2020-03-03 Update (All Subjects) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the relatrionship between amplitude and intensity of a wave

A

I~A^2

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2
Q

WHat is the density of water?

A

1000kg/m^3 or 1kg/L

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3
Q

What is the bouyant force?

A

Fb = ρVg V is simply

the object’s volume but remember ρ represents the density of the fluid

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4
Q

What is the difference between habituation and sensory sensitization?

A

Habituation involves a decrease in
the magnitude of the response after repeated
exposures to the same stimulus. A classic
example of habituation involves hearing loud or
initially bothersome noises. After being subject
to the noise for a period of time, a normal person
learns to ignore it and eventually does not
even notice the stimulus while sensory adaptation has to do with whether the sensory neurons are firing at all, rather than if the stimulus is registered by the brain, in sensory adaptation a neuron
responds less to a certain stimulus over time,
and in the future may not fire at all. Sensory
adaptation is distinct from habituation, a form of
nonassociative learning.

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5
Q

What is the gauge pressure (P) at a certain depth (y) below the top of a container filled with liquid?

A

P = ρgy remember when using SI units such as pascals, make the density of water 1000 kg/m^3

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6
Q

What is the kinetic energy of moving fluid?

A

½ ρv2, remember to use 1000kg/m^3 for the density of water

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7
Q

What is ataxia?

A

impairment in an individual’s ability to learn language

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8
Q

Does cholesterol help buffer membrane fluidity at high or low temperatures?

A

both, sterol molecules generally prevent high and low temperatures from adversely affecting the fluidity of cell membranes

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9
Q

In the sodium-potassium pump are both ions pumped against their concentration gradients?

A

yes

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10
Q

Is flagellin found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella?

A

No, flagellin is only found in prokaryotes while eukaryotes have microtubules in their flagella

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11
Q

What is the value of K in Coulomb’s law?

A

Coulomb’s law F=kQq/(r^2) and k=1/4πε

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12
Q

What is an electron-volt (eV)?

A

the energy required to move an electron through a 1.0V potential, It can also be found by using the formula V(electric potential)= U/q and solving for U in units of eV

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13
Q

What is the force generated by an electric field on a charge?

A

F=Eq

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14
Q

What is the magnetic force formula?

A

F=qvB

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15
Q

Do magnetic fields do work or particles moving perpendiclarly to them?

A

No, Magnetic fields act perpendicularly
to the velocity of a charged particle. Therefore,
according to W = Fdcosθ, they perform no work.

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16
Q

The amount of time that it takes a capacitor to reach 63% of its final charge is known as the

A

time constant, which is equal to

RC

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17
Q

WHat is the voltage at the negative terminal in a battery, aka the end of the circuit after any resistors before the wire reaches the battery?

A

zero

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18
Q

What is the formula relating wire length and area with resistance?

A

on R = ρL/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the metal, L is the length of the element, and A is the cross-sectional area, so basically as area increases resistivity decreases and as length increases resisitivity increases

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19
Q

_____ is constant through the series elements of a circuit?

A

current (I)-so basically you know that the resistors in a circuit can be made to be in series and you know that the current is uniform throughout (also know that current is NOT uniform along the branches in parallee)

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20
Q

How do you calculate the voltage drop across a segment of a circuit?

A

we must first find the equivalent
resistance of the circuit as a whole, then you calculate the resistance of the segment you are looking at, and then with these two pieces if info you know Voltage will drop across a circuit element in proportion to its fraction of total resistance.

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21
Q

What is AC current?

A

AC current reverses its polarity at a constant rate; in other words, it goes from 120 V to -120 V in a sine-wave pattern. Since it spends identical amounts of time with a negative and a positive voltage, the average EMF of an AC current is zero. For this reason, this type of current is generally measured as an RMS (root mean square) value instead.

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22
Q

What are the units for magnetic field?

A

Teslas

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23
Q

What are the units for capacitance?

A

Farad

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24
Q

The lowe the bulk modulus is, the slower/faster sounds moves through it?

A

slower, the higher the bulk modulus value is, the more incompressible it is

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25
Q

Each 10-dB increase reflects a _____ increase in intensity

A

tenfold, In other words, to
produce a sound of 13 dB, you would need 10
3-dB speakers. To make a sound measured at 23
dB, you would need 100, and to make a 33-dB
sound, you would need 1000.

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26
Q

How to calulate index of refraction if you know how much the velocity of light slows down when going through a substance?

A

v=c/n

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27
Q

A mirror or lens with a negative focal length must be ____

A

diverging, For a lens, that is

concave; for a mirror, it is convex.

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28
Q

Because the image produced is on

the same side as the object, it is termed ____

A

virtual (This is true for lenses only; if the image were on
the same side as the object in a mirror, it would
be real.)

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29
Q

We can assume the lines coming into a lens/mirror are parallel by making the assumption that?

A

the object is far away

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30
Q

How do you calculate stuff when there are two lenses?

A

apply the thin lens equation and calculate the image projected by the first lens, then use this image as the object for the second lens

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31
Q

In order to determine the total

magnification of a system of lenses, simply ____

A

multiply the individual magnifications

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32
Q

All nuclei weigh less than the sum
of their component protons and neutrons, a
phenomenon known as?

A

mass defect. When subatomic particles come together to form a
nucleus, some of their mass is converted into
energy. You can calculate this relationship using
the famous equation E = mc^2 to calculate how much energy is lost when the nucleus comes together

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33
Q

What is senescence?

A

the condition or process of deterioration with age, loss of a cell’s power of divisiona and growth

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34
Q

What does isomeric mean?

A

Having the same chemical composition and molecular weight; having the same number of atoms of each kind in the molecule

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35
Q

What is flashbulb memory?

A

A flashbulb memory is a highly detailed, exceptionally vivid ‘snapshot’ of the moment and circumstances in which a piece of surprising and consequential (or emotionally arousing) news was heard

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36
Q

What is eidetic memory?

A

(more commonly called photographic memory) is an ability to recall an image from memory after seeing it only once, with high precision for a brief time after exposure, without using a mnemonic device.

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37
Q

What is a lyase?

A

In biochemistry, a lyase is an enzyme that catalyzes the breaking (an “elimination” reaction) of various chemical bonds by means other than hydrolysis (a “substitution” reaction) and oxidation, often forming a new double bond or a new ring structure

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38
Q

What is an imprinted gene?

A

Imprinted genes are genes whose expression is determined by the parent that contributed them. Imprinted genes violate the usual rule of inheritance that both alleles in a heterozygote are equally expressed

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39
Q

What types of cells are specialized for secretion?

A

epithelial cells (specifically in the lungs)

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40
Q

What does the electrical force on a charged particle depend on?

A

only the particle’s charge and the the strength of the magnetic field, NOT the speed of the particle

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41
Q

What is the force on a charge in an electric field? And from that how do you determine the acceleration of the particle due to the electric field?

A

The force on the charge is qE and force is also ma. Setting qE = ma and solving for acceleration

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42
Q

What is the formula for the number of possible peptides that contain one each of n amino acids?

A

n! (n factorial). For n = 3 (a tripeptide), n! = 3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6

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43
Q

What is the main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

acetylcholine

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44
Q

Do schizophrenia, schizoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder all present with eccentric or disjointed patterns kof throughts or beliefs and abnormal perceptions of the significance of ordinary events?

A

No, schizophrenia and schizotypal personality disorder are similar, but schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a feeling of separation, coldness, and apathy towards others and is not associated with the listed symptoms

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45
Q

What does the congnitive component of an attitude contain?

A

The cognitive component of this

man’s attitude includes factors such as memories, impressions, beliefs, knowledge and thoughts

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46
Q

Social cognitive theory claims…

A

that individuals learn attitudes and behaviors by observing those of others

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47
Q

How do you calculate the formal charge of a molecule?

A

The formal charge is calculated by
adding the number of nonbonding electrons and
half of the number of bonding electrons, then
subtracting that value from the total number of valence electrons for each atom

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48
Q

What is taq polymerase?

A

Taq polymerase has a bacterial origin and is used in PCR, not natural human cells

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49
Q

What is the role of the sigma factor in RNA polymerase?

A

Sigma factors are initiation factors that enable RNA polymerase to bind to promoter sequences. This is necessary for the initiation of RNA synthesis. Sigma factors are highly specific, and any given RNA polymerase holoenzyme is associated with a single sigma factor.

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50
Q

Does RNA polymerase reauire a helicase?

A

no, it has an innate ability to unwind DNA

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51
Q

Which histone protein is associated with the sealing off of the DNA as it enters and exits the nucleosome?

A

H1- H1 is the component of the
nucleosome that is positioned outside of the main
histone “bead” structure. This protein holds DNA
in place as it enters and exits the wound region of
the nucleosome. H1 also provides stability to the
structure.

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52
Q

WHa is negative control of DNA expression?

A

Negative control involves the binding
of a repressor to block transcription, while positive
control includes an activator protein that binds and
stimulates transcription.

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53
Q

What is the difference between inducible v represible control of DNA expression?

A

if an operon is “switched on” then it is inducoble, if it is switched off then it is repressible

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54
Q

WHat is the Sine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is the ribosomal binding site found exclusively in prokaryotic mRNA. Blocking this sequence would inhibit essential mRNA modifications in prokaryotes without disturbing eukaryotic cells.

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55
Q

RNA polymerase II is the enzyme responsible for RNA synthesis in___

A

eukaryotes

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56
Q

WHat is the TATA box?

A

a short sequence (TATAAAA) that functions as a basal promoter in eukaryotes.

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57
Q

Which amino acid has an R configuration when normally all other common residues have S configurations?

A

cystein

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58
Q

All common amino acids exist in their ____ forms.

A

L

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59
Q

Chiral centers are often carbon atoms, but can also exist around?

A

phosphorous or nitrogen

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60
Q

What is the formula for specific rotation?

A

specific rotation = (observed optical rotation) / (path

length * concentration).

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61
Q

Geometric v conformational isomers

A

A geometric isomer is a type of conformational isomer, a geometric isomer usually requires a double bond (cis v trans)

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62
Q

Are the physical properties of diasteromers the same or different?

A

Diastereomers, unlike enantiomers, exhibit different physical properties. This quality allows them to be separated fairly easily. In other words, while their solubilities, boiling points, and melting points are likely similar, they are not identical.

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63
Q

What is the difference between epimer and anomers?

A

Anomers are a subtype of epimer that differ only at the anomeric carbon (the carbon attached to two O’s in a cyclic sugar molecule). This is
true of the two sugars shown, as their anomeric hydroxyl groups point upward and downward,
respectively

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64
Q

Does H2 with Pd catalyst fully reduce an alkyne?

A

Yes, it reduces it to an alkane?

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65
Q

WHat is the Markovnikov product?

A

When an alkene is reacted with hydrobromic acid, the Markovnikov product typically forms. Since this product includes the halogen bound to the more substituted end of the bond, it tends to be especially stable. Radical reactions, particularly those initiated

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66
Q

What is general adaptation syndrome?

A

is a model of the body’s stress response that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time.

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67
Q

when writing an element in notation where there are two numbers to the left of the element name, Whisch number is on top?

A

the mass number is on top of the atomic number

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68
Q

What trend is N an exception for?

A

Electron affinity relates to an element’s desire to gain an electron. For the majority of elements, this quality increases as you move upwards and to the right on the periodic table. However, the nitrogen-containing group is an exception to this rule. Carbon has an electron configuration of [He]2s2 2p2 , so the addition of another electron would give carbon a half-filled p orbital and is thus highly favorable. Nitrogen, on the other hand, has an electron configuration of [He]2s2 2p3 . Addition of another electron would alter nitrogen’s half-filled valence state and produce a partially-filled orbital.
Therefore, nitrogen will have a lower electron
affinity than expected, making this choice more
likely than the others.

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69
Q

What is the direction of the atomic radius trend?

A

Atomic radius increases as you
move down and to the left along the periodic
table.

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70
Q

What is the Bohr model?

A

The model where distinct electron orbits encircle a positive nucleus

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71
Q

What is Hund’s rule?

A

It is the rule saying orbitals have to be fuilled up with one electron before a second can come in (you think about it when drawing the arrows for electrons, you draw them all going in one direction first then go back and fill in the other ones going in the opposite direction)

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72
Q

How many orbitals are in the D block?

A

5 (into which 10 electrons can fit)

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73
Q

For photoelectrons, the intensity of the incident ray determines
the _____

A

number, not the individual energies of the ejected photoelectrons

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74
Q

How do we know the relationship between the orbital drop and the frequency of the photoelectron emitted?

A

The Lyman
series (ultraviolet rays) involves any emission
in which the ground state of the electron is n
= 1. The Balmer series (visible rays) includes
emissions in which the final state is n = 2.
Finally, the Paschen series (infrared) contains
any emission with a final state of n = 3. Here,
the initial principal quantum number, or excited
state, does not matter when answering this
question.

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75
Q

How do you calculate the energyof the light emitted when an electron drops orbitals?

A

hf = R(1/n2final – 1/n2initial)

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76
Q

WHat is Boyle’s law?

A

P1V1 = P2V2

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77
Q

When do gasses behave most ideally?

A

low pressure and high temperature

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78
Q

Kinetic energy of a gas is dependent on what?

A

only the temperature of the gas

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79
Q

Graham’s law: what formula can be used to calculate the rate of diffusion of a gas in comparison to the rate of diffusion of another gas?

A

rate 1/rate 2=sqrt(molar mass 2)/sqrt(molar mass 1)

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80
Q

Freezing point depression can be calculated using:

A

Freezing point depression can be calculated using ΔTf = Kf mi, where kf is a constant, m is molality, and i is the Van’t Hoff factor, or number of dissolved particles per molecule.

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81
Q

What is the boiling point elevation formula?

A

Tfinal – Tinitial = (Kb)(mi)

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82
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure?

A

π = iMRT (note it increases as temperature increases)

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83
Q

What is misinformation effect?

A

the tendency for post-event information to interfere with the memory of the original event, can lead to innacurate memories and even the formation of false memories

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84
Q

Classical condition is part of what psychological approach?

A

behaviorist

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85
Q

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way?

A

mechanically, because the ion channels are mechanically gated

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86
Q

The intensity/energy of electromagnetic radiation shot at an element is directly proportional to?

A

the NUMBER of photons emitted

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87
Q

What is a cholineesterase blocker?

A

chemicals that prevent the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

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88
Q

What is the Tm (melting point) of a dsDNA strand?

A

When 50% of the DNA is denatured

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89
Q

WHat are sigma factors?

A

Necessary for transcription initiation in bacteria

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90
Q

What are the steps of translation?

A

initiation, elongation, translocation, and termination (translocation is when the ribosome continues onto the next codon)

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91
Q

WHat is the order of the sites in the ribosome suring translation?

A

APE-The P-site (for peptidyl) is the second binding site for tRNA in the ribosome. The other two sites are the A-site (aminoacyl), which is the first binding site in the ribosome, and the E-site (exit), the third. During protein translation, the P-site holds the tRNA which is linked to the growing polypeptide chain

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92
Q

The lower the pKb the ____ the base is

A

stronger

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93
Q

How is a ketal converted to a ketone?

A

you add a strong acid and water

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94
Q

_______ is the enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis)

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

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95
Q

Are alpha or beta glycosidic bonds formed in humans?

A

alpha only

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96
Q

Can a teritiary alcohol be oxidized?

A

no, because it would have to break the C-C bond if it were to become a ketone

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97
Q

Are alcohols good leaving groups?

A

no, usually they need to be turned into water first

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98
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of an SN1 reaction?

A

formation of the carbocation, bc the positively charged molecule is inherently unstable

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99
Q

What are tosyl groups used for?

A

Tosyl groups are commonly added to protect particularly reactive substituents from side reactions during synthetic procedures.

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100
Q

dehydration reactions are facilitated by…

A

heat and acidic conditions

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101
Q

What is the ectoderm?

A

eyes, skin, ears, and gonads.

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102
Q

What is the endoderm?

A

GI tract and respiratory tract

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103
Q

What is the mesoderm?

A

musculoskeletal and circulatoru systems

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104
Q

What are examples of monoamines?

A

dopamine, serotonin,norepinephrine, and epinephrine

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105
Q

WHat are the characteristics of borderline personality disorder?

A

Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a condition characterized by difficulties regulating emotion. This means that people who experience BPD feel emotions intensely and for extended periods of time, and it is harder for them to return to a stable baseline after an emotionally triggering event.

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106
Q

Humanistic theories emphasize a man’s drive for ______

A

self-actualization

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107
Q

What theory is often used as a model to explain drug addiction?

A

opponent-process theory- states that many human behaviors
have two opposing components. This can be used
with regard to emotional responses. For example,
a drug addict feels pleasure (the euphoria
associated with certain neurotransmitter) when
he takes the drug, but withdrawal (the lack of
these neurotransmitters, causing unhappiness) when he stops. Even more interestingly, the
opponent-process theory also relates to physical
symptoms. Since heroin is a depressant, the drug
addict’s body compensated by “speeding itself
up” after many instances of taking the drug,
with an increased heart rate, shaky muscles, etc.
While the addict did not notice this while he
was still on the substance, once he stopped, this
“opponent process” became the only thing he
experienced and caused withdrawal symptoms.

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108
Q

Attitudes tend to have the most predictable affects on behavior when they are ____

A

highly specific

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109
Q

What is the difference between consensus and consistency cues?

A

A consensus cue (how many other individuals
typically exhibit the behavior, or how accepted it
is in society) focuses on the
closeness of the behavior to that which is
typically expected by society. In other words,
when people act just like everyone around them,
we tend to attribute their behavior to situational
factors. However, when individuals deviate from
common social behavior, we use that deviation to
assess their personality. A consistency cue is how similar the person’s behavior is over time.

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110
Q

WHat is correspondant inference theory?

A

The correspondent inference theory focuses on the perception of a person’s behavior as “corresponding” to his or her personality. In other words, it attempts to dictate when we will make dispositional attributions. According to this theory, we tend to make such attributions when the action is seen as intentional, when it directly harms or benefits us, and when it differs from what is typically expected by society. The correspondent inference theory states
that we tend to attribute accidental behaviors to
situational factors. Similarly, actions that comply with others
or with societal expectations are typically seen
as situational, not as particularly relevant to an
individual’s personality.

111
Q

WHat is the defensive attribution hypothesis

A

The defensive attribution hypothesis
stems from the human fear that terrible
consequences might happen to us simply due to chance. To avoid being scared by this idea, we
tend to blame the victims of an accident or to
draw distinctions between ourselves and them
(as in, “He’s nothing like me, so this could never
happen to me”)

112
Q

WHat is the difference between fundamental attribution error and self serving bias?

A

The fundamental attribution error relates
to our interpretation of the cause of someone
else’s behavior, not our own, while self serving bias is attributing our mistakes to situational factors

113
Q

WHat is catalepsy?

A

Catalepsy refers to the decreased, stiffened muscle movement that is often seen as a symptom of catatonic-type schizophrenia.

114
Q

WHat is the difference between echolalia and echopraxia?

A

Echopraxia is a tic characterized by the involuntary repetition of another person’s behavior or movements. It is closely related to echolalia, which is the involuntary repetition of another person’s speech

115
Q

What is lyonization?

A

inactivation of one X chromosome

116
Q

What does the spleen do?

A

The spleen plays multiple supporting roles in the body. It acts as a filter for blood as part of the immune system. Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen, and platelets and white blood cells are stored there.

117
Q

What is the definition of prestige?

A

the level of respect given to a person, often in the context of occupation

118
Q

What is the “just world” phenomenon?

A

The “just-world phenomenon” refers to a perception that the world is fundamentally fair and that individuals “get what they deserve.” In the context of prejudice and discrimination, people of high status can use this fallacy to explain away an otherwise unfair situation. ecause people want to believe that the world is fair, they will look for ways to explain or rationalize away injustice, often blaming the person in a situation who is actually the victim.

119
Q

What is contagion theory?

A

Contagion theory posits
that crowds exert a hypnotic influence, and
the subsequent irrational frenzy can include
behaviors that people would never consider when
alone.

120
Q

What is the “crowds as gatherings theory”?

A

Crowd as “gatherings” is a theory that
contrasts individuals and large groups; it
states that a crowd is composed of a varied
number of individuals, friends, and cliques.
Unlike contagion theory, crowd as “gatherings”
proposes that crowds do not, in themselves,
alter judgment.

121
Q

What is emergent norm theory?

A

Emergent-norm theory is a combination of
ideas that propose that crowd behavior results
from a combination of participant anonymity,
shared emotions, and the gathering of likeminded individuals in a society

122
Q

What is convergence theory?

A

Convergence theory hypothesizes that it is not the crowd itself that provokes violent behavior. Instead, the event draws like-minded individuals, who encourage each other to participate in rioting activities

123
Q

What is developmental socialization?

A

This kind of learning is based on the achievements of primary socialization. “It’s builds on already acquired skills and knowledge as the adult progresses through new situations such as marriage or new job. These require new expectations, obligations, and roles. New learning is added to and blended with old in relatively smooth and continuous process of development”

124
Q

WHat are the stages of culture shock?

A

This kind of learning is based on the achievements of primary socialization. “It’s builds on already acquired skills and knowledge as the adult progresses through new situations such as marriage or new job. These require new expectations, obligations, and roles. New learning is added to and blended with old in relatively smooth and continuous process of development”

125
Q

What is multiculturalism?

A

Multiculturalism is an ideology that
promotes interaction between cultural groups.
It involves advocacy for equality and respect so
that these cultures may live in peace, making
C correct. Additionally, multiculturalism is
reflected by the demographic populations
of organizations that include businesses, neighborhoods, and schools. Finally, a main aim
of this perspective is to promote the growth and
spreading of multicultural communities.

126
Q

All of the mitotic divisions that form primary oocytes occur ______

A

prior to birth

127
Q

When are the Na+/K+ channels open during an action potential?

A

When the plasma membrane is at its resting potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. As triggering events bring the membrane up to its threshold potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels open and cause further depolarization of the membrane by allowing Na+ to flow into the cell. The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed during the depolarization phase of an action potential. After the membrane reaches its peak potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels open, allowing K+ to flow out of the cell and repolarize the membrane by returning the membrane to near its resting potential. During the repolarization stage of the action potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.

128
Q

What digestive enzymes are made in the pancrease?

A

Pancreatic proteases (such as trypsin and chymotrypsin) - which help to digest proteins.
Pancreatic amylase - which helps to digest sugars (carbohydrates).
Pancreatic lipase - which helps to digest fat.

129
Q

What is the difference between indoctrination and socialization?

A

Indoctrination is the process by
which individuals come to unquestioningly
accept a set of beliefs or attitudes. Due to its
negative connotation, this concept is considered
more extreme than regular socialization,
which is generally perceived as positive.

130
Q

What are the “outside” and ‘“borders” of the dramaturgical approach?

A

-outside: the individual meets audience
members independently and gives specific
performances -borders: the performer manages the people
allowed to observe him or her to restrict
access to the “performance.”

131
Q

What is social network analysis?

A

Social network analysis helps us identify communities ties and key members within communities that are crucial to understanding channels of attitude and behavior change. Nodes represent individuals in a group or network, and key nodes represent individuals who exert stronger influence.

132
Q

What is instinctual drift?

A

-instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior “drifts” to the organism’s species-specific (instinctual) behavior. - Instinctive drift, alternately known as instinctual drift, is the tendency of an animal to revert to unconscious and automatic behaviour that interferes with learned behaviour from operant conditioning

133
Q

what part of memory is not affected by aging

A

capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging

134
Q

What are practice effects?

A

Practice effects are influences on test results when a test is taken more than once. As a simple example, a practice effects occurs when you take multiple practice SAT exams; practice can increase your overall score. However, in psychological and educational testing, the practice effect is usually an unwanted influence.

135
Q

What does the fovea have a high concentration of?

A

fovea is the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision, whereas, the periphery of the retina contains a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light.

136
Q

What is Parson’s sociological conception of the legitimate sick role?

A

Parsons describes two rights and two responsibilities that an ill person has: a patient has a right not to be blamed for her illness and a right to be given some leeway by others in regards to normal obligations. However, a patient has the responsibility to make getting well a priority and the responsibility to seek appropriate treatment for his or her condition.

137
Q

What is culture lag?

A

Culture lag is a phenomenon where material culture advances faster than symbolic culture. This progress, and the resulting disconnect between the public and technology, often leads to conflict.

138
Q

kcat

A

=(Vmax/[E])

139
Q

The original nucleus is called the parent nucleus, and the nucleus remaining after decay is called the

A

daughter nucleus- is used when talking about decay of half lives

140
Q

What determines secondary structure of a protein?

A

secondary structure is represented by repeated patterns of hydrogen bonds between the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygen atoms

141
Q

What creates the blind spot on the retina?

A

The lack of visual receptors on the optic disk (the raised disk on the retina at the point of entry of the optic nerve)

142
Q

WHat is marginal poverty?

A

Marginal poverty is when an individual can’t find/keep a job and thus lacks stable employment

143
Q

The left cerebral hemisohere is linked with which cognitive function?

A

vocabulary skills, analytical thought, rational thought, logic, math/science, planning, right field vision, right side motor skills

144
Q

the right cerebral hemisphere is linked with?

A

visuospatial skills, music perception, creativity, writing, imagination, left field vision and motor skills and emotion processing

145
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

the alteration of behavior by the subjects of a study due to their awareness of being observed

146
Q

What is the Thomas Theorem?

A

our behavior depends not on the objective reality of a situation but on our subjective interpretation of reality. The consequences and results of behavior make it real. For example, a teenager who is defined as deviant might begin to act deviant. He makes his label real

147
Q

What is exchange mobility?

A

Exchange mobility suggests that society is made up of classes and that these classes maintain a relatively static number of people. Should a set number of people move upward from the middle class, an equal number is expected to move down from the upper class.

148
Q

WHat is an induced dipole interaction?

A

Induced-dipole bonding occurs only when a polar molecule induces a nonpolar molecule to become temporarily polar. Since BPA is not nonpolar, it cannot be induced from a nonpolar into a polar state.

149
Q

WHat are conformationql isomers?

A

Conformational isomers have no difference in chirality, but are identified by rotation around a single bond or through chair flips.

150
Q

What are diastereomers?

A

Diastereomers are stereoisomers that differ at some, but not all, chiral centers.

151
Q

WHat is the difference between a furanose and a pyranose?

A

pyranose = sugars in a 6 membered ring structure = hexagon shaped. For example, glucopyranose = glucose in a 6 membered ring. furanose = sugars in a 5 membered ring structure = pentagon shaped. For example, fructofuranose = fructose in a 5 membered ring.

152
Q

What are terpenes?

A

terpenes (which are composed of two units of isoprene), serve as the main precursor to steroid synthesis.

153
Q

What is a phospholipid?

A

consists of a glycerol molecule with TWO ester linkages to long-chain fatty acids. The other -OH on the glycerol is linked to a head group, which is then attached to a phosphate. This makes is an amphipathic molecule.

154
Q

WHat is the function of sphingiolipids?

A

Sphingolipids are commonly believed to protect the cell surface against harmful environmental factors by forming a mechanically stable and chemically resistant outer leaflet of the plasma membrane lipid bilayer

155
Q

What is the three-component theory of stratification, or Weberian stratification

A

the “three-component theory of stratification,” or “Weberian stratification,” states that wealth, prestige, and power influence the way that individuals treat one another definitions: -Power, or the ability of a person to achieve their goals despite opposition from others, -Prestige, or the respect with which a person or status position is regarded by others -Class, or wealth and assets that an individual possesses

156
Q

What is cyclothymia?

A

Cyclothymia is a type of bipolar disorder where mood swings are milder and do not reach full-blown manic or depressive episodes

157
Q

What is identification?

A

Identification is a type of conformity that happens when a person drinks to conform to a social role. For example, if someone was a rock star and believed they had to drink to be a rock star, this would be identification.

158
Q

What is informational conformity?

A

Informational conformity is when a person drinks because they don’t really know anything about alcohol (they lack knowledge) and turn to their peer group for guidance about what to do

159
Q

What is compliance?

A

Compliance is when a person conforms publicly but privately disagrees with the behavior

160
Q

What is pareidolia?

A

The psychological phenomenon that causes some people to see or hear a vague or random image or sound as something significant

161
Q

What is abasia?

A

the inability to walk, possibly due to some psychological shock or trauma

162
Q

what is parapraxis?

A

Parapraxis is a (Freudian) slip of the tongue, or unintended action, which might reveal a hidden thought.

163
Q

What is frotteurism?

A

Frotteurism is the interest in rubbing, usually one’s pelvic area, against a non-consenting person for sexual pleasure. It may involve touching any part of the body, including the genital area.

164
Q

What is primary prevenetion?

A

Primary prevention refers to prevention of a disease or problem behavior before any signs, symptoms, or risk behaviors have developed.

165
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Secondary prevention is seen when there is an established risk factor present or when a disease/problem behavior has already begun to develop. In this case, the target behavior is alcohol use and abuse in teenagers and the risk behavior (which is already present and established) is peer pressure.

166
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

ertiary prevention refers to prevention of a disease or problem behavior from getting significantly worse; for example, if students had significant, non-normative issues with alcohol use or abuse, tertiary prevention might serve to establish a school-wide AA or harm reduction program.

167
Q

Who are rebels in Merton’s strain theory?

A

Rebels reject the goals of society because they want to replace them with new ones. They want to cause a revolution and create a better society for all. Examples include hippies, violent demonstrators, and eco-terrorists.

168
Q

Who are innovators in Merton’s strain theory?

A

Innovators accept the goal of society but have created “new,” illegitimate ways of achieving these goals, such as theft and/or drug dealing. Merton proposed that this is more likely to occur within the lower classes or any disadvantaged group within society.

169
Q

Who are retreatists in Merton’s strain theory?

A

Strain theory, developed by sociologist Robert Merton, posits that when people are prevented from achieving culturally approved goals through institutional means, they experience strain or frustration that can lead to deviance. Retreatists are those who reject both these goals and the socially accepted ways to achieve them and, in effect, drop out from society. Retreatism can manifest itself as alcoholism and drug addiction.

170
Q

Who are conformists in Merton’s strain theory?

A

Conformists accept the cultural goals and means of attaining those goals

171
Q

Who are situalists in Mertons strain theory?

A

Ritualism involves the rejection of cultural goals but the routinized acceptance of the means for achieving the goals, they go through life, one common example of ritualism is when people do not embrace the goal of getting ahead in society by doing well in one’s career and earning as much money as possible, those who simply do not value economic success but frame success in other ways, will reject the goal of climbing the economic ladder. Yet, most will still engage in the behaviors that are meant to achieve this goal. Most will spend most of their time at work, away from their families and friends, and may even still attempt to gain status and increased salary within their professions, despite the fact that they reject the end goal. They “go through the motions” of what is expected perhaps because they know that it is normal and expected, because they do not know what else to do with themselves, or because they have no hope or expectation of change within society.

172
Q

What is residual poverty?

A

Residual poverty is chronic, multigenerational poverty.

173
Q

What is marginal poverty?

A

Marginal poverty is a type of poverty that happens when people are chronically unemployed or underemployed.

174
Q

T-cell receptors rely on _____ pathways for activation

A

tyrosine kinase

175
Q

do shorter or longer phospholipids contribute to increased membrane fluidity?

A

all things being equal, shorter phospholipids also increase fluidity due to having a greater average velocity at the same temperature than larger phospholipids and having a smaller surface area with which to undergo stabilizing London dispersive attractions

176
Q

What is the Edman degradation?

A

The Edman degradation is a technique used to sequence peptides by progressively removing amino acids

177
Q

Mass spec allows us to determine the ____ of a sample

A

molecular weight

178
Q

Gap junctions are most likely to be found in large numbers in which of the following tissues?

A

cardfiac muscle, Gap junctions allow the flow of ions and solutes that would normally be impermeable to the membrane. It is important that cardiac muscle cells have gap junctions so that action potentials can travel through them to coordinate muscle contraction.

179
Q

What is the difference between anabolism and catabolism?

A

Catabolism describes the “breakdown” of molecules and does not require energy. Anabolism describes “building up” molecules and does require energy.

180
Q

order the derivatives beginning with the least reactive

A

amides < esters and carboxylic acids < acid anhydrides < acyl halides

181
Q

What is the difference between a lactone and a lactam?

A

A lactam is a cyclic amide while a lactone is a cyclic ester

182
Q

thionyl chloride (SOCl2) and Phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5) are reagents commonly used to convert

A

carboxylic acids into acyl halides.

183
Q

What is convergence theory?

A

Convergence theory states that as nations transition from the beginning stages of industrialization to highly industrialized nations, the same societal patterns will emerge, eventually creating a global culture

184
Q

What is the formula for current that includes time?

A

I=ΔQ/Δt

185
Q

WHat enzyme catalyzes the final step of both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis?

A

glucose 6-phosphatase

186
Q

What is the formula for catalytic efficiency?

A

kcat/KM

187
Q

Vmax=

A

kcat[E]

188
Q

What are the two parts of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

1.oxidative phase-irreversible; generate NADPH for fatty acid synthesis and detox 2.reversible; generate pentoses (5-C sugars) for nucleotide synthesis

189
Q

How many carbons does actyl coA have?

A

2

190
Q

How many carbons does isocitrate have?

A

6

191
Q

How many carbons does citrate have?

A

6

192
Q

How many carbons does alphaketoglutarate have?

A

5

193
Q

How many carbons does succinycoA have?

A

4

194
Q

How many carbons does succinate have?

A

4

195
Q

How many carbons does fumarate have?

A

4

196
Q

How many carbons does malate have?

A

4

197
Q

How many carbons does oxaloacetate have?

A

4

198
Q

WHat is RT PCR?

A

Reverse Transcriptase PCR, is a variation of the polymerase chain reaction that typically measures RNA expression levels

199
Q

What sugars have 6 carbons?

A

Glucose, galactose, and fructose have the same chemical formula (\text C_6\text H_{12}\text O_6C6​H12​O6​start text, C, end text, start subscript, 6, end subscript, start text, H, end text, start subscript, 12, end subscript, start text, O, end text, start subscript, 6, end subscript), but they differ in the organization of their atoms, making them isomers of one another.

200
Q

What sugard have 5 carbons?

A

Ribose and Deoxyribose

201
Q

Which types of glycosidic linkages are found in humans?

A

alpha

202
Q

WHat are common aldoses?

A

ribose, glucose and galactose

203
Q

What are common ketoses?

A

fructose

204
Q

What is systems theory?

A

Concepts dealing with systems such as families represent systems theory.

205
Q

What is institutional memory?

A

Institutional memory is the collective memory of the individuals in an organization about its history, situations the organization has confronted, and what was necessary to deal with them. Long-term employees are valuable as they provide institutional memory for an organization, which means that the organization does not have to figure out what to do from scratch whenever an issue similar to one in the past comes up.

206
Q

How do you amplify/increase pressure (like is done when your ear amplifies sound)?

A

In order to increase the pressure exerted on the cochlear fluid the ossicles act to both increase the overall force exerted on the fluid as well as decrease the area over which that force is exerted (P = F/A). The area of the oval window must therefore be smaller than that of the tympanic membrane

207
Q

What are the three ossicle bones?

A

the three ossicle bones are: the malleus, stapes and incus. The stapes is the last bone of the three, and its footplate is what drives the motion of the cochlear fluid.

208
Q

What is the relationship between wave frequency and the depth it travels along the basilar membrane?

A

The penetration depth of any wave is inversely proportional to its frequency. A traveling wave generated by a low-frequency sound will therefore penetrate further along the basilar membrane relative to a high-frequency sound, and the wave will approach closer to the apex of the cochlea.

209
Q

What is social functionism?

A

This approach looks at society through a macro-level orientation, which is a broad focus on the social structures that shape society as a whole, and believes that society has evolved like organisms. This approach looks at both social structure and social functions. Functionalism addresses society as a whole in terms of the function of its constituent elements such as customs, traditions, and institutions.

210
Q

What is social antipositivism?

A

Antipositivism is the belief within social science that the social realm may not be subject to the same methods of investigation as the natural world; the social realm requires a different epistemology in which academics work beyond empiricism and the scientific method.

211
Q

What is the sick role?

A

The sick person: does not have to fulfill his or her normal roles; should seek medical attention, do as the doctor says, and try to get well; is not held accountable for her or his illness.

212
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

The availability heuristic involves using easily accessible information based on salient characteristics.

213
Q

What is the familiarity heuristic?

A

The familiarity heuristic involves inferring that past behavior will continue to the present.

214
Q

What is the representative heuristc?

A

The representative heuristic involves judging that an event occurs at a higher rate than it actually does because of salient characteristics.

215
Q

What is a main effect?

A

A main effect is the effect of a single independent variable on a dependent variable – ignoring all other independent variables.

216
Q

Sensory memory is the initial recording of encoded sensory information, and is therefore the most fleeting form of memory storage. There are two main types of sensory memory:

A

iconic memory, responsible for visual information and lasting only a few tenths of a second, and echoic memory, responsible for auditory information and lasting 3 to 4 seconds.

217
Q

Long-term memory is divided into:

A

implicit memory, also known as nondeclarative memory, and explicit memory, also known as declarative memory. Implicit (nondeclarative) memory accounts for acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli. This also includes procedural memory, which accounts for motor skills and specific physical actions.

218
Q

What is potentiation?

A

the increase in strength of nerve impulses along pathways which have been used previously, either short-term or long-term

219
Q

A meso compound requires?

A

two chiral centers and a plane of symmetry, which no naturally-occurring amino acids have

220
Q

What is archimedes’ principle

A

when a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, it experiences an apparent loss in weight that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the immersed part of the body

221
Q

What does a -ΔG tell you?

A

just that it is spontaneous, nothing about entropy or enthalpy

222
Q

What changes when a wave moves from one medium to another?

A

the velocity and wavelength, not the frequency

223
Q

What are mutases?

A

Mutase enzymes are a class of isomerases and are specifically involved in moving functional groups around on a molecule. Phosphoglucomutase is specifically involved in the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate.

224
Q

Glucokinase specifically catalyzes

A

the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate.

225
Q

Decarboxylase enzymes are involved anytime

A

CO2 is released. Examples include pyruvate decarboxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and, in the process, releases CO2.

226
Q

What type of potential does an antioxidant need to have?

A

an antioxidant needs to have reducing potential (ex NADH can be an antioxidant but FAD can’t)

227
Q

What is the the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the final step of glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate kinase

228
Q

Is Phosphofructokinase-1 glycolytic or gluconeogenic?

A

glycolytic

229
Q

The three key enzymes of glycolysis are:

A

hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase.

230
Q

What is the role of ATP citrate lyase

A

ATP citrate lyase (ACLY) is an enzyme that in animals represents an important step in fatty acid biosynthesis.[2] By converting citrate to acetyl-CoA, the enzyme links carbohydrate metabolism, which yields citrate as an intermediate, with fatty acid biosynthesis, which consumes acetyl-CoA

231
Q

What is the difference between glycogen and cellulose?

A

Glycogen is a glucose polymer with α-1,4 glycoside links while cellulose has a β-1,4 link between the glucose rings.

232
Q

What is the flow rate of a pipe?

A

Q = ΔPπr4/8μl where ΔP is the pressure difference, l is the length of pipe, μ is the dynamic viscosity, Q is the volume flow rate, and r is the radius.

233
Q

The mesodermal germ layer eventually differentiates into the

A

kidneys (and its associated ducts), gonads (and its associated ducts), heart, blood vessels, and blood cells, as well as muscle and bone.

234
Q

The respiratory tract comes from the…

A

endoderm–The endoderm is basically responsible for the interior linings of the body, including the linings of the gastrointestinal system, the pancreas and part of the liver, the urinary bladder and part of the urethra, and the lungs.

235
Q

What does the thyroid v paratyroid release?

A

thyroid-T3,T4 (increases body’s metabolic rate), and calcitonin parathyroid-parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH raises the blood calcium level by: breaking down the bone (where most of the body’s calcium is stored) and causing calcium release

236
Q

What are asters?

A

Asters are radial microtubule arrays found in animal cells. These star-shaped structures form around each pair of centrioles during mitosis. Asters help to manipulate chromosomes during cell division to ensure that each daughter cell has the appropriate complement of chromosomes.

237
Q

One turn of the ß-oxidative cycle for an even-chain fatty acid results in the production of:

A

a single molecule of acetyl-CoA, NADH, and FADH2

238
Q

Fatty acid and sterol synthesis, including synthesis of cholesterol and cholesterol-derived steroid hormones, occurs in the

A

liver

239
Q

Fatty acid and sterol synthesis, including synthesis of cholesterol and cholesterol-derived steroid hormones, occurs in the

A

cholesterol synthesis

240
Q

What marks the begining of the leuteal phase?

A

ovulation (this means that the leuteal phase is when a women can most likely get pregnant), also can rememeber the leuteal phase because that is when the corpus leuteum forms

241
Q

What marks the begining of the uterine cycle?

A

The uterine cycle begins with menstruation, which overlaps with the first part of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. During menstruation, the uterine lining built up in the previous cycle is shed.

242
Q

The main protein that makes up most connective tissue is

A

collagen, it is found in tendons, forms connective ligaments within the body, and gives extra support to the skin.

243
Q

Actin is mainly found

A

inside cells and is not a major component of connective tissue.

244
Q

Although keratin is an intermediate filament that gives the skin its strength, it is not commonly found in

A

joints, Generally: keratin-A type of protein found on epithelial cells, which line the inside and outside surfaces of the body. Keratins help form the tissues of the hair, nails, and the outer layer of the skin. They are also found on cells in the lining of organs, glands, and other parts of the body

245
Q

Elastin provides elasticity to connective tissues. A loss-of-function mutation in elastin would cause the joints to be

A

unnecessarily stiff

246
Q

power of a lens:

A

P = 1/f, which are in units of diopters or inverse meters (you can use this to substitute into the thin lens equation)

247
Q

What is chromatic abberation?

A

Shorter wavelengths experience a greater index of refraction, so blue converges closer to the lens than red

248
Q

How to calculate total internal angle of reflection?

A

set the angle on the side with air (or the less dense material ) to 90, here is an example using air and a dense material where the index of refraction of air is 1
-Snell’s Law gives n2sin()=1sin(90)

thus the critical angle=sin-1(1/n2)

249
Q

What is an intervening variable?

A

Intervening variables (also known as a mediating variable) are hypothetical constructs like personality, intelligence or attitude. As they are not “real” variables, one major limitation is that they cannot be measured. It is therefore impossible to quantify how much of the experimental results are due to the independent variables, and how much are due to each of the intervening variables.

Boston University defines an intervening variable as “A control variable that follows an independent variable but precedes the dependent variable in a causal sequence.”

250
Q

Can a confounder be a mediating variable?

A

A confounding variable (confounder) is an extraneous variable that correlates with both the dependent variable and the independent variable. It is NOT mediating?

251
Q

What is the formula for the intensity sound coming from a speaker?

A

Intensity is the Power divided by the area

252
Q

In conflict theory, the thesis describes the initial environment, the status quo.

A

The anti-thesis is the reaction to the thesis, the push-back from those unhappy with the status quo.

253
Q

What is the difference refraction and diffraction?between

A

Refraction occurs when light passes through the interface between optical media with different indices of refraction.–the process by which a beam of light or other system of waves is spread out as a result of passing through a narrow aperture or across an edge, typically accompanied by interference between the wave forms produced.

254
Q

An ampere is the unit used to measure ?

A

electric current.

255
Q

Where do free electrons on a conductor go?

A

on the surface of the substance, Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons. Free electrons arrange themselves on the surface of conductors, and their collective electric field produced inside the conductor cancels any external electric field. The resulting electric field inside the conductor is zero.

256
Q

how is a blood pressure read?

A

systolic/diastolic, systolic=pressure of blood being ejected, diastolic=pressure between heartbeats

257
Q

Where do fatty acid breakdown and synthesis take place?

A

Fatty acid synthesis starts with acetyl-CoA and builds up by the addition of two-carbon units. Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm of cells while oxidative degradation occurs in the mitochondria.

258
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

The Henry’s Law constant kH relates the solubility of a gas S to the pressure of that gas Pg above the solution and is written as S = kH•Pg.

259
Q

There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes:

A

serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y)

260
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

Desmosomes are intercellular junctions that function as anchors to form strong sheets of cells.

261
Q

What are intercalated disks?

A

Intercalated discs are specialized intercellular junctions between cardiac muscle cells that provide direct electrical coupling among cells.

262
Q

What are the names for the stop codons?

A

The three stop codons have names: UAG is amber, UGA is opal (sometimes also called umber), and UAA is ochre.

263
Q

What is the overconfidence effect?

A

Overconfidence effect refers to the tendency to overestimate the accuracy of one’s beliefs and judgments.

264
Q

What is a status group?

A

a group of people who, within a society, can be differentiated on the basis of non-economic qualities such as honour, prestige, ethnicity, race and religion.

265
Q

What is maladaptiveness?

A

The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others

266
Q

Parkinson’s has to do with which neurotransmitter?

A

Parkinson’s disease patients have insufficient dopamine levels which results in symptoms such as tremors and decreased mobility

267
Q

schizophrenia is a result of high ____ levels

A

dopamine

268
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Episodic memory is the memory of every day events such as (times, location geography, associated emotions, and other contextual who, what, when, where, why knowledge) that can be explicitly stated or conjured. It is the collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place.

269
Q

What personality traits are associated with Cattell’s Five Factor (the BIG Five) theory?

A

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

270
Q

What is bootstrapping?

A

Bootstrapping is a term used in language acquisition in the field of linguistics. It refers to the idea that humans are born innately equipped with a mental faculty that forms the basis of language.

“Bootstrapping” refers to the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development.

271
Q

What is the naming explosion?

A

naming explosion. a stage in language development, usually occurring during a child’s 2nd year, when a marked increase occurs in the rate at which new words are added to the child’s productive vocabulary

272
Q

What is overextension?

A

“Overextension” is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, “doggie” for a cow)

273
Q

What is systematic desensitization?

A

Systematic desensitization is a classical conditioning technique in which the intensity of an unconditioned stimulus is gradually increased until it no longer elicits the conditioned response.

274
Q

What is elaborative encoding?

A

Elaborative encoding refers to combining new (to-be-remembered) information with existing memory representations, which enhances the probability of retrieving that new information.