pancreas beta cells in response to: high blood glucose effect: decreases blood glucose type: peptide

Question 62

Somatostatin

Answer 62

secreted by: pancreas gamma cells in response to: various, usually high hormone levels effect: supress: GH, TSH, CCK, insulin, glucagon type: peptide

Question 63

cortisol

Answer 63

secreted by: adrenal cortex in response to: stress effect: increase blood glucose concentration, immune suppression` type: steroid

Question 64

aldosterone

Answer 64

secreted by: adrenal cortex in response to: ACTH, ATII, low bp effect: collecting duct, DCT: reabsorb Na+, secrete K+, water retention, increase bp type: steroid

Question 65

epinephrine

Answer 65

secreted by: adrenal medulla in response to: sudden stress effect: sympathetic response: increase heart rate, breathing, etc. type: peptide

Question 66

estrogen

Answer 66

secreted by: female-ovaries, male-adrenal in response to: FSH effect: female-secondary sex characteristics, endometrial development during the menstrual cycle, surge leads to LH surge type: steroid

Question 67

progesterone

Answer 67

secreted by: female-ovary, corpus luteum in response to: ovulation effect: thicken, maintain endometrium in preparation for implantation type: steroid

Question 68

testosterone

Answer 68

secreted by:male-leydig cells of testes, female-ovaries in response to: GnRH->LH->testosterone effect:development, maintenance of secondary sex characteristics type: steroid

Question 69

norepinephrine

Answer 69

secreted by: adrenal medulla in response to: sudden stress effect: sympathetic responses of fight or flight type: peptide

Question 70

hCG

Answer 70

secreted by: placenta in response to: implantation effect: maintains the corpus leuteum at the start of pregnancy type: glycoprotein

Question 71

GnRH

Answer 71

secreted by: hypothalamus in response to: puberty, menses effect: increase in LH, FSH release type: peptide

Question 72

negative and positive punishment and reinforcement

Answer 72

negative= take something away, positive=give something ex. negative punishment, when a desired thing is taken away after an undesired behavior is exhibited

Question 73

sensation is an effect of…

Answer 73

transduction, the process by which auditory, electromagnetic, physical, and other kinds of information from the environment are converted into electrical signals within the human nervous system

Question 74

perception

Answer 74

the processing of the raw information from induction sensation gives us info from the world around us and perception allows us to make sense of it

Question 75

sensory receptors

Answer 75

the neurons that trigger electrical signals in response to stimuli from the environment

Question 76

modality

Answer 76

the type of stimulus

Question 77

location

Answer 77

where the stimulus is coming from

Question 78

intensity

Answer 78

frequency of the action potentials produced by the stimulus

Question 79

duration

Answer 79

how long the stimulus lasts

Question 80

Exteroceptors

Answer 80

detect external stimuli

Question 81

Interoceptors

Answer 81

react to internal stimuli

Question 82

absolute threshold

Answer 82

minimum amount of stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system

Question 83

threshold of conscious perception

Answer 83

minimum amount of stimulus energy that is needed for a signal to be sent to the central nervous system and to be perceived

Question 84

difference threshold

Answer 84

also referred to as the “just noticeable difference”- the minimum difference in magnitude of the two stimuli, relies on Weber’s law

Question 85

Weber’s Law

Answer 85

the just noticeable difference of a stimulus is a constant proportion despite variations in intensity so for a greater stimulus you need a proportionally bigger change in stimulus for it to be detected

Question 86

signal detection theory

Answer 86

perception of a stimuli can be affected not only by the stimuli themselves, but by expectations, experiences, and motives

Question 87

path of light through the eye

Answer 87

cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor, retina, optic nerve

Question 88

sclera

Answer 88

white of the eye

Question 89

choroid

Answer 89

part under the white sclera which absorbs excess light

Question 90

anterior chamber of eye

Answer 90

between cornea and iris

Question 91

posterior chamber of eye

Answer 91

between iris and lens

Question 92

dilator pupillae

Answer 92

opens the pupil under sympathetic stimulation

Question 93

constrictor pupillae

Answer 93

constricts the pupil under parasympathetic stimulation

Question 94

ciliary body

Answer 94

produces aqueous humor

Question 95

ciliary muscle

Answer 95

responsible for changing the shape of the lens via parasympathetic movements of the suspensory ligaments, changing of the shape of the lens is called accomodation

Question 96

rods

Answer 96

using pigment rhodospin, allow for the perception of light and dark, not sensitive to details and have no involvement with color vision, but allows humans to see in reduced ilumination

Question 97

macula

Answer 97

central section of the retina contains a high concentration of cones, and at its central point, the fovea, no rods are present, vision is most clear and acute in the fovea

Question 98

there are no cones or rods in the optic disc there the optic nerve leaves the eye, causing a

Answer 98

blind spot

Question 99

cones

Answer 99

absorb color and fine detail -short cones- absorb blue -medium cones-absorb green -long cones-absorb red

Question 100

rods and cones synapse with

Answer 100

bipolar cells

Question 101

the bipolar cells synapse with the

Answer 101

ganglion cells, the axons of which form together to make up the optic nerve which takes the signals to the occipital lobe to be processed

Question 102

Amacrine and horizontal cells

Answer 102

receive input from multiple retinal cells in the same area before the information is passed on to ganglion cells Accentuate slight differences between the visual information in each bipolar cell and important for edge detection

Question 103

optic chasm

Answer 103

the point at which the optic nerves from the inside half of each eye cross over and then project to the opposite half of the brain

Question 104

optic tract

Answer 104

optic pathways once they have passed the optic chasm

Question 105

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

Answer 105

the part of the thalamus that receives information from the optic tract and sends it to visual areas in the occipital cortex

Question 106

Vision (occipital lobe)

Answer 106

visual cortex is in the occipital lobe and processes vision data

Question 107

sensory neurons are

Answer 107

pseudounipolar, meaning they have an axon that splits both into the periphery and the spinal cord

Question 108

preventing acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction would result in:

Answer 108

inability to control the muscle and a reduction of muscle tone

Question 109

midbrain is in charge of

Answer 109

visual and auditory processing it contains: the superior colliculus-involved in visual processing the inferior colliculi-involved with auditory relay

Question 110

hypothalamus in the forebrain controls

Answer 110

body temperature and reproductive function

Question 111

reuptake in the neuron occurs in the

Answer 111

presynaptic cell, so SSRI’s are used to treat depression

Question 112

Dopamine is produced in:

Answer 112

substantia nigra (within the basal ganglia)

Question 113

best choice to visualize blood vessels and hemorrhage

Answer 113

CT scan

Question 114

best to use different amounts of blood flow to different regions of the brain

Answer 114

functional MRI

Question 115

best to measure brain waves

Answer 115

EEG

Question 116

best to measure eye movements

Answer 116

EOG

Question 117

magnocellular cells

Answer 117

low spatial resolution but high temporal resolution, can detect objects in motion

Question 118

parvocellular cells

Answer 118

detect shape - have high spatial resolution and low temporal resolution

Question 119

Proprioception

Answer 119

our sense of where our own body parts are in space

Question 120

top-down processing

Answer 120

the use of preexisting knowledge to organize individual features into a unified whole -example: recognizing something familiar without all its individual parts, recognizing a sign in your hometown when you just see the letters “ton” when it says “dayton”

Question 121

parallel processing

Answer 121

The processing of several aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain’s natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision. Contrasts with the step-by-step (serial) processing of most computers and of conscious problem solving.

Question 122

feature detection theory

Answer 122

We activate different areas of the brain when looking at different features of an image. Allows for parallel processing of a visual stimulus.

Question 123

parvocellular cells

Answer 123

detect shape - have very high spatial resolution

Question 124

magnocellular cells

Answer 124

detect motion have high temporal resolution

Question 125

outer ear begins with the pinna (or auricle)

Answer 125

which is the visible part of the ear

Question 126

Sound in the ear

Answer 126

pinna/auricle->external auditory canal->tympanic membrane(eardrum) ->ossicles (three small bones 1. malleus/hammer 2.incus/anvil 3. stapes/stirrup)->choclea (within it has the basilar membrane which contains the organ of corti which is actually used to hear)

Question 127

eustachian tube

Answer 127

A narrow tube between the middle ear and the throat that serves to equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum

Question 128

bony labyrinth

Answer 128

thick layer of bone protecting the inner ear

Question 129

membrous labyrinth

Answer 129

structures of inner ear filled with endolymph aka potassium-rich fluid, outside of this is the perilymph which transmits vibrations to the stapes, but also protects the membranous labrynth

Question 130

the spiral-shaped cochlea is divided into three sections called

Answer 130

scalae

Question 131

auditory nerve

Answer 131

also called the vestibulochoclear nerve, convert the electrical signals generated by the hair cells on the organ of corti

Question 132

long stereocilia

Answer 132

hair cells-vibrations in the endylymph cause the stereo cilia of the hair cells to sway from side to side, causing ion channels to open, which in turn creates a receptor potential -the cochlea is arranged tonotopically = different hair cells in different parts of the cochlea pick up different kinds of sounds

Question 133

the vestibule contains the ____ and ____ which are responsible for sensing linear acceleration, which helps us balance and determine our orientation in space

Answer 133

utricle and saccule

Question 134

the semicircular canals sense rotational acceleration , and each canal ends in an________which houses hair cells

Answer 134

ampulla

Question 135

electrical signals from the movement of the hair cells is sent to the _____ to be processed then to the

Answer 135

medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of the thalamus auditory cortex (some also sent to the superior olive and inferior colliculus)

Question 136

vistubulo-ocular reflex

Answer 136

-helps keep the eyes fixed on one point in space while the head rotates

Question 137

smell is due to

Answer 137

compounds binding to the olfactory receptors

Question 138

olfactory pathway

Answer 138

chemoreceptors convert physical stimuli into electrical information, then it is sent to the olfactory bulb, located on the front of the brain, then it is passed to the olfactory tract to be processed by higher parts of the brain including the limbic system (located on both sides of the thalamus)

Question 139

taste

Answer 139

once chemoreceptors have transduced stimuli into electrical information, it is sent to the taste center in the thalamus, then it is passed onto high-order brain regions

Question 140

Somatosensation (touch) contains 4 aspects:

Answer 140

pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature

Question 141

types of receptors for somatosensation:

Answer 141

free nerve endings- pain and temperature Miessner’s corpuscles-light touch Merkle discs-deep pressure and texture Pacinian corpuscles- deep pressure and vibration Ruffini endings-stretch

Question 142

two-point threshold

Answer 142

the minimum distance between two points being stimulated concurrently on the skin where those two points will be felt distinctly from one another

Question 143

physiological zero

Answer 143

the normal temp of the skin, 86-97 degrees F

Question 144

the gate theory of pain

Answer 144

holds that our bodies can “gate” pain signals by turning off or on which signals are sent to the brain

Question 145

once somatosensation signals are transduced to electrical signals, the electrical information is sent to _____

Answer 145

the somatosensory coretx in the parietal lobe of the brain

Question 146

humanistic psychology

Answer 146

an approach to understanding human nature that emphasizes the positive potential of human beings

Question 147

Psychodynamic

Answer 147

how behavior springs from unconscious drives and conflicts

Question 148

cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer 148

a popular integrative therapy that combines cognitive therapy (changing self-defeating thinking) with behavior therapy (changing behavior)

Question 149

Neurobiological Approach

Answer 149

viewing behavior as the result of nervous system functions and biology

Question 150

psychogenic

Answer 150

originating in the mind

Question 151

top-down processing

Answer 151

information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations

Question 152

bottom-up processing

Answer 152

analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain’s integration of sensory information

Question 153

perceptual organization (Gestalt)

Answer 153

an organized whole; tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes

Question 154

when a person is fully awake, an EEg will pick up

Answer 154

beta waves

Question 155

when a person is awake but tired and less alert and EEG will pick up

Answer 155

alpha waves

Question 156

stage 1 sleep

Answer 156

theta waves

Question 157

stage 2 sleep

Answer 157

theta waves along with interspersed K-complexes (single high amplitude, low frequency waves), and sleep spindles (bursts of multiple, high frequency, moderate amplitude waves

Question 158

stage 3 sleep

Answer 158

delta waves

Question 159

stage 4 sleep

Answer 159

no eye movement, moderate muscular and skeletal activity, digestion and heart slow while growth hormone is released

Question 160

REM sleep

Answer 160

EEG show waves show beta-like waves that have more variable frequency, lots of rapid eye movements, and low skeletal movement

Question 161

missing REM causes

Answer 161

REM rebound

Question 162

sleep cycle

Answer 162

one of these consists of the progression through sleep stages 1-4 in sequence followed by an ascension from 4 back to 1 and then a transition into REM sleep; typically takes about 90 min (50 mins for kids)

Question 163

Melatonin

Answer 163

a hormone derived from serotinin and produced in the pineal gland

Question 164

when the retina of the eye takes in more light the hypothalamus is triggered to release _____

Answer 164

corticotropin releasing factor (CRF), which causes the anterior pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex

Question 165

activation-synthesis theory

Answer 165

a theory of dreaming; this theory proposes that the brain tries to make sense of random brain activity that occurs during sleep by synthesizing the activity with stored memories

Question 166

problem-solving dream theory

Answer 166

dreams are a way to solve problems while you are sleeping

Question 167

cognitive dream theory

Answer 167

Dreams are simply stream-of-consciousness events that happen while we sleep

Question 168

freud believes dreams are….

Answer 168

divided into: manifest content- the plot lines and details of dreams latent content- hidden drives and desires that informed the manifest content

Question 169

neurocognitive models of dreaming

Answer 169

seek to unify biological and psychological perspectives on dreaming by correlating the subjective, cognitive experience of dreaming with measurable physiological changes

Question 170

Dyssomnias

Answer 170

make it more difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep, in the case of narcolepsy

Question 171

Parasomnias

Answer 171

sleep walking and night terrors

Question 172

Cataplexy

Answer 172

part of narcolepsy, when the body reacts to an emotional trigger and goes suddenly from being awake into REM sleep

Question 173

hypnagogic hallucinations

Answer 173

vivid sensory phenomena that occur during the onset of sleep

Question 174

Hypnopompic hallucinations

Answer 174

hallucinations that occur when awakening from sleep; seen in narcolepsy

Question 175

sleep paralysis

Answer 175

state of being unable to move just after falling asleep or right before waking up

Question 176

pons

Answer 176

stops the body from acting out dreams, does not work during night terrors

Question 177

Broadbent Model of Selective Attention

Answer 177

filter blocks unattended message from entering working memory (it was an older all-or-nothing model, while modern psychologists have found that selective attention allows us to focus on a single thing while physical stimuli are processed to a lesser degree in the background, this is proven by the cocktail party phenomena)

Question 178

Anne Treisman’s Attenuation Model

Answer 178

model that states that the mind has an attenuator that “turns down” unattended sensory input rather than eliminating it, basically an updated version of Broadbent’s model

Question 179

resource model of attention

Answer 179

we have a limited pool of resources on which to draw when performing tasks, so if two tasks at once are greater than the limited pool, we cannot do them simultaneously

Question 180

divided attention

Answer 180

ability to perform multiple tasks at the same time, follows resource model of attention

Question 181

controlled processing

Answer 181

used for new tasks that take a lot of effort and focus to get right

Question 182

automatic processing

Answer 182

usually used for familiar tasks, allow us to divide our attention and focus on other tasks

Question 183

Alcohol

Answer 183

stimulates production of GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter associated with reduced anxiety and dopamine

Question 184

alcohol myopia

Answer 184

the inability to think about consequences and possible outcomes of one’s actions due to alcohol intoxication

Question 185

barbituates and benzodiazepines

Answer 185

these drugs increase GABA activity, causing a sense of relaxation. can be highly addictive

Question 186

Opiates

Answer 186

opium and its derivatives, such as morphine and codeine they depress neural activity, temporarily lessening pain and anxiety

Question 187

opioids

Answer 187

synthetic opiates, ex. oxycodone, hydrocodone, and heroine, cause a sense of euphoria and a decreased reaction to pain by binding to opiod receptors in the nervous system

Question 188

stimulants

Answer 188

increase the activity of the nervous system by either increasing the release of a particular neurotransmitter or reducing the release of a particular neurotransmitter

Question 189

Amphetamines

Answer 189

release domapnie, setatonin, and norepinephrine, while inhibiting their reabsorption, effectively increasing arousal, increasing heart rate and blood pressure, and creating effects of anxiety, delusions of grandeur, euphoria, hypervigilance, and paranoia

Question 190

cocaine

Answer 190

like amphetamines, releases large quantities of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin, creating intense pleasure for a short duration which is then followed by a depressive crash, also is vasoconstrictive which can lead to heart attack and stroke

Question 191

MDMA (ecstasy)

Answer 191

both an amphetamine and a mild hallucinogenic, stimulating the release of dopamine and serotonin while blocking the reabsorption of serotonin

Question 192

Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD)

Answer 192

hallucinogenic or “psychedelic” drug that produces hallucinations and delusions similar to those occurring in a psychotic state

Question 193

Marijuana

Answer 193

has qualities of a stimulant, depressant, and hallucinogenic

Question 194

mesolimbic pathway

Answer 194

made up of the nucleus accumbens, the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and the area that connects them (the medial forebrain bundle) it is one of the four dopaminergic pathways that is involved in motivation and emotional response, related to all activities that produce psychological independence, including drug use, gambling, and falling in love

Question 195

what is the drug addiction reinforcement pathway

Answer 195

dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens circuit, also known as the pleasure center of the brain

Question 196

depressants are a class of drugs that result in

Answer 196

short-term memory loss

Question 197

Parasomnias

Answer 197

Abnormal behaviors such as nightmares or sleepwalking that occur during sleep.

Question 198

cognition

Answer 198

the mental action or process of acquiring knowledge and understanding through thought, experience, and the senses.

Question 199

cognitive development

Answer 199

the emergence of the ability to think and understand

Question 200

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

Answer 200

1. sensorimotor 2. preoperational 3. concrete operational 4. formal operational

Question 201

Piaget: Schemas

Answer 201

maturing brain builds schemas, *a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information

Question 202

Piaget: Assimilation and Accommodation

Answer 202

1. ASSIMILATION: assimilate those experiences into our existing schemas 2. ACCOMMODATION: accomodate them by adjusting our existing schemas

Question 203

Piaget: Sensorimotor Stage

Answer 203

Ages: birth to age 2 The stage during which children learn through senses and motor activities. Coordination of sensory input and motor responses Development of object permanence-the understanding that objects continue to exist even though we are not looking at or touching them

Question 204

Piaget Preoperational Stage

Answer 204

During this stage, young children are able to think about things symbolically. Their language use becomes more mature. develop symbolic thinking- we learn that things and ideas can be represented through symbols such as words, gestures, or pictures a phenomena called centration occurs- children tend to focus on a single aspect of a thing or experience at this stage children cannot comprehend conservation- the idea that a quantity remains the same despite a change in shape (aka a pot of water is poured into a thin graduated cylinder, but still maintains the same volume) children at this stage are egocentric- they cannot comprehend that other people have thoughts or perspectives different from their own

Question 205

Piaget Concrete Operational Stage

Answer 205

7-11 years-Children are able to see things from different points of view and to imagine events that occur outside their own lives. Some organized, logical thought processes are now evident and are able to order object by size, color gradient, etc. can understand that if 3+4=7 then 7-4=3. Understand that red square can belong to both red and square categories. Understand short wide cup holds same amount as tall and skinny cup. Thinking still tends to be tied to concrete reality, still do not have full capacity for abstract thought, but are less egocentric

Question 206

Piaget: Formal Operational

Answer 206

12-adulthood-Abstract thinking; challenging authority; moral and logical reasoning skills are fully developed

Question 207

limbic system

Answer 207

neural system (including the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus) located below the cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions and drives.

Question 208

mental set

Answer 208

a similar framework for thinking about problems and solutions that can be used again and again

Question 209

deductive reasoning

Answer 209

the process of applying a general statement to specific facts or situations, using a set of rules to draw conclusions (top-down reasoning)

Question 210

inductive reasoning

Answer 210

reasoning starting from specific facts or observations and coming up with general principles based on those observations (bottom-up reasoning)

Question 211

heuristics

Answer 211

mental shortcuts that can help us make decisions, but may lead to poor judgement

Question 212

representativeness heuristic

Answer 212

the tendency to make decisions about actions or events based on our standard representations of those events

Question 213

availability heuristic

Answer 213

estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common

Question 214

belief bias

Answer 214

the tendency for one’s preexisting beliefs to distort logical reasoning, sometimes by making invalid conclusions seem valid, or valid conclusions seem invalid

Question 215

confirmation bias

Answer 215

a tendency to search for information that confirms one’s preconceptions

Question 216

Overconfidence

Answer 216

when a person overestimates the accuracy and validity of their judgments and knowledge can contribute to belief perseverance- the tendency to stick with one’s initial beliefs about something even after receiving new information that disproves the initial belief

Question 217

recognition-primed decision model

Answer 217

holds that the brain, in the face of a problem, can sort through a vast amount of information in order to find a proper solution, this can happen with or without a person being aware of it

Question 218

Learning Theory (or behaviorist theory)

Answer 218

-developed by Skinner -says that because language use is a form of behavior, language acquisition is a direct result of operant conditioning -for example when a child says “mama” for the first time, it is positively reinforced, and when the child says a real word they are rewarded and when they something nonsensical they are not

Question 219

nativist theory (or biological theory)

Answer 219

-developed by Chomsky -centered around the “language acquisition device,” an innate element of the human brain that allows people to gain a mastery of language simply through limited exposure during sensitive developmental years (from 2 to puberty) -used the fact that children naturally developed a capacity for transformational grammar (whanges in word order that do not change the meaning of a senetence, “I ate the apple” vs “the apple was eaten by me”) to support that language acquisition was innate and is an effect of the language acquisition device -he did not provide anatomical evidence -girl who was abused and not exposed to any langauge stimulus then could not develop it after age 13 helped support his idea of critical periods

Question 220

social interactionist theory

Answer 220

-explains language acquisition as being caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others -combo of biology and a social phenomena -brain development is central to this theory and holds that the biological capacity for language develops hand in hand with the child’s first exposure to language

Question 221

linguistic relativity hypothesis

Answer 221

-Developed by Whorf -holds that perception of reality is dependent upon the content of the language that we speak, Whorf believed language affects cognition more than cognition affects language

Question 222

Broca’s area

Answer 222

controls physical ability to speak

Question 223

Wernicke’s area

Answer 223

a brain area involved in language (written and spoken) comprehension

Question 224

Broca’s aphasia

Answer 224

inability to produce speech

Question 225

Wernicke’s aphasia

Answer 225

inability to comprehend speech, patients are still able to speak but are nonsensical when they do

Question 226

sociocultural theory

Answer 226

Vygotsky believed that social learning comes before cognitive development, and that children construct knowledge actively

Question 227

3 components of emotion

Answer 227

-cognitive(mind)-brain’s subjective interpretation of feeling -physiological(body)-arousal of the sympathetic nervous system, causing changes to blood pressure, heart rate, respiration, skin temperature, and more -behavioral(action)-body language and facial expression

Question 228

Darwin (a naturalist) believed emotions are

Answer 228

evolutionary adaptations that increased our sexual fitness, and that regardless of their culture, all people have the same baseline set of emotions

Question 229

Paul Elkman ran with Darwin’s theory and believed

Answer 229

six basic emotions are biologically programmed into all humans, but culture guides what triggers emotions -anger -contempt -disgust -fear -happiness -sadness -surprise

Question 230

James-Lange Theory

Answer 230

our emotions are a result of a cognitive response to behavioral and physiological actions ex. we are sad because we cry happy because we laugh the theory is partially true, but every emotion is not triggered by one action

Question 231

Cannon-Bard Theory

Answer 231

holds that cognitive and physiological responses to a stimulus occur concurrently and independently of one another, with a behavioral response following them explains why there is so much overlap between certain emotions, like fear and sexual arousal, because the cognitive element is separate from the physiological but phenomena like smiling then feeling happiness are not explained

Question 232

Schachter-Singer Theory

Answer 232

once we experience physiological arousal, we make a conscious cognitive interpretation based on our circumstances, which allows us to identify the emotion that we are experiencing similar to the James-Lange Theory, but says we interpret the physiological stimulus, rather than there being a direct correlation between physiological stimulus and emotion like the cannon bard theory, this theory also does not explain why you feel happy after smiling

Question 233

distress

Answer 233

negative stress

Question 234

Eustress

Answer 234

positive stress, which results from motivating strivings and challenges

Question 235

learned helplessness

Answer 235

the hopelessness and passive resignation when a goal seems unreachable

Question 236

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Answer 236

adrenaline and noradrenaline

Question 237

During the stress response, ACTH stimulates release of

Answer 237

cortisol from the adrenal glands, which is used to maintain a continuous supply of blood sugar to maintain the stress response by burning fat (if cortisol release occurs for too long a period of time, then white blood cell functioning may be reduced leading to reduced immune function)

Question 238

3 components of emotion

Answer 238

cognitive, physiological, behavioral

Question 239

the ___ theory of emotion does not view emotion as a downstream consequence of physiological response to a stimulus

Answer 239

Cannon-Bard both James-Lange and Schachter-Singer view emotion as a downstream response to a physiological stimulus

Question 240

the ______ plays a central role in activation of the fear response including physiological manifestations, PTSD has been linked to permanat changes to the _______

Answer 240

amygdala hippocampus and amygdala

Question 241

horizontal cells

Answer 241

assist the bipolar cells by processing and organizing visual information. Doing so allows us to discern the edges of objects and detect visual contrasts.

Question 242

________plays an essential role in maintaining balance and sensing linear acceleration

Answer 242

vestibule

Question 243

The _______, a region in the brain stem, is responsible for localizing sound.

Answer 243

superior olive

Question 244

semicircular canals

Answer 244

perceive rotation of the body or head

Question 245

superior colliculus

Answer 245

helps us coordinate head rotation with visual focus on a specific point

Question 246

The thalamus plays a key role in the processing of all sensation except for ____

Answer 246

smell

Question 247

vestibular system

Answer 247

balance

Question 248

Gestalt

Answer 248

an organized whole. Gestalt psychologists emphasized our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes. -principle of proximity: objects close to eachother will be grouped together -principle of similarity: people tend to group objects that look similar into a pattern

Question 249

principle of good continuation

Answer 249

A Gestalt principle of perceptual organization that states that points that, when connected, result in straight or smoothly curving lines are seen as belonging together, and that lines tend to be seen in such a way as to follow the smoothest path.

Question 250

Principle of closure

Answer 250

We perceive whole shapes even when they are not actually present in the stimulus

Question 251

Retinal disparity

Answer 251

the concept that, since humans have two eyes, we perceive images from two slightly different angles; this helps us determine depth.

Question 252

Crystallized intelligence

Answer 252

involves the use of previously-learned knowledge, skills, and experience ex. An experienced accountant fills out several financial statements over the course of an hour.

Question 253

theory of multiple intelligences

Answer 253

Gardner’s intelligence theory that proposes that there are eight distinct spheres of intelligence

Question 254

cerebellum

Answer 254

encodes procedural memory

Question 255

implicit/declarative memory

Answer 255

implicit memory uses past experiences to remember things without thinking about them. It differs from declarative memory, or explicit memory, which consists of facts and events that can be explicitly stored and consciously recalled or “declared.”

Question 256

false alarm (signal detection theory)

Answer 256

signal absent but subject response is yes (ex. remembering a word that was not present in the list of words he was asked to memorize)

Question 257

Korsakoff’s syndrome

Answer 257

a memory impairment that results from a thiamine deficiency

Question 258

What is the main functional difference between the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex?

Answer 258

The adrenal medulla releases compounds that also act as neurotransmitters, while the adrenal cortex releases hormones alone.

Question 259

Superego (Freud)

Answer 259

moral

Question 260

ego

Answer 260

the largely conscious, “executive” part of personality that, according to Freud, mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality. The ego operates on the reality principle, satisfying the id’s desires in ways that will realistically bring pleasure rather than pain.

Question 261

Id

Answer 261

pleasure-driven, simplistic

Question 262

Intrinsic and Extrinsic Motivation

Answer 262

int-a desire to perform a behavior effectively for its own sake, the love of it ext-a desire to perform a behavior to receive promised rewards or avoid threatened punishment

Question 263

Sensitization

Answer 263

an increase in the magnitude of a response after repeated exposures to the same stimulus. It is one of the two major types of non-associative learning. opposite of habituation, where you get used to a stimulus

Question 264

nonassociative learning

Answer 264

learning that involves changes in the magnitude of responses to a stimulus

Question 265

fixed ratio v fixed interval

Answer 265

every 5 turns v every 5 mins

Question 266

classical v operant conditioning

Answer 266

Classical conditioning involves involuntary actions, while operant conditioning involves conscious, voluntary ones.

Question 267

encoding

Answer 267

the transfer of new sensory info into memory

Question 268

visual encoding

Answer 268

visualize new info to be stored in memory-weakest

Question 269

acoustic encoding

Answer 269

we concentrate and memorize the way something sounds

Question 270

semantic encoding

Answer 270

put new information into the context of info we already have committed to memory

Question 271

self-reference effect

Answer 271

tendency to better remember information relevant to ourselves

Question 272

maintenance rehearsal

Answer 272

practice of saying some information to be remembered over and over in one’s head in order to maintain it in short-term memory, like saying the pledge of allegiance over and over

Question 273

dual coding hypothesis

Answer 273

is is easier to memorize words that are paired with a specific image than to memorize either an individual word or image

Question 274

method of loci

Answer 274

A mnemonic technique that involves associating items on a list with a sequence of familiar physical locations

Question 275

sensory memory

Answer 275

the immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system, is lost quickly

Question 276

iconic memory

Answer 276

a momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli; a photographic or picture-image memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second

Question 277

echoic memory

Answer 277

a momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli, lasts 3-4 sec

Question 278

short term memory can usually handle about ____ bits of info

Answer 278

7

Question 279

working memory

Answer 279

active maintenance of information in short-term storage, like for doing mental math

Question 280

elaborative rehearsal

Answer 280

the linking of new information to material that is already in long term memory

Question 281

implicit (nondeclarative) memory

Answer 281

retention independent of conscious recollection. (Also called procedural memory.)

Question 282

explicit (declarative) memory

Answer 282

memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and “declare” includes: -episodic memory: our experiences -semantic memory: facts and concepts we know

Question 283

moderating v mediating variables

Answer 283

moderating=one that influences the relationship between the independent and dependent variables mediating= one that can be used to explain the relationship between variables

Question 284

George Herbert Mead “I” and “me”

Answer 284

Mead proposed the concepts of the “I” and the “me,” which make up two parts of his “theory of the social self.” The “I” is a person’s creative, independent response to social situations. the “me,” which represents our internalized set of societal values and attitudes. In other words, it includes the attitudes and behaviors that we have learned are socially acceptable, and that result in the “socialized self.”

Question 285

George Herbert Mead’s stages of the development if the “self”

Answer 285

imitation, play, game, and the generalized other According to Mead, the earliest developmental phase is the “imitation” stage, in which an infant can only copy the behavior of those around him. This is immediately followed by the “play” stage, which is marked by the ability to take on one alternate perspective at a time, often through carefree activities like “playing house.” Older children then enter the “game” stage, where one may consider the viewpoints of many distinct individuals at once. Finally, Mead identified the “generalized other” as a hallmark of late-stage development of the self. When a person assumes the perspective of this “other,” he is able to imagine the expectations of others and of society as a whole, and can plan his behavior accordingly.

Question 286

Kelley’s covariation model

Answer 286

three factors that we use to make attributions: distinctiveness cues, consensus cues, and consistency cues. Consensus cues focuses on the closeness of the behavior to that which is typically expected by society. Consistency cues relate the person’s current and past behavior, not her current behavior with that which is expected by society. Distinctiveness cues monitor a single individual’s actions across a variety of scenarios.

Question 287

representativeness heuristic

Answer 287

involves predicting the outcome of events based on similar events that have occurred in the past. While this can involve assumptions of similarity (for example, assuming that two patients with similar symptoms suffer from the same disease), it also includes the gambler’s fallacy

Question 288

somatic symptom disorder

Answer 288

Individuals with somatic symptom disorder perceive pain or other symptoms that cannot be explained by known causes. Additionally, these people tend to be very preoccupied with their physical health to the point of obsession. Somatic symptom disorder is closely related to illness anxiety disorder, in which individuals are anxious about their health but lack clear symptoms.

Question 289

spacing effect

Answer 289

relearning with space in between is most likely to yield

Question 290

response threshold of semantic memory

Answer 290

the neural electrical signal needs to surpass the response threshold to activate a node

Question 291

spreading of activation semantic memory

Answer 291

when we retrieve info from long term memory activation of one node activates other nodes

Question 292

state-dependent memory

Answer 292

The theory that information learned in a particular state of mind (e.g., drunk) is more easily recalled when in that same state of mind.

Question 293

mood-dependent memory

Answer 293

when learning occurs during a particular emotional state, it is most easily recalled when one is again in that emotional state ex. depressed, happy

Question 294

serial position effect

Answer 294

our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list, called primacy and recency effect

Question 295

prospective memory

Answer 295

remembering to do things in the future

Question 296

anterograde amnesia

Answer 296

an inability to form new memories

Question 297

retrograde amnesia

Answer 297

loss of memories from our past

Question 298

Korsakoff’s syndrome

Answer 298

Nutritional deficiency of thiamine, which results in a deficit in the ability to recall recent events., symptoms include confabulation-creation of vivid memories that are entirely fabricated

Question 299

Alzheimer’s disease (AD)

Answer 299

decreased production of the neurotransmitter aetylcholine which is important for the function of the hippocampus

Question 300

Dementia

Answer 300

the loss of cognitive abilities

Question 301

Agnosia

Answer 301

inability to recognize objects, people, or sounds

Question 302

interference

Answer 302

an error in memory retrieval caused by new info interfering with old info

Question 303

retroactive interference

Answer 303

the disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information

Question 304

proactive interference

Answer 304

when older information interferes with new info you are trying to learn

Question 305

Habituation

Answer 305

an organism’s decreasing response to a stimulus with repeated exposure to it

Question 306

habituation is a form of_______________

Answer 306

nonassociative learning

Question 307

dishabituation

Answer 307

the recovery of a particular response to a stimulus after habituation has lessened the response (also nonassociative learning)

Question 308

classical conditioning

Answer 308

creation of an association between either a behavior and a response or between two stimuli an unconditioned stimulus and the subsequent unconditioned response are used to turn a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus which causes a conditioned response

Question 309

Extinction

Answer 309

the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (US) does not follow a conditioned stimulus (CS); occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced.

Question 310

spontaneous recovery

Answer 310

the reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response

Question 311

Generalization

Answer 311

the tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses

Question 312

Discrimination

Answer 312

opposite of generalization, making a conditioned response more specific when a subject learns to discriminate between two similar stimuli, pavlovs dogs only responded to a bell with a certain pitch

Question 313

negative reinforcement-two types

Answer 313

-subtracting a negative thing 1.escape learning: a behavior learned to avoid an unpleasant thing 2.avoidance learning-a behavior is used to avoid an unpleasant thing that has not happened yet

Question 314

operant conditioning

Answer 314

Learning based on the consequences of responding.-skinner

Question 315

primary reinforcers (also unconditional reinforcers)

Answer 315

-innately desirable (food, water) or innately undesirable (pain)

Question 316

secondary reinforcer (conditioned reinforcer)

Answer 316

not innately desirable, but paired with primary reinforcers are learned to be desirable, ex money

Question 317

positive/negative

Answer 317

if you add or take something away

Question 318

reinforcement/punishment

Answer 318

good/bad

Question 319

fixed ratio v fixed interval reinforcement schedules

Answer 319

ratio-reinforcement is given after a set amount of times that behavior is performed interval-stimulus after a set period of time

Question 320

what neurons play a role in observational learning?

Answer 320

mirror neurons in the frontal and parietal lobes

Question 321

adaptive attitude

Answer 321

the idea that one will be accepted if socially acceptable attitudes are expressed, usually widely held attitudes

Question 322

ego-defense attitude

Answer 322

used to justify actions that we know are wrong in order to protect our ego or self esteem

Question 323

ego-expressive attitude

Answer 323

Allows us to communicate and solidify our self-identity

Question 324

knowledge-based attitude

Answer 324

based on the knowledge of something and can be helpful in predicting the behavior of other people ex. think a rich white person will vote republican

Question 325

elaboration likelihood model

Answer 325

involves persuasion and how people process persuasive info differently, they either think deeply and critically (elaborate more) or focus on less substantial, superficial info so use of central route processing v peripheral processing

Question 326

social cognitive theory

Answer 326

our attitudes and behaviors are the result of observation of the attitudes and behaviors of others (so not trial-and-error or conditioning)

Question 327

Reciprocal Determinism (Bandura)

Answer 327

establishes triadic reciprocal causation where behavior, personal factors, and environment all influence our attitudes

Question 328

Neuroplasticity

Answer 328

the brain’s ability to form multiple synaptic connections in regards to information, so like if process through multiple senses, there are multiple connections made for same info

Question 329

stereotype content model

Answer 329

a model proposing that the relative status and competition between groups influence group stereotypes along the dimensions of competence and warmth When two individuals are part of different in-groups, they tend to perceive each other with either low or high competence, meaning that they either consider them incapable and worthy of pity or capable and competitive. and warmth is either high or low and thats whether you like them or not

Question 330

An individual’s in-group consists of those who share one or more of her

Answer 330

identities, and around whom she feels like she belongs and can relate

Question 331

The altercasting technique involves

Answer 331

projecting an identity on another individual in a way that is congruent with one’s own goals. This is a manipulative method that increases the likelihood that the listener will act to match the projected identity

Question 332

dramaturgical approach

Answer 332

The dramaturgical approach uses the metaphor of a theatrical performance to describe impression management tendencies. When an individual is being observed and is trying to present a certain image, he is acting according to his front-stage self. In contrast, back stage references the person’s actions when he is “off stage,” not attempting to conform to an audience, and free to act without the restraint of his front-stage persona.

Question 333

Fisherian selection suggests that

Answer 333

if a strong enough mating preference for elaborate ornamentation exists, this preference could undermine natural selection even if the feature is otherwise non-adaptive. Peacocks are a classic example of this phenomenon.

Question 334

biological game theory: avoider v fighter

Answer 334

The hawk-and-dove game, outlined by Maynard Smith, describes a situation in which fighters and avoiders compete for a desirable resource. As both strategies have their costs and benefits, an equilibrium will form between the two strategies over time.

Question 335

Indicator traits

Answer 335

phenotypic expressions that convey the health, well-being, and fitness of an organism to potential mates. As a shiny coat implies that an animal is free from obvious diseases, it represents such a trait.

Question 336

social constructionism

Answer 336

explores how individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality social construct, such as the gender role(s) that should be played by young boys, is learned by observation.

Question 337

Functionalism

Answer 337

a school of psychology that focused on how mental and behavioral processes function - how they enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish.

Question 338

Symbolic Interactionism

Answer 338

focuses on the micro scale. As such, it revolves around symbols, gestures, words, and other acts that can communicate meaning.

Question 339

Exchange-rational choice

Answer 339

An individual’s acts = balance of costs and benefits to maximize the individual’s advantage

Question 340

Hidden curriculum

Answer 340

implicit or unspoken values that are taught in school. Often, parts of the “hidden curriculum” are not even intentional, but are conveyed unconsciously by teachers or administrators. ex. teacher telling a girl she cannot use a blue pencil because it is too boyish

Question 341

religious sect

Answer 341

A sect is a collection of individuals with distinct, often extreme religious beliefs. Typically, sects arise by “splitting off” from a more mainstream, larger religion.

Question 342

Conflict theory

Answer 342

focuses on the resources that groups in society (like races or classes) have, as well as the material and social effects of these disparities on their lives.

Question 343

Cultural transmission

Answer 343

the continuation of a cultural tradition through successive generations. In other words, it involves the passing down of cultural behaviors and knowledge from adults, usually parents, to children

Question 344

master status v ascribed status

Answer 344

A master status is the most important status held by an individual. Generally, he will identify as that status above all, and other people will most commonly perceive him in that way. A master status can be either ascribed (male, tall, etc.) or achieved (professional athlete, car salesman, etc.). An ascribed status is one that we are born with or assigned, while an achieved status is one that we earn through work and accomplishment. A status can either be ascribed or achieved, not both.

Question 345

primary v secondary group

Answer 345

A secondary group is one that contains temporary and loose connections between members. Individuals choose to join a secondary group for a specific purpose, such as completing a project or studying for an exam. A primary group is includes members with close, long-lasting relationships.

Question 346

Role strain vs role conflict vs role exit

Answer 346

Role strain involves a single role with multiple aspects that are sometimes at odds. Do not confuse this with role conflict, which relates to more than one distinct, competing roles. the act of leaving a role due to major changes or conflict with other social responsibilities.

Question 347

Normative, coercive, and utilitarian organizations

Answer 347

A normative organization is voluntarily joined and exists to perform some moral activity. Volunteer groups are classic examples of such organizations. Organizations that are joined involuntarily are coercive. A utilitarian organization, also known as a remunerative organization, is a group of individuals join in order to receive the monetary reward or some other benefit that is offered to members of that organization.

Question 348

bystander effect is also known as

Answer 348

bystander apathy-the tendency of people to avoid helping those in distress when other individuals are present. This concept is thought to stem from the idea that “someone else will do it,” a viewpoint that (when held by everyone present) causes nobody to actually step in.

Question 349

self-reference effect

Answer 349

tendency to better remember information relevant to ourselves

Question 350

Priming

Answer 350

the activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one’s perception, memory, or response

Question 351

source monitoring

Answer 351

the process of making inferences about the origins of memories, accidentally remembering that your friend was wearing a purple sweatshirt when actually a man on a billboard was

Question 352

operant reinforcement

Answer 352

pairing of reinforcement with a learned behavior

Question 353

classical conditioning

Answer 353

associative learning where a stimulus is taught to be paired with a specific behavior (no reward)

Question 354

implicit memory

Answer 354

retention independent of conscious recollection. (Also called procedural memory.)

Question 355

explicit memory (declarative memory)

Answer 355

the act of consciously or intentionally retrieving past experiences (includes semantic and episodic memory)

Question 356

power (stats)

Answer 356

power refers to the probability that the null hypothesis can be rejected based on the data. In other words, it relates to the statistical significance of the data. One well-known way to increase the power of a study is to increase the sample size. Correlations seen in a large sample are more likely to be significant than those observed in a small one.

Question 357

thalamus

Answer 357

sensory processing

Question 358

formal norm v folkway

Answer 358

Formal norms, which include laws and codes, are instituted by a governing party. Folkways have minimal moral significance and carry no major legal or social sanctions if not followed. Generally, deviations from folkways are not stigmatized, but may result in the perception of the deviant individual as rude.

Question 359

Anomie

Answer 359

a social disorder in which individual morals and standards are disconnected from those of society. For example, consider a culture during the Industrial Revolution that is experiencing an increase in productivity, a change in overall morals, and a new standard of living. An individual worker may attempt to achieve these new standards, but cannot as a result of class limitations. This person would feel alienated due to a loss of moral guidance it may: -it is a condition in which society provides little moral guidance to individuals -it arises due to a mismatch in moral standards between an individual and society -it may result in higher levels of suicide. NOT the same as anarchy, a state where individuals disregard and violate the laws of society

Question 360

Primary socialization

Answer 360

occurs when a child initially learns the norms and expected behaviors of his or her culture

Question 361

Secondary socialization

Answer 361

the act of learning a subset of values and norms that apply to a specific group within society, like the military, a particular college, or prison

Question 362

Developmental socialization

Answer 362

happens when an individual focuses on developing specific social skills

Question 363

Anticipatory socialization

Answer 363

the process by which a person practices for future social relationships

Question 364

culture shock, also known as re-entry shock, occurs when

Answer 364

an individual returns home after becoming accustomed to a new culture. This shock can appear in two ways: via idealization or via expectations. First, an individual may idealize their home culture by only focusing on its good aspects. Second, the individual may expect that nothing at home will be different, meaning that any changes that do occur while the individual is abroad then require integration.

Question 365

Ethnocentrism vs Cultural relativism

Answer 365

ethnocentrism- judge by standards of own culture, belief in inherent superiority of one own culture or ethnic group culture relativism- judge by standards of other cultures, an individual beliefs should be understood in terms of that individual’s specific culture

Question 366

The development of self-concept, which occurs when children are very young, is divided into two steps:

Answer 366

categorical self-a child comes to understand that he or she is subject to the perceptions of other individuals. Here, the young girl is considering how she might be perceived by another entity, the young boy on whom she has a crush. This girl is demonstrating her ability to possess perspective, or to view the world through the eyes of another. existential self-a child realizes that she can interact with the world throughout time and space; in other words, she discovers that she is a distinct entity

Question 367

Conflict Theory

Answer 367

a theoretical framework in which society is viewed as composed of groups that are competing for scarce resources

Question 368

proactive social movement

Answer 368

is one that aims to enact change or “make progress.” In other words, its members organize, whether formally or informally, an effort to change their society. In contrast, a reactive social movement resists this change, and its members desire to return to or keep the status quo.

Question 369

An individual who is a member of a lower socioeconomic class is likely to

Answer 369

-have weak ties and a larger network of connections -have less social capital, since he or she exists in a larger network of people -Individuals in lower socioeconomic classes possess less social capital, or “networking power.” This is true because these people tend to exist within large, often family- or location-based personal networks

Question 370

Cultural capital includes personal qualities or assets that

Answer 370

enhance the social mobility of the individual in their possession. Education (whether in the form of a degree, certificate, or relevant experience) is a classic example of this form of capital. Public speaking ability is also a personal quality that can make a person more socially successful. Other examples of cultural capital include attractiveness, style of dress, and sense of humor.

Question 371

Spatial inequality

Answer 371

refers to the uneven distribution of resources between particular areas. High-income areas typically have easy access to grocery stores, educational facilities, hospitals, and businesses in general, while low-income neighborhoods lack many of these institutions. This cycle perpetuates itself, as wealthier individuals who move to the area naturally settle in the regions with more resources available.

Question 372

Massey and Denton’s concentration index denotes the proportion of

Answer 372

physical space that a minority group occupies in a city. The less area that is occupied, the more “concentrated” the minority is. Thus, we need some measure of land area in order to assess this index. The square mileage of each region is the most relevant piece of data

Question 373

A moderating variable is one that affects

Answer 373

the strength of a relationship between separate independent and dependent variables.

Question 374

self-discrepancy theory

Answer 374

holds that we have three selves: 1) actual self: way we see ourselves as we currently are 2) ideal self: person we would like to be 3) ought self: our representation of the way others think we should be - the closer these 3 are to one another, the higher our self-esteem or self-worth will be

Question 375

identity

Answer 375

the relationship of one’s self concept with the social groups that one belongs to (ex. gender, ethnic, class, and national identity)

Question 376

drives are regulated by

Answer 376

negative feedback ex. you are thirsty so you drink water and thus the drive is reduced

Question 377

primary v secondary drives

Answer 377

• Primary: motivate us to sustain homeostasis (food, water, warmth) - Secondary: motivate us to fulfill nonbiological needs/desires (usually emotional) - desire for love, aggression

Question 378

instinct theory

Answer 378

A view that explains human behavior as motivated by automatic, involuntary, and unlearned responses. inspired by Darwin’s theory pr evolution WIlliam James was one of the first ones who study this, but he did believe that learned behavior could override instincts

Question 379

drive-reduction theory

Answer 379

the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need

Question 380

arousal theory

Answer 380

people perform actions in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal (Yerkes-Dodson model of arousal fits into this theory)

Question 381

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

Answer 381

(level 1) Physiological Needs, (level 2) Safety and Security, (level 3) Relationships, Love and Affection, (level 4) Self Esteem, (level 5) Self Actualization

Question 382

self-determination theory

Answer 382

Deci and Ryan’s theory asserting that all humans have three basic, innate organismic needs: 1.competence-the need to be able to optimally complete tasks and actions 2.relatedness-the need to feel accepted by people and in society 3.autonomy-the need to be in control of one’s actions and destiny

Question 383

opponent-process theory

Answer 383

destructive cycles leading to addiction ex. when a person drinks too much their body counteracts the physiological effects by increasing arousal, so thus when they stop there is jitters and restlessness as a part of withdrawl which is due to the increased arousal ex. a person eats a whole pizza and feels guilty so they eat another pizza to feel better

Question 384

Expectancy-value theory

Answer 384

The amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectation of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which he or she values succeeding at the goal

Question 385

three primary components of an attitude

Answer 385

1. affective component: the emotion 2. behavioral component: the way the person acts 3. cognitive component: the way a person thinks about something

Question 386

principle of aggregation

Answer 386

the idea that an attitude affects a person’s aggregate or average behavior, but cannot necessarily predict each isolated act

Question 387

Role Playing Affects Attitudes

Answer 387

Zimbardo (1972) assigned the roles of guards and prisoners to random students and found that guards and prisoners developed role- appropriate attitudes.

Question 388

justification of effort

Answer 388

the tendency that people have to justify the amount of work and energy they have to put into reaching a goal by increasing their own estimation of the value of that goal

Question 389

cognitive dissonance

Answer 389

unpleasant mental experience of tension resulting from two conflicting thoughts or beliefs people tend to seek consistency between their opinions, attitudes, and beliefs

Question 390

identity formation is also known as

Answer 390

individuation

Question 391

Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory

Answer 391

based around 8 crises that people generally encounter during their lives, these crises are all the result of tension between personal needs and social demands

Question 392

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development birth to 1 yr

Answer 392

trust v mistrust Can the world be trusted?

Question 393

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 1 yr to 3 yrs

Answer 393

autonomy v shame/doubt Is it acceptable for me to be myself?

Question 394

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 3 yr to 6 yr

Answer 394

initiative v guilt Is it acceptable for me to take initiative?

Question 395

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 6 yr to 12 yr

Answer 395

Industry v inferiority Do I have a shot at making it in the world?

Question 396

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 12 yr to 20 yr

Answer 396

Identity v role confusion Who am I and what is my potential?

Question 397

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 20 yr to 40 yr

Answer 397

Intimacy v isolation Am I able to love another person and to commit myself to people and things?

Question 398

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 40 yr to 65 yr

Answer 398

Generativity v stagnation Am I able to live and work in a way such that my life matters?

Question 399

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development 65 yrs to death

Answer 399

integrity v despair Did I live a good life?

Question 400

the opposite of libido is

Answer 400

death instinct-instinct to hunt or kill others or ourselves libido-life instinct to survive, grow, procreate, and feel pleasure

Question 401

Freud’s Psychosexual Stages

Answer 401

0-1 1. Oral Stage 1-3 2. Anal Stage 3-5 3. Phallic Stage 5-puberty 4. Latency Stage puberty-adulthood 5. Genital Stage

Question 402

freud- phallic stage is also known as

Answer 402

the Oedipal stage this is the stage where boys develop the Oedipal Complex, an attraction to their mother and a hostile attitude towards their father and females develop the Electra Complex which is the exact opposite of the Oedipal complex, girls also develop penis envy during this stage during this stage libidinal tension is resolved through sublimation-the process by which socially unacceptable impulses are replaced by socially acceptable behaviors, such as the making of friendships, the creation of art, and the pursuit of a career

Question 403

people approach the Heinz Dilemma in different ways during different stages according to Kohlberg’s Three phases and Six stages of Moral Development

Answer 403

Man needs drug to save wife’s life. Drug is too expensive so man steals it. -Preadolescence-Preconventional morality 1.obedience-person makes decisions based upon avoiding punishment 2.self-interest-person makes decisions based upon receiving potential rewards -Adolescence to Adulthood-Conventional Morality 3.Conformity-decisions based upon the approval of others 4.law and order-decisions based upon maintaining law and order -Adulthood-Postconventional morality 5.Social contract-a person makes decisions based on the greater good of society and the rights of individuals 6.universal human ethics-a person makes decisions based upon abstract ideas such as justice, ethics, and morality

Question 404

Zone of Proximal Development (Vygotsky)

Answer 404

skills that have not yet been developed fully are in the zone of proximal development, and in order to become fully developed, the child needs help from a “more knowledgeable other”

Question 405

looking-glass self

Answer 405

a self-image based on how we think others see us

Question 406

social behaviorism

Answer 406

Mead; self of self emerges through the process of communicating with others Stages: 1. preparatory stage-children do not understand that different people see the world differently, and there fore merely imitate their parents and peers 2. play stage-children are now able to take on the roles of others when playing and therefore begin to develop theory of mind-the ability to perceive how another person thinks 3. game stage- children can learn and play multiple roles at once, their own and the roles of others included 4. generalized other-understanding of the behavioral expectations of society

Question 407

psychoanalytic theory of personality

Answer 407

Founded by Sigmund Freud. Personality is determined by a person’s unconscious- the flow of psychic energy between three systems in the stream of consciousness 1.id-primal instincts and urges, governed by the pleasure principle which guides all actions towards gratification, the id’s response to frustration is known as the primary process which seeks immediate gratification through immediate resolution of the frustration, this can be resolved through wish fulfillment where the primary process is fulfilled by daydreams or mental images 2.ego-allows logic to control aspects of both consciousness and the id, governed by the reality principle-where the ego takes reality into account and seeks to hold off the pleasure principle until realistic(known as the secondary process) 3.superego- morals, sense of “higher purpose,” can be divided into two distinct elements: the conscious-database of actions and behaviors that warrant punishment and the ego-ideal-which is the database for ideal or appropriate actions and behaviors that warrant rewards

Question 408

conscious

Answer 408

aware

Question 409

Preconscious

Answer 409

contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved

Question 410

subconscious

Answer 410

beneath the level of conscious mental awareness, have been repressed

Question 411

when the ego is tired of the constant push and pull of the super ego and the id, it used one of 8 ego defense mechanisms to unconsciously distort reality

Answer 411

1. repression-ego pushes undesired thoughts into subconscious 2. supression/denial-same as repression bu the conscious act of willfully forgetting 3.regression-reverting back to child-like behaviors 4.reaction formation-the proecess of repressing a feeling but outwardly expressing the exact opposite of it (ex pretending to like a person you actually hate) 5.projection-attributing one’s own undesired thoughts or feelings onto another person (inkblot test relies on these projections) 6.displacement-redirecting violent, sexual, or otherwise unseemly impulses from being directed at one person/thing to another 7.rationalization-justifying your behavior 8.sublimation-transferring unacceptable behaviors into acceptable behaviors ex. man has unrequited sexual desire for a women, but writes a poem about her instead

Question 412

Carl Jung believed in psychoanalytic theory like freud, but thought the conscious was called the ego, and that the unconscious was divided into two distinct parts:

Answer 412

-the personal unconscious-mostly in line with Freud’s concept -the collective unconscious-distinct from the personal unconscious, it is made up of a shared history and experience, common to all human beings, contains images or archetypes, of common experiences such as child-rearing, having family, and living in communities -for Jung the self is where the 3 elements of personality meet -he also thought there were 3 primary conflicts of personality that define a person: extroversion v introversion, sensing v intuiting, and thinking v feeling -these conflicts are used in the Myers Briggs Type Inventory (which also includes judging v perceiving)

Question 413

fictional finalism

Answer 413

Alder’s theory that an individual is motivated more by his expectations of the future than by past experiences

Question 414

Basic Anxiety (Karen Horney)

Answer 414

feelings of insecurity adults experience because they felt alone as children

Question 415

psychoanalytic therapy

Answer 415

Uses various methods to help a patient become aware of his/her unconscious motives, in order to help the patient be more able to choose behaviors consciously. Therapy sessions usually focus on patients talking about their lives and reducing anxiety through self insight through analysis and interpretation.

Question 416

Humanistic Theory

Answer 416

view personality with a focus on the potential for healthy personal growth, emphasizes free will rather than the affects of childhood liek Freud

Question 417

Actualization Theory

Answer 417

the basic human motivation to actualize and enhance the self

Question 418

self-actualization

Answer 418

the process by which people achieve their full potential

Question 419

client-centered or person-centered psychotherapy

Answer 419

-client is not called a patient which implies that the person is of sound mental health -uses unconditional positive regard where the therapist empathizes and accepts the patient no matter what

Question 420

Force field theory (Kurt Lewin)

Answer 420

focus on current state of mind and the current sum of influences acting on a person (force field), therapy does not delve into past

Question 421

personal construct psychology

Answer 421

• humanistic theory -people are scientists that devise & test predictions about behavior of significant people in their lives - people experience anxiety when they have difficulty constructing & understanding variables in environment

Question 422

peak experiences

Answer 422

times in a person’s life during which self-actualization is temporarily achieved

Question 423

Type theory

Answer 423

originally dominated personality theory; as far back as Hippocrates, people were placed into personality-type categories often based on physical appearance

Question 424

Trait theory of personality

Answer 424

That we are made up of a collection of traits, behavioral predispositions that can be identified and measured, traits that differ from person to person surface traits-outwardly apparent (lazy, down to earth) source traits-less apparent and more abstract (introversion/extroversion)

Question 425

Five Factor Model

Answer 425

Trait theory of personality that includes openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (OCEAN)

Question 426

global factors (source traits)

Answer 426

similar to five factor model-extroversion, anxiety, receptivity, accommodation, self-control

Question 427

Allport’s Trait Theory

Answer 427

also consisted of traits that defined a personality cardinal traits-one’s around which people organized their entire lives central traits-defining characteristics and easy to infer secondary traits-those that only occur sometimes or in certain situations

Question 428

person-situation debate

Answer 428

The person-situation debate is a historical debate about the relative power of personality traits as compared to situational influences on behavior. The situationist critique, which started the person-situation debate, suggested that people overestimate the extent to which personality traits are consistent across situations. -both sides seem true, sometimes personality more important sometimes situation more important

Question 429

Valence

Answer 429

the value that someone places on reinforcements or rewards

Question 430

Instrumentality (Expectancy Theory)

Answer 430

belief that a given level of performance will lead to specific outcomes

Question 431

biomedical v biopsychosocial approach to psychological disorders

Answer 431

biomedical-every psychological disorder has its basis in a biomedical phenomena (ex chemical imbalance) and that it has a biomedical solution (ex drug that restores imbalance) biopsychosocial-broader, takes into account sociocultural, biomedical and psychological influences (like a venn diagram that takes all three factors into account)

Question 432

mood disorders: mood vs affect

Answer 432

Both of these elements deal with the prevailing feelings; affect is a temporary expression of feelings or state of mind, and mood is more durable, a prolonged display of feelings that color the whole emotional life.

Question 433

Biopolar 1 disorder

Answer 433

marked by manic episodes with or without any depressive episodes

Question 434

bipolar 2 disorder

Answer 434

a type of bipolar disorder marked by mildly manic (hypomanic) episodes and major depressive episodes

Question 435

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

Answer 435

Psychological disorder involving a significant depressive episode and depressed characteristics, such as lethargy and hopelessness, for at least two weeks. -has a loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable (called anhedonia)

Question 436

dysthymic disorder

Answer 436

a mood disorder involving a pattern of comparatively mild depression that lasts for at least two years

Question 437

cyclothymic disorder

Answer 437

a less severe form of bipolar 2 disorder, characterized by hypomanic episodes and depressive episodes that are milder than major depressive episodes

Question 438

seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

Answer 438

a mood disorder caused by the body’s reaction to low levels of sunlight in the winter months treated with bright light therapy

Question 439

catecholamine theory of depression (also called the monoamine theory of depression)

Answer 439

too much norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse leads to mania, while too little leads to depression

Question 440

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

Answer 440

a disorder characterized by chronic excessive worry accompanied by three or more of the following symptoms: restlessness, fatigue, concentration problems, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance

Question 441

social anxiety disorder

Answer 441

persistent anxiety caused by social situations

Question 442

specific phobias

Answer 442

irrational fears and avoidance of specific objects or situations

Question 443

panic disorder

Answer 443

characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks

Question 444

agoraphobia

Answer 444

An abnormal fear of open or public places

Question 445

obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

Answer 445

a disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and ritualistic behaviors (compulsions) designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with an individual’s functioning

Question 446

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Answer 446

marked emotional disturbance after experiencing or witnessing a severely stressful event

Question 447

Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)

Answer 447

a less intense version of PTSD, duration is shorter (under a month)

Question 448

adjustment disorders

Answer 448

marked by emotional and behavioral symptoms that occur when person is unable to cope with identifiable specific stressor symptoms occur within 3 months of onset of stressor and cause distress that is excessive (from what would typically be expected from the stressor), and significant impairment to social, occupational, and personal functioning

Question 449

Reactive Attachment Disorder

Answer 449

Attachment disorder in which a child with disturbed behavior neither seeks out a caregiver nor responds to offers of help from one; fearfulness and sadness are often evident.

Question 450

Somatic Disorders

Answer 450

Marked by somatic (bodily) symptoms that cause significant stress or impairment. Somatic Symptom Disorder Illness Anxiety Disorder Conversion Disorder

Question 451

illness anxiety disorder

Answer 451

condition marked by intense preoccupation with the possibility of a serious undiagnosed illness (hypocondriasis)

Question 452

somatic symptom disorder

Answer 452

psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a somatic (bodily) form without apparent physical cause

Question 453

conversion disorder

Answer 453

A rare somatoform disorder in which a person experiences very specific neurological symptoms such as numbness, blindness, temors, and paralysis for which no physiological basis can be found.

Question 454

Schizophrenia

Answer 454

A psychotic disorder usually characterized by withdrawal from reality, illogical patterns of thinking, delusions and hallucinations, and accompanied in varying degrees by other emotional, behavioral, or intellectual disturbances.

Question 455

positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Answer 455

delusions and hallucinations

Question 456

negative symptoms of schizophrenia

Answer 456

the absence of appropriate behaviors (expressionless faces, rigid bodies)

Question 457

paranoid-type schizophrenia

Answer 457

a psychological disorder characterized by psychosis in the form of hallucinations and/or delusions usually relating to a certain theme

Question 458

hallucination v illusion v delusion

Answer 458

hallucination-experience of perceiving something in the absence of any sensory stimuli that might explain it illusion-a misperception of sensory stimuli that are actually present delusion-a belief or impression that is not based in reality and is adamantly mainatined despite evidence or rational arguement against it

Question 459

disorganized-type schizophrenia

Answer 459

Type of schizophrenia featuring diorganized speech and behavior, disjointed delusions and hallucinations, and silly or flat affect.

Question 460

catatonic-type schizophrenia

Answer 460

a psychological disorder characterized by psychosis in the form of catatonic behavior (including extremely retarded or excited motor activity) symptoms include: echolalia-repetition of words echopraxia-repetition of actions catatonia-can be expressed as hyperactive activity that has no purpose negativism- resistance to instruction for no reason posturing-assuming bizarre postures mannerisms-unecessary movements made during goal-oriented behaviors the diminished side to catatonia can cause: catalepsy-loss of sensation and consciousness, as well as rigidity of the body stupor-a complete stop in voluntary speech or motion due to catalepsy

Question 461

undifferentiated type-schizophrenia

Answer 461

a psychological disorder characterized by the basic criteria for schizophrenia, but symptoms that do not fit into one of the other subtypes

Question 462

residual-type schizophrenia

Answer 462

a psychological disorder where the acute phase of schizophrenia has resolved and the criteria for schizophrenia are no longer met, but some symptoms are still present in milder forms

Question 463

Prodromal phase of schizophrenia

Answer 463

before diagnosis, phase is exemplified by clear evidence of deterioration, social withdrawal, role functioning impairment, peculiar behaviour, inappropriate affect, and unusual experiences

Question 464

brief psychotic disorder

Answer 464

brief episodes (lasting a month or less) of otherwise uncomplicated delusional thinking (like schizophrenia for a month)

Question 465

schizophreniform disorder

Answer 465

Psychotic disorder involving the symptoms of schizophrenia but lasting less than 6 months. (about 1/2 of people diagnosed with this are eventually diagnosed with schizophrenia)

Question 466

schizoaffective disorder

Answer 466

Psychotic disorder featuring symptoms of both schizophrenia (psychotic symptoms-delusions) and major mood disorder (manic, depressive, or mixed episodes).

Question 467

Stress-diathesis theory

Answer 467

Genetics provides a biological predisposition for schizophrenia, but environmental stressors elicit the onset of the disease

Question 468

dopamine hypothesis

Answer 468

the idea that schizophrenia involves an excess of dopamine activity

Question 469

dissociative disorders

Answer 469

a class of disorders in which people lose contact with portions of their consciousness, perception, identity, or memory, resulting in disruptions in their sense of identity

Question 470

dissociative identity disorder

Answer 470

disorder occurring when a person seems to have two or more distinct personalities within one body

Question 471

dissociative amnesia

Answer 471

a sudden loss of memory for important personal information that is too extensive to be due to normal forgetting, usually ends suddenly with full restoration of memory

Question 472

dissociative fugue

Answer 472

The sudden loss of memory for one’s personal history, accompanied by an abrupt departure from home and the assumption of a new identity

Question 473

depersonalization/derealization disorder

Answer 473

individuals feel detached from their own mind and body (depersonalization) or from their surroundings (derealization) depersonalization can cause out of body experiences and derealization can make the world feel unreal or dreamlike *patients with this disorder do not experience psychotic symptoms

Question 474

personality disorders

Answer 474

psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning

Question 475

ego-dystonic

Answer 475

patient recognizes that the illness is troubling and intrusive

Question 476

ego-syntonic

Answer 476

the individual perceives her behavior, which is dictated by the disorder, as correct and normal

Question 477

Cluster A personality disorders

Answer 477

Cluster A: a behavior that is odd in comparison to common expectations paranoid:constant mistrust and suspicion of other people and their motives, causing a person to be guarded and self-sufficient schizotypal: unusual or eccentric patterns of thinking that can inhibit interpersonal functioning and communicating schizoid: pattern of detachment from people, including family members and loved ones, limited range of emotional expression

Question 478

Cluster B personality disorders

Answer 478

Cluster B: behavior that is overly dramatic, emotional, and unpredictable antisocial-lack of regard for the rights of others, and a pattern of violating those rights ex: fights, dishonesty, illegal activity, and lack of remorse from age 15 on, also aggression against people and animals borderline personality disorder-ongoing inability to control one’s mood, as well as fluctuating images of ones’s self and other people, can cause severe mood swings, reckless behavior, and anger, these people have a propensity for splitting aka viewing people as 100% good or 100% bad histrionic personality disorder: constant seeking of attention, may dress in flashy clothing or behave seductively to be the center of attention wherever he or she is, uses drama to express emotions, though the emotions are often shallow and transitory narcissistic personality disorder- feelings of self-importance, self-uniqueness, and entitlement, fantasies of power, beauty, and intelligence, and need for constant admiration and attention, base their self-worth on how other see and think of them, have a propensity for exploiting others

Question 479

Cluster C personality disorders

Answer 479

cluster c: behavior that is overly anxious or fearful avoidant-overwhelming shyness and fear of rejection dependent-need to be taken care of and reassured by others, often cling to one persona and submit themselves to that person’s will, even enduring abuse, in order to gain support from that person obsessive-compulsive-perfectionism and a need for control in all or most aspects of his or her life

Question 480

personality disorders can only be diagnosed in

Answer 480

adults

Question 481

dispositional theory (trait theory)

Answer 481

an approach to the study of human personality which is primarily interested in the measurement of traits, which are theorized to be stable over time

Question 482

Risk ratios compare

Answer 482

the risk of a disease among one group with the risk among another group.

Question 483

What is the strength of a correlation usually expressed as?

Answer 483

The strength of a correlation is usually expressed as r, which can range from −1 to 1. An r value of 0 expresses no correlation whatsoever, while r values of −1 and 1 correspond to perfect negative and positive correlations, respectively.

Question 484

What does r^2 represent?

Answer 484

R2 expresses how well the regression line (the line of best fit) captures the data point, with 1 indicating a perfect correspondence between the regression line and the data and 0 indicating no correspondence.

Question 485

rewards and punishments are assocaited with what type of conditioning?

Answer 485

operant

Question 486

What is primary socialization?

Answer 486

Primary socialization refers to the learning of acceptable actions and attitudes during childhood, mostly from observation of our parents, siblings, friends, teachers, and other authority figures. Secondary socialization refers to the process of learning what is acceptable and appropriate in a smaller, more focused section of society. Learning how to behave at school or in the workplace are examples of secondary socialization.

Question 487

What is anticipatory socialization?

Answer 487

Anticipatory socialization refers to the process by which we prepare for future changes that we anticipate. For example, a security officer who will be switching to the night shift in a few weeks may prepare by shifting his or her sleep cycle, so as to anticipate the demands of the shift change. Resocialization is the process through which we get rid of old behaviors in order to take on new ones. The training of soldiers to obey orders and behave within the rigorous confines of military life is an example of resocialization.

Question 488

What is social constructionism?

Answer 488

Social constructionism asserts that people develop understandings and knowledge of the world through interactions with other people, and that the mediating force in this interaction is primarily language. Thus, under social constructionism ideas about gender are not inherent in the nature of reality itself, but are socially constructed and transmitted every day through countless language-based interactions between members of society.

Question 489

What is symbolic interactionism v conflict theory v functionalism?

Answer 489

Symbolic interactionism focuses on the symbolic meaning that people develop and rely upon in the process of social interactions. Smoking is an excellent example, because the social symbolism of smoking is a point of contention across social groups. In previous years—and to some extent in certain social circles now—smoking was seen as trendy, whereas in others it may be seen negatively as a symbol of poor self-regard and ignorance. Conflict theory instead emphasizes the role of coercion and power in producing social order. It sees society as fragmented into groups that compete for social and economic resources. Social order is maintained by those with the most power, usually those with the greatest political, economic, and social capital. Finally, functionalism views society as a system of interconnected parts that carry out a specific role that enables them to cooperate to maintain social equilibrium for society as a whole. An important point is that these perspectives do not contradict each other; instead, the MCAT tends to ask which theoretical approach is exemplified by a given statement.

Question 490

What is sociobiology?

Answer 490

Sociobiology holds that some social differences are actually rooted in biology. This theory applies evolutionary biology to help explain social behaviors. An example of a linkage between biology and behavior is that FEV knockout mice show much more aggressive and violent behavior compared with wild-type mice, suggesting that the FEV transcription factor plays a role in regulating aggression and aggressive behavior.

Question 491

What is social strain theory?

Answer 491

structural strain theory traces the origins of deviance to the tensions that are caused by the gap between societal goals and the means people have available to achieve said goals. The related concept of anomie describes social instability caused by the breakdown of social bonds, such as social norms, between individuals and communities.

Question 492

What is rational choice theory?

Answer 492

rational choice theory posits that people make individualistic, rational, and calculated decisions about all things in their lives. Since money is of primary importance to most people, individuals are often motivated by money and will calculate the costs and benefits of any action before deciding what to do.

Question 493

What is game theory?

Answer 493

Game theory views social interaction as a game in which there will be winners, losers, and proper ways to “play” in order to achieve “victory.”

Question 494

What is social exchange theory?

Answer 494

social exchange theory views society as a series of interactions that are based on estimates of rewards and punishments. Similar to rational choice theory, social exchange posits that interactions are determined by the rewards or punishments that we receive from others. For example, if a relationship partner become “more trouble than he or she is worth,” the person may decide to end the relationship.

Question 495

What is the law of symmetry?

Answer 495

Tend to perceive stimuli as grouped symmetrically around a center point

Question 496

What is the law of similarity?

Answer 496

objects that are similar tend to be grouped together

Question 497

What is the law of proximity?

Answer 497

we tend to perceive objects close to each other in groups, rather than as a large collection of individual pieces

Question 498

How do gestalt principles help illustrate the differences between sensation and perception?

Answer 498

Sensation refers to the process by which auditory, electromagnetic, physical, and other kinds of information from the environment are converted into electrical signals within the human nervous system. Sensation provides the raw signal, communicating information, entering the nervous system through receptors in the peripheral nervous systems. Perception, as exemplified by the Gestalt laws, is the processing of this raw information. Therefore, it is sensation that gives us information from the world around us and perception that allows us to make sense of it.

Question 499

What is the difference between stereotype and prejudice?

Answer 499

-A stereotype is a prevalent but oversimplified idea or set of ideas about a certain group. This stereotyped group typically consists of people with similar characteristics (gender, race, sexual orientation, etc.). can be nagtive or positive -Unlike stereotypes, prejudices specifically target people, groups, or things that the holder of the prejudice encounters. For example, if I believe that all people who wear red are loud and annoying, this constitutes a stereotype. If I actually see or hear about a person who is wearing red and form a negative opinion about that person, that is a prejudice. -Importantly, prejudices are typically made with little to no experience with the prejudiced person or group, and they may be irrationally positive or negative.

Question 500

What is attrition bias?

Answer 500

Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of a long-term experiment or study.