Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology > Social Psychology > Flashcards

Social Psychology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Crisis of social psychology

A
  • late ’60s - early ’70s
  • loss of the social aspect; increasing emphasis on the individual instead of groups/society
  • lack of clear direction for the discipline
  • over-reliance on experimental methods
  • lead out by Henri Tajfel & Serge Moscovici
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Critical social psychology

A

Result of the crisis (‘60s - ’70s)

Social constructionism, discursive psychology, phenomenological psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Social psychology

A

Study of how people think about something, relate to, and influence each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Levels of analysis

A
  • intrapersonal processes
  • interpersonal relations
  • intra-group processes
  • inter-group relations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Group

A

Two or more people who interact and influence one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dyad

A

A ‘group’ of two individuals

Characteristics:
- reciprocity
- psychological safety
- empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Features of groups

A
  • cohesion
  • roles (informal or formal)
  • status
  • communication networks (e.g. all-channel communication, wheel communication networks, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Social facilitation

A

Performance on a task improves due to the presence of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Social inhibition

A

Performance is impaired due to the presence of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Zajonc facilitation model

A

Presence of others leads to arousal:
- facilitation of a dominant response
- inhibition of a non-dominant response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law (1908)

A

Relationship between arousal and performance is a bell curve. Performance increases as arousal does, but after the optimal level of arousal has been reached, any further increases of arousal will impair performance

Optimal level of arousal is higher for an easier task, and lower for a harder task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Evaluation appraisal

A

People care about how they are being judged by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mere presence effect

A

The presence of others alone is enough to increase arousal (and thereby affect arousal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Social loafing

A

Individual performance decreases in groups when working towards a common goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Group polarisation

A

Tendency of individual opinions and beliefs to become more extreme due to membership & discussion in a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Selective search for information that validates one’s own opinions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risky-shift effect

A

Groups often make riskier decisions than individuals (not universal > cautious shift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Groupthink

A

Making decisions on the basis of preserving the group/direction of the group

Characteristics:
- high group cohesion
- group isolation
- directive leader with a clear vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristics of effective minority influence

A
  • consistency
  • self-confidence
  • defection from majority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Self

A

A complex web of psychological entities and processes concerning one’s own person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Spotlight effect

A

Tendency to put oneself in the ‘spotlight’, overestimating the attention from others towards them > overestimating the amount of judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Illusion of transparency

A

Thinking that concealed emotions can easily be read by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Self-reference effect

A

Information relevant/related to ourselves is processed quicker and remembered better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Self-discrepancy theory

A

Various self-perceptions might not be consistent with each other; this creates psychological discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Types of self-perception

A
  1. the actual self: traits someone believes they possess
  2. the ought self: traits someone believes they should have
  3. the ideal self: traits someones wishes/hopes to have
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Social identity

A

One’s sense of self and identity based on membership in certain social groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Downwards comparison theory

A

Strategy to repair self-esteem
If self esteem is threatened > compare downwards/lower expectations > restored self-esteem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Self-esteem

A

Overall self-evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Narcissism

A

Uncontrolled, compulsive self-love; desire admiration and have an exaggerated sense of self-importance
- low views on other people
- mistrusting
- hostile
- Machiavellian (manipulative behaviour for self-gain without regard for others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Self-serving bias

A

Successes tend to be attributed to our disposition; failures tend to be attributed to our situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Defensive pessimism

A

Adaptive value of anticipating problems and harnessing one’s anxiety to motivate effective action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

False consensus effect

A

Tendency to overestimate the commonality of one’s beliefs and (undesirable) actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

False uniqueness effect

A

Tendency to underestimate the commonality of one’s abilities, talents, and behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Locus of control

A

Belief about responsibility of events/actions in life. Can be either internal (I control my life) or external (my life is controlled by other factors).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Priming

A

Activating particular associations in memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Kulechov effect

A

Control people’s perception of emotion by manipulating the context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Misinformation effect

A

Misinformation of an experience event might be included/reconsolidated into the memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Controlled processing

A

Mental activities that require conscious, deliberate, and reflective thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Automatic processing

A

Mental activities happening with little or no conscious awareness; effortless and habitual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Types of social schemas

A

Self schemas: “who am I?” > own traits, values, mannerisms, and the sense of self

Person schemas: personality traits to categorise people by; specific traits related to specific people (e.g. a friend or family member)

Role schemas: information on behaviour and norms expected from someone in a certain role (e.g. doctor)

Event schemas: information on appropriate behaviour for certain events (e.g. a wedding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Social encoding

A

Encoding social information into memory (also using past social experiences)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Overconfidence phenomenon

A

Overestimation of the accuracy of one’s beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Presumption of someone/something belonging to a certain group due to resemblance to the prototype of a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Likelihood of events is based on how readily something comes to mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Counterfactual thinking

A

Imagining alternative scenarios and outcomes that could have happened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Illusory correlation

A

Perception of a non-existent relation or a stronger one than exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Attribution theory

A

How people explain others’ behaviour, attributing it to either disposition (internal circumstances, e.g. personality) or situation (external circumstances, e.g. environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Heider’s theory of naive psychology (1958)

A
  • tendency to assume behaviour is motivated and intentional
  • dispositional & situational attributions
  • tendency to ‘prefer’ internal (dispositional) factors as they assume that personality is stable
  • ^varies by culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Jones & Davis’ theory of correspondent interference (1965)

A
  • actions are indicative of intentions and dispositions
  • unusual behaviour tells more about a person than usual behaviour
  • 5 sources of behaviour to judge explanation (if yes…)
    1. freely chosen behaviour? > internal
    2. unusual behaviour? > internal
    3. socially deviant behaviour? > internal
    4. serves own interests? > internal
    5. has a high personal impact? > internal
  • preference for internal explanations of behaviour > makes people predictable > stable personality & traits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Kelley’s conversation model (1973)

A
  • people use information on consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus of behaviour to make judgements and attributions
  • high consistency > internal
  • high distinctiveness > external
  • high consensus > external
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Self-perception theory

A

Attitudes are inferred from observations of one’s own behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

Tendency for observers to underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Impact bias

A

People have a tendency to overestimate the impact of emotional events
- psychological immune system: more resilient in the long-run than predicted
- true for both positive and negative events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Attitude

A

Cognitive representation that summarises our evaluation of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ABC model of attitudes

A

Affective emotional response (feeling)
Behavioural responses (doing)
Cognitive responses (thinking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mere-exposure effect

A

Tendency for novel stimuli to be like more or rated more positively after the rater has been repeatedly exposed to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Demand characteristics

A

Participants correctly interpret the expected findings of an experiment and alter behaviour to fit accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Modelling

A

Acquisition of behaviour on the basis of observing that of others

59
Q

Heider’s Balance Theory (1946)

A
  • people avoid having contradicting attitudes and evaluations of an object
  • in the case of inconsistency, people adjust these
60
Q

Festinger’s Theory of Cognitive Dissonance (1957)

A
  • people are motivated to keep they attitudes, beliefs, and behaviour consistent
  • if inconsistency occurs, dissonance will be reduced by changing their attitudes, belief, or behaviour or by justifying/rationalising the discrepancy
61
Q

Four main functions of attitudes

A
  1. Knowledge: provide structure and order; help explain and understand the world (quickly)
  2. Instrumental: maximise rewards, minimise negative outcomes due to ‘good’ or ‘bad’ evaluations; if something becomes favourable, we change the attitude towards it
  3. Ego defence: protect threats to self by projecting insecurities onto others; defence mechanism for anxiety
  4. Value expression: express and reinforce sense of self and identity by displaying personally important attitudes
62
Q

Thurstone Scale

A
  • questionnaire > 22 independent statements on an issue
  • rate feelings towards each statement from 1 to 11
63
Q

Likert Scale

A
  • simplification of the Thurstone scale
  • scale of 1 to 5; ‘strongly disagree’ to ‘strongly agree’
64
Q

Osgood’s Semantic Differential Scale

A
  • scale of 1 to 7 with opposite adjectives at each side
  • multiple scores per item
  • 3 evaluative dimensions: activity, evaluation, and potency
65
Q

Acquiescence bias

A

Participants consistently answering ‘yes’ in a questionnaire, no matter the question asked

66
Q

Social desirability

A

Tendency for participants to answer in a way which is favourable/socially desirable

67
Q

Bogardus’ Social Distance Scale (1925)

A

Measures people’s willingness to have close social contact with people from diverse social groups

68
Q

Implicit Association Test (IAT)

A

Implicit method of measuring attitudes based on automatic associations that exist between objects and concepts

Issues exist:
- construct validity (does it measure what it aims to ?
- predictive validity (do the results predict results for a similar measure?)

69
Q

Theory of Reasoned Action

A

Tp predict behavioural intentions:
1. expectation > subjective norms
+
2. attitudes towards the behaviour (+ or -)
\/
3. behavioural intention
\/
4. actual behaviour

70
Q

Theory of Planned Behaviour

A

Determining intentions through behaviour
a. attitudes
b. perceived social norms
c. feelings of control

71
Q

Insufficient justification effect

A

Reduction of dissonance through internal justification when external justification is insufficient

72
Q

Persuasion

A

The process by which a message induces a change in beliefs, attitudes, or behaviours

73
Q

Central route to persuasion

A

Argument is found to be persuasive due to the content of the message

74
Q

Peripheral route to persuasion

A

Argument is persuasive due to incidental cues (e.g. the speaker’s attractiveness) instead of the validity of the argument itself

75
Q

Primary factors of persuasion

A
  1. the communicator
  2. the message
  3. how the message is communicated
  4. the audience
76
Q

Sleeper effect

A

Over time the content and the source of a message become disconnected
- thus the influence of the source’s credibility decreases over time

77
Q

Two-step persuasion techniques

A

Door-in-the-face
- one big request is rejected
- a smaller request is therefore more likely to be accepted
- hard to say ‘no’ twice

That’s not all
- make a slightly exaggerated request
- if accepted, information is added > people are more likely to comply
- often used for purchases > normally €1.25, now €1.00

Low-balling
- make a request, then when accepted, add (unfavourable) information > people stay committed
- target consistency/commitment norm

Foot-in-the-door
- make a small request > accepted
- then make a larger request > people stay consistent and accept this one as well
- triggers consistency norm

78
Q

Conformity

A

A change in behaviour or belief as the result of real or imagined group pressure

79
Q

Compliance

A

Conformity that involves publicly acting in accord with an implied or explicit request ven if privately disagreeing
- insincere/outward conformity
- usually with the purpose of getting a reward or avoiding punishment

80
Q

Obedience

A

Acting in accord with a direct order or command (usually from someone with higher status) > explicit social influence

81
Q

Acceptance

A

Conformity that involves both acting and believing in accord with social pressure
- sincere, inward conformity

82
Q

Factors of obedience (Milgram experiments)

A
  • the victim’s distance
  • closeness and legitimacy of the authority figure
  • is it an institutional (reputable) authority
  • agentic state theory
83
Q

‘Banality of evil’

A

Anyone can be ‘made’ to do evil things > ordinary people can do horrible things

84
Q

Steps in the definition of social identities that allow for acts of extreme inhumanity

A
  1. creation of a cohesive in-group through shared social identification
  2. exclusion of specific population from the in-group
  3. constitution of the out-group posed as a threat to the existence of the in-group
  4. representation of the in-group as uniquely virtuous
  5. celebration of out-group annihilation as the fence of in-group virtue
85
Q

Normative influence

A

Conformity based on a person’s desire to fulfil others’ expectations, often to gain acceptance

86
Q

Information influence

A

Conformity occurring when people accept evidence about reality provided by other people

87
Q

Reactance

A

A motive to protect or restore one’s sense of freedom; arises from a threat to freedom of action

88
Q

Aggression

A

Physical or verbal behaviour intended to cause harm

89
Q

Theories of aggression

A
  1. aggression is the result of a biologically based aggressive drive
  2. aggression is a response to frustration
  3. aggressive behaviour is learned
90
Q

Reciprocity principle

A

asserts that we should treat like with like; responses to a positive action should be positive, and responses to a negative action should be negative

91
Q

Types of aggression

A
  • physical vs verbal
  • direct vs indirect
  • offensive vs defensive
  • instrumental vs hostile
92
Q

Need to belong

A

A motivation to bond with others in relationships that provide ongoing, positive interaction

93
Q

Proximity principle

A

Geographical nearness; proximity/functional distance is a powerful predictor of liking

94
Q

Matching phenomenon

A

The tendency for people to choose partners who are a ‘good match’ in attractiveness and other traits

95
Q

Assortative mating

A

The tendency for people to form relationships with those similar to themselves in social characteristics, such as education, political and religious views and social class

96
Q

Physical attractiveness stereotype

A

The presumption that physically attractive people possess other socially desirable traits as well

97
Q

Evaluative conditioning

A

How we can come to like or dislike something through an association with something we already like or dislike

98
Q

Sternberg’s kinds of love (1988)

A

Passion (infatuation), intimacy (liking), decision/commitment (empty love)
- passion + intimacy = romantic love
- intimacy + decision/commitment = companiote love
- decision/commitment + passion = fatuous love

passion + intimacy + decision/commitment = consummate love

99
Q

Factors of close relationships

A
  • commitment: intention to maintain relationship as well as feelings of psychological attachment to the other
  • equity: outcomes from a relationship are proportional to their contribution
100
Q

Responses to relationship distress

A

___________________Passive Active

Constructive Loyalty Voice

Destructive Neglect Exit

101
Q

Biological outfit

A

The biological processes, including genetic heritage, that shape living organisms

102
Q

Brain plasticity

A

The changes that occur in the organisation and structure of the brain as a result of experience and individual physical or psychological activity

103
Q

Natural selection

A

Th evolutionary process by which heritable traits that best enable organisms to survive and reproduce are passed to ensuing generations

104
Q

Theory of mind

A

The ability to attribute mental states to others and oneself; to be able to see the world from someone’s else point of view

105
Q

Gender

A

The socially constructed attributes and expectations by which people define male and female

106
Q

Sex

A

The biological characteristics, including hormones, genes, and physiology, that determine whether an individual is understood to be of male or female sex

107
Q

Intersex

A

The appearance of sex characteristics including hormones, chromosomes, and sexual organs, in an individual which do not conform to traditional definitions of male or female

108
Q

Cultural norms

A

Standards for accepted, typical, and expected behaviour

109
Q

Cultural dimensions (Hofstede)

A
  • individualism vs collectivism
  • power differences
  • masculinity & femininity
    uncertainty reduction
110
Q

Behaviour for liars

A
  • less smiles > artificial smiles
  • more errors when speaking
  • slower talking, more hesitation
  • higher pitch of voice
  • longer response time
  • short responses
  • use of generic words
  • vague, abstract, and non-verifiable information
111
Q

Social categorisation

A

The cognitive partitioning of the social world into relatively discrete categories of individuals

112
Q

Prototype

A

A social category member who is believed to possess the typical features of the social category

113
Q

Accentuation effect

A

Differences between members of different categories are exaggerated, as are similarities between members of the same category

114
Q

Black sheep effect

A

The deviant in a group is viewed much more harshly by in-group members than outgroup members

115
Q

Schism

A

The partition of a social group into separate factions and the ultimate succession of at least one faction from the group

116
Q

Social identity motives

A
  • collective self-esteem
  • distinctiveness
  • belonging
  • symbolic immortality
  • uncertainty reduction
117
Q

Outgroup homogeneity

A

Members of a different group(s) are perceived as homogenous > similar to each other

118
Q

Prejudice

A

A preconceived judgement of a group and its individual members

119
Q

Discrimination

A

Unjustified negative behaviour towards a group or its members’ social identity

120
Q

Authoritarian personality

A

A personality that is disposed to favour obedience to authority and intolerance for outgrips and those of lower status

121
Q

Social Dominance Theory (SDT)

A

Some social groups are placed higher in society than others, have access to more power and resources, and are therefore valued more positively than other social groups

122
Q

Social dominance orientation

A

A motivation to have one’s group dominate other social groups

123
Q

Meta-stereotype

A

The stereotype that we believe a specific outgroup holds about our ingroup

124
Q

Deracialisation

A

The justification of the racial marginalisation of groups on the basis of non-racial features

125
Q

Conflict

A

A perceived incompatibility of actions, goals, or values between two or more parties

126
Q

Realistic Conflict Theory (Sherif & Sherif)

A

Negative relations between social groups are based on real competition for scarce resources

127
Q

In-group bias

A

The tendency to favour one’s own ingroup

128
Q

Deindividuation

A

Loss of self-awareness and evaluation apprehension; occurs in group situations where responsiveness to group norms is increased or where anonymity is increased

129
Q

Superordinate goal

A

A shared goal that necessitates cooperative effort > overrides differences between groups

130
Q

Bargain

A

Seek resolution to a conflict through direct negotiation between parties

131
Q

Mediate

A

An attempt by a neutral third party to resolve a conflict by facilitating communication and offering suggestions

132
Q

Arbitrate

A

Resolution of a conflict by a neutral third party who studies both sides and imposes a settlement

133
Q

Altruism

A

A motive to increase another’s welfare without conscious regard for one’s self-interest

134
Q

Social-exchange theory

A

The theory that human interactions are most accurately described as social transactions between people, where people exchange rewards and costs

135
Q

Egoism

A

A motive to increase one’s own welfare

136
Q

Reciprocity norm

A

An expectation that people will help, not hurt, those who have helped them

137
Q

Social-responsibility norm

A

An expectation that people will help those in need of it

138
Q

Social-role theory

A

Proposes that differences between the genders is due to social conditioning and cultural values, rather than biological sex

139
Q

Filial piety

A

A child’s acknowledgement of the cost borne by their parents in raising them, and repaid in terms of reciprocal care for those parents

140
Q

Empathy

A

The capacity of sharing or vicariously experiencing other people’s feelings

141
Q

Bystander effect

A

The finding that the presence of several bystanders makes it less likely that people will provide help to someone

142
Q

Moral exclusion

A

The perception of certain individuals or groups as outside the boundary with which one applies moral values and roles of fairness

143
Q

Overjustification effect

A

The result of bribing people to do what they already like doing; they may then see their actions as externally controlled rather than intrinsically appealing

Psychology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions