SMART Flashcards

1
Q

Double embedding:
Infiltrated with ________ then embedded with ______.

A

Celloidin; Paraffin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flotation waterbath temp:

A

45 to 50 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To remove formalin pigments:

A

Picric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To remove mercurial deposits:

A

Iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explosive when dry:

A

Picric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Function of alum in hematoxylin:

A

Mordant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary importance of Frozen Sections:

A

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enzyme histochemistry:

A

Frozen section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Second best choice for routine cytologic examination after Papanicolau:

A

Phase contrast microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

NOT SUITABLE fixative for kidney structures:

A

Bouin’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by characteristic histologic appearance:

A

COAGULATION NECROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bacteria responsible of Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most frequently recovered Corynebacterium species from human clinical material. It is part of the normal skin microbiota:

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients:

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

parasite with double-walled, wrinkled cyst form:

A

Acanthamoeba castellanii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates:

A

Leishmanial form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal stool pH:

A

pH 7 to 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stool pH associated with CHO disorders:

A

pH 5.5 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Microhematocrit centrifugate for:

A

10,000 g for 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Standing plasma test determine:

A

creamy layer (chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Microanatomical fixatives should never contain ________ because it inhibits hematoxylin.

A

osmic acid/osmium tetroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nuclear fixatives should contain ________ due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.

A

glacial acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These fixatives should never contain Glacial Acetic Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi bodies:

A

Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming’s without HAc, Regaud’s, Orth’s, Helly’s and formalin with post-chroming)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:

A

At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15 minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then immersed in another fresh solution of melted paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure complete embedding or casting of tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

microtome invented by Paldwell Treffall:

A

Cambridge/Rocking microtome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:

A

Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Routine H and E:

A

Regressive staining, it involves a differentiation step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:

A

PAS, Azocarmine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Postmortem clotting:

A

immediately after death, rubbery consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antemortem thrombi:

A

friable, characterized by fibrin precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Leadership:

A

DIRECTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE:

A

cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination:

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella) vaccination:

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain:
GLITTER CELLS stain ________ as opposed to the VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.

A

Glitter cell stain LIGHT BLUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial cells and casts or free-floating in the urine sediment.

To confirm that these granules are hemosiderin, the ________ is used and stains the hemosiderin granules a ________. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).

A

Prussian blue stain for iron; blue color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Second most prevalent protein in CSF:

A

Prealbumin (transthyretin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

is usually defined as a newborn’s first bowel movement.
which is formed in the intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and swallowed amniotic fluid.
It is a dark green, mucus-like material. It may be present in the amniotic fluid as a result of fetal distress.

A

MECONIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or ____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).

A

cannula (temporary dialysis access device);
fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:

A

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

neuromotor irritability accompanied by muscular twitching and eventual convulsions; generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia):

A

TETANY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Reagent for the APT test:

A

1% NaOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

APT test: fetal blood

A

pink solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

APT test: maternal blood

A

yellow-brown supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

test for choline:
(Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals)

A

Florence test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

test for spermine:
(Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals, needles)

A

Barbiero’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

test to differentiate hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will precipitate hemoglobin:

A

Blondheim’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Nanometer is also ____ micron

A

millimicron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Embedding medium for EM is

A

Plastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Best vital stain is

A

neutral red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Vital stain for mitochondria is

A

Janus Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ferning:

A

Early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pap’s consists of 3 stains:

A

Harris hematoxylin,
OG 6
and EA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Total renal BLOOD flow is

A

1200 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Total renal PLASMA flow is

A

600 to 700 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most potent estrogen is

A

Estradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Most important androgen in terms of potency and amount secreted is
(Marshall)

A

testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Conn syndrome:

A

primary aldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

male-pattern hair growth in women; most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary syndrome, Marshall)

A

Hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Primary male hypogonadism:
____ testosterone
____ LH and FSH

A

Decreased testosterone;
Increased LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Secondary male hypogonadism:
____ testosterone
____ LH and FSH

A

Decreased testosterone;
Decreased LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active. This is a good time to draw blood specimens because the is at rest and food has not been ingested during the night.

A

BASAL STATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or hydronium ion when dissolved in water

A

ACID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

substance than can yield hydroxyl ions (OH-)

A

BASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

properties of osmotic pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor pressure

A

COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

t-test:

A

compare Accuracy, Mean

TAM
T - t test
A - Accuracy
M - Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

f-test:

A

compare precision, SD

SPF
S -SD
P - Precision
F - f test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

type of error:
1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)

A

Random error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

type of error:
2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN NUMBERS)

A

Systematic error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Order kinetics:
reaction rate is dependent on enzyme concentration only

A

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Order kinetics:
reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration

A

FIRST-ORDER KINETICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

thickening or hardening of the walls of arteries:

A

Arteriosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

accumulation of lipid in the veins and arteries:

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

elevated urea in blood (Turgeon: urea and creatinine):

A

Azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

deficiency of adrenocortical hormones:

A

Addison’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma:

A

Conn’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

excessive production of glucocorticoids (cortisol):

A

Cushing’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

tumors of the adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglia that produce and release large quantities of catecholamines:

A

Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

cessation of menstruation

A

Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Greek work YELLOW; irreversible scarring process by which normal liver architecture is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture:

A

Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

hereditary disorder in which there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the hepatocytes:

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

hereditary DEFICIENCY of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME:

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

associated with increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error of metabolism:

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

possibly of viral origin, where there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin but without liver pigmentation:

A

Rotor syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

is a defect of copper transport from the liver resulting in overload of copper in liver and brain:

A

Wilson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

is an X-linked recessive disorder in which defective transport of copper from mucosal cells results in copper deficiency:

A

Menkes disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

chronic autoimmune thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism:

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

diffuse toxic goiter

A

Graves’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

chronic protein deficiency under conditions of adequate non–protein calorie intake, which leads to marked hypoalbuminemia; may result from the net loss of albumin from both the intravascular and extravascular pools

A

Kwashiorkor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

a deficiency of calories with adequate protein status. In this condition; the serum albumin level remains normal despite considerable loss of body weight

A

Marasmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

cells of the testicles that produce testosterone

A

Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Kidds =
Duffy =

A

Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb
Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb

“Kid(d)s and Duffy the Monkey (Rh) eat Lots of M&Ns”
Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb
Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb
Monkey = Rh antibodies
M&Ns = anti-M, -N, -S, -s
Lots = dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

cell membrane marker of stem cells:

A

CD34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products such as methemoglobin:

A

ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Providing an antibody with its corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so that the antibody will attach to the antigen, thereby removing the antibody from the serum:

A

ADSORPTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

process whereby cells that are coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as to disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody:

A

ELUTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

simplest type of mutation
Only one nucleotide in the DNA sequence is changed
Includes substitutions, insertions, and deletions:

A

POINT MUTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

gene that does not appear to produce a detectable antigen; a silent gene:

A

AMORPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

connection between two blood vessels, either direct or through connecting channels:

A

ANASTOMOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

ANTI-A1 LECTIN:

A

DOLICHOS BIFLORUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

ANTI-B LECTIN:

A

BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

ANTI-H LECTIN:

A

ULEX EUROPAEUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

ANTI-M LECTIN:

A

IBERIS AMARA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

ANTI-N LECTIN:

A

VICIA GRAMINEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a double dose (homozygous inheritance of the appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of an antigen:

A

DOSAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

portion of the antigen molecule that is directly involved in the interaction with the antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT:

A

EPITOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

antigenic characteristic of the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an individual or a related family of individuals and therefore is not commonly found on all cells (usually less than 1% of the population):

A

PRIVATE ANTIGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

antigen characteristic of the red blood cell membrane found commonly among individuals, usually more than 98% of the population:

A

PUBLIC ANTIGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

programmed cell death:

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise:

A

Ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

fingernails are thin, flattened and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia:

A

Koilonychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin at periphery and increased central pallor; hypochromic cell:

A

Leptocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

this presence is definitive histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE

A

Reed-Sternberg cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

leukocytes of the myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysaccharide granules:

A

Alder-Reilly anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

needle-shaped or round inclusion in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes; composed of condensed primary granules:

A

Auer rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

congenital, autosomal recessive disorder, characterized by partial albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally large blue granules in leukocytes:

A

Chediak-Higashi anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

autosomal dominant inherited blood cell disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic inclusions similar to Dohle bodies:

A

May-Hegglin anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA characterized by exfoliative erythroderma, peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood:

A

Sezary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

rare disorder of fat metabolism caused by deficiency of glucocerebrosidase:

A

Gaucher’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

mutations to platelet GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

mutations to platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-dependent platelet aggregation

A

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

protein produced by the neutrophils and stored in the secondary granules that is able bind iron:

A

Lactoferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

basic pipet:

A

GLASS PIPET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

blood samples for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT):

A

CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

hormone produced by the hypothalamus to regulate water reabsorption in the COLLECTING DUCT:

A

ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

regulates flow of blood to and within the kidneys by responding to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content:

A

RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

BLACK, TARRY STOOL associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage:

A

MELENA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

stool associated with pancreatic disorder, bile-duct obstruction:

A

BULKY/FROTHY STOOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

stool associated with intestinal constriction:

A

RIBBON-LIKE STOOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

stool associated with upper GI bleeding, iron therapy, charcoal, BISMUTH (antacids):

A

BLACK STOOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

absence of sperm in a semen sample:

A

AZOOSPERMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

low sperm count:

A

OLIGOSPERMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

immature spermatozoa:

A

SPERMATIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Part of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, give rise to spermatozoa:

A

SERTOLI CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

cells of the testicles that produce testosterone:

A

LEYDIG CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

tip of a spermatozoa head, which contains enzymes for entry into an ovum:

A

ACROSOMAL CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

color-change phenomenon occurring because PROTEINS ACT AS HYDROGEN ION ACCEPTORS AT A CONSTANT PH:

A

PROTEIN ERROR OF INDICATORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

abrupt change in the mean of a series of results:

A

SHIFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control substance:

A

TREND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens:

A

CHAIN OF CUSTODY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

continuous link in the transmission of harmful microorganisms between a source and a susceptible host:

A

CHAIN OF INFECTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

institutional policy to provide customer satisfaction:

A

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

institutional program that focuses on customer satisfaction and expectations:

A

CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (CQI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

light scattered at an angle of less than 90 degrees, which indicates the SIZE OF A CELL:

A

FORWARD angle light scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

light scattered at 90 degrees in a flow cytometer that indicates the GRANULARITY OF A CELL:

A

SIDE ANGLE, right angle light scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

test that measures TOTAL IgE:

A

RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

test that measures ANTIGEN-SPECIFIC IgE:

A

RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

RNA viral cause of German or 3-day measles:

A

RUBELLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

single-stranded RNA virus that cause measles:

A

RUBEOLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

amoeboid movement of cells such as monocytes and polymorphonuclear neutrophils to a site of inflammation in phagocytosis:

A

DIAPEDESIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

congenital defect of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development, leading to a T-cell deficiency. Patients are subject to recurring viral and fungal infections:

A

DiGeorge anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

dysproteinemia synonymous with gamma heavy-chain disease. This abnormality is characterized by the presence of monoclonal protein composed of the heavy-chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule:

A

Franklin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

An alternate term for multiple myeloma:

A

Kahler’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

molecule when coupled to a hapten, makes the hapten capable of stimulating an immune response:

A

CARRIER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

simple chemical group that can bind to antibody once it is formed but that CANNOT stimulate antibody formation unless tied to a larger carrier molecule:

A

HAPTEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

single antigenic determinant. It is functionally the portion of an antigen that combines with an antibody paratope:

A

EPITOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

part of the antibody molecule that makes contact with the antigenic determinant:

A

PARATOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

frequency of positive results obtained in testing a population of individuals who are positive for antibody:

A

SENSITIVITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question:

A

SPECIFICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

antigens that are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:

A

ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin:

A

CARCINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin:

A

SARCOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

PRC was attached to the ____ pursuant to Executive Order No. 565.
Executive Order No. 565-A was issued, delegating the Presidential power of control over the PRC to the DOLE Secretary.

A

Department of Labor and Employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system is

A

CARBON DIOXIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report:

A

TURNAROUND TIME (TAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as:

A

POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Information contained in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following:

A

physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and methods for safe handling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Urinometer is placed with a ____ MOTION. The scale reading is then taken at the ____ OF THE URINE MENISCUS.

A

SPINNING MOTION;
BOTTOM OF THE URINE MENISCUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Studies have shown that although everyone who eats ____ produces a urine odor, ONLY certain genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.

A

ASPARAGUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

CABBAGE urine odor:

A

METHIONINE MALABSORPTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

The ____ portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL TUBULES and high concentrations can cause ____

A

heme portion; acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

CASTS have tendency to locate ____ OF THE COVERSLIP.

A

NEAR THE EDGES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:

A

MONOHYDRATE CAOX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

coffin-lid or FEATHERY APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate):

A

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

provides a method for counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to charging the chamber:

A

MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION):

A

COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

A maximum of ____ AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid and cells and are discarded:

A

30 mL amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

diarrhea with increased RETENTION of water and solutes in the large intestine associated with MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION:

A

OSMOTIC DIARRHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

diarrhea with increased SECRETION of water and electrolytes into the large intestine caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS:

A

SECRETORY DIARRHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least:

A

6 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Packed red blood cells LEAK ____ into the plasma or additive solution of the blood component during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of packed red blood cells may put patient populations such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic, or renal dysfunction at risk of developing hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to massive transfusion appear to be related to the patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels, and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells

A

POTASSIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Significant Antibody titer in HDN:
HARMENING
4th edition: significant is
5th edition: significant is
6th edition: critical titer is

A

4th edition: significant is 32
5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
6th edition: critical titer is 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered ____ (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

A

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

individual facility COMPARE ITS RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS:

A

BENCHMARKING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

average value:

A

MEAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

most frequently occurring value:

A

MODE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

middle value within range:

A

MEDIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

_____ systematic error - y-intercept:

A

CONSTANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

______ systematic error - SLOPE:

A

PROPORTIONAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls:

A

EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction:

A

either Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response (%RR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER:

A

ASCHOFF BODIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

a metallic element must NOT GO through drain disposal:

A

MERCURY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

can be recycled by distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified by commercial product, or can be disposed of by licensed waste hauler:

A

FORMALDEHYDE WASTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

represent the second X chromosome in females and may be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the number of X chromosomes present in a cell:

A

BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum containing RNA and may represent localized failure of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in infections, poisoning, burns and following chemotherapy:

A

DOHLE BODIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

granulocytes usually contain several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be present singly, or there may be several in one cell. These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES:

A

CHEDIAK-HIGASHI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at ___ and _____ as the temperature lowers.

A

37C; decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Platelets on top of the red cell should not be confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally a ______ surrounding the platelet when it is positioned on top of the RBC.

A

non-staining halo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

ESR: invalid results

A

bubbles and fibrin clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

measure HUMIDITY:

A

HYGROMETERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; _____ because less concentrated solutions will produce lysis of cells.

A

70% to 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s solution are commonly used fixatives for _____.

A

nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

physical agent similar in mechanism to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is also used to accelerate staining, decalcification, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy

A

MICROWAVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE _____. A blue discoloration of _____ crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER. Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh solution.

A

PURE ETHANOL; COPPER SULFATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control:

A

STRIATED, VOLUNTARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to one another at structures called intercalated discs that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic:

A

STRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Smooth muscle consists of collections of fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow, involuntary contractions:

A

NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

cell death produced by the Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE:

A

CASEOUS NECROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Three (3) major changes that are observed in the NUCLEUS: _____, _______ (segmentation and fragmentation) and _____ (dissolution of the nucleus).

A

PYKNOSIS,
KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation and fragmentation),
KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of the nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:

A

CLOUDY SWELLING,
FATTY DEGENERATION,
CELL DEATH OR NECROSIS
and CALCIFICATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

BM aspiration is performed by a physician and may be obtained by:
____ biopsy: most frequently performed method
____ biopsy
____ (entering through the skin) ____ (small object used to remove circular section of tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying marrow is obtained)

A

Needle biopsy;
Surgical biopsy;
Percutaneous TREPHINE biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT SERUM:

A

anti-M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Most common cause of transfusion reactions:

A

CLERICAL ERRORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN:

A

DISCARD THE UNIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of

A

contamination or bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of transfusion reaction:

A

CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

SAGM, ADSOL shelf life:

A

42 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

________ or red blood cells may be performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire

A

REJUVENATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Preparation of leukopoor RBCs:

A

filtering, centrifugation and washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

longest expiration date: RBCs

A

FROZEN RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Component of choice for vWD:

A

CRYOPRECIPITATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED for:

A

NEWBORNS with severe infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Test performed on blood that will be transfused to an acidotic or hypoxic infant:

A

HEMOGLOBIN S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs:

A

CD2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Joining (J) chain:

A

IgM and secretory IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Ig that helps initiate the classical complement pathway:

A

IgM and IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Primary immune response:

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Highest titer in secondary response:

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release histamine:

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test:

A

REAGIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers:

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:

A

HBsAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

First antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV:

A

anti-HBc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns:

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies:

A

chronic active hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22):

A

urinary bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable of mitosis:

A

POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic series:

A

ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:

A

PROMYELOCYTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Appearance of secondary/specific granules:

A

MYELOCYTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Last stage in the granulocytic series capable of mitosis:

A

MYELOCYTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood:

A

BAND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in adult:

A

ILIAC CREST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate counting of:

A

RETICULOCYTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions without destroying the cell:

A

SPLEEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:

A

MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Anemia in sickle cell disease:

A

NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:

A

MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in

A

SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY:

A

PCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia:

A

LYMPHOCYTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

cells in G6PD deficiency

A

BITE CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia:

A

schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:

A

CHLORAMPHENICOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Type of anemia in acute leukemia:

A

NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Hodgkin’s disease:

A

REED-STERNBERG CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Myelofibrosis:

A

TEARDROP RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

DIC is most often associated with M3:

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE MYELOMA:

A

ROULEAUX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Franklin’s disease:

A

GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

TRAP(+):

A

Hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

CD ____: Common ALL (CALLA)

A

CD 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:

A

ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

PT and APTT result in patient with polycythemia:

A

BOTH PROLONGED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

ASPIRIN inhibits

A

CYCLOOXYGENASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS:

A

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:

A

PHOSPHOLIPID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

3Fs:

A

FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Carbohydrate fixation:

A

ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Protein fixation:

A

NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Glycogen fixation: ____ such as Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

A

ALCOHOL-BASED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

A

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Zenker’s fluid:

A

LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s):

A

PITUITARY GLAND, BM, BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Heidenhain’s susa solution:

A

TUMOR BIOPSIES ESPECIALLY SKIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid:

A

CHROMATIN, MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-containing tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates ____ and other bacteria

A

rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

LEAD FIXATIVES:

A

ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

fixation of embryos and pituitary biopsies:

A

BOUIN’S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING ____

A

KIDNEY structures, lipid and mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Glacial acetic acid solidifies at

A

17C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Carnoy’s fluid:

A

CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND URGENT BIOPSIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Newcomer’s fluid:

A

fixing of mucopolysaccharides and nuclear proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

most common and fastest decalcifying agent

A

NITRIC ACID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time

A

PERENYI’S FLUID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

most ideal, most sensitive method for determining the extent of decalcification

A

X-ray or radiological method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Embedding medium for electron microscopy:

A

EPON (PLASTIC MEDIUM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Manual H and E staining:

A

REGRESSIVE STAINING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Flotation water bath: ____, approximately 6-10C lower than the mp of wax

A

45 to 50C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from

A

LICHENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

probably the oldest of all stains

A

IODINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Stain demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

A

JANUS GREEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Stain for the basement membrane:

A

PAS, AZOCARMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Stain for Helicobacter pylori:

A

TOLUIDINE BLUE, CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Mountant refractive index should be as close as possible to that of the glass slide which is

A

1.518

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used animal is the ____ followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others

A

RABBIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES used animal:

A

MICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

A

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does not exceed:

A

150 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Renal threshold for glucose is:

A

160 to 180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

A

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Sternheimer-Malbin stain:

A

CRYSTAL VIOLET AND SAFRANIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Pseudocasts: formed by

A

amorphous urates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Moderate hematuria and RBC casts:

A

ACUTE GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

A

PYELONEPHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Crystals appears in urine as long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid:

A

HIPPURIC ACID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Oval fat bodies:

A

lipid-containing RTE cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

GREATEST PROTEINURIA: (Heavy Proteinuria >4 g/day)

A

NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

A

CALCIUM OXALATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Struvite:

A

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Apatite:

A

CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Limulus lysate test:

A

Gram negative bacterial endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod mobility in

A

WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

GOUT:

A

uric acid or monosodium urate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

PSEUDOGOUT:

A

calcium pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

BEST TEST for determining the status of the fetoplacental unit:

A

SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE:

A

acrosomal deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Most common cause of male infertility:

A

VARICOCELE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY:

A

EOSIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY:

A

Pap’s stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

A

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or _____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).

A

CANNULA (temporary dialysis access device); FISTULA (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Glassware CLEANING SOLUTION:

A

ACID DICHROMATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

______ is used in AAS

A

HOLLOW CATHODE LAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Gaussian (normal) distribution:

A

Mean = median = mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing preanalyzed concentrations of the substances being measured:

A

CONTROL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Material of known composition available in a highly purified form:

A

STANDARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Measuring potassium, antibiotic incorporated into the membrane:

A

VALINOMYCIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Flame color

Sodium:
Lithium:
Potassium:
Rubidium:
Magnesium:

A

Sodium: YELLOW FLAME
Lithium produces a red flame
Potassium a violet flame
Rubidium a red flame
Magnesium a blue flame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Reliable index of intestinal carbohydrate absorption:

A

D-XYLOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Condensation of glucose with aromatic amine in hot glacial acetic acid solution to produce a green-colored product:

A

O-TOLUIDINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

REFERENCE METHOD for glucose:

A

HEXOKINASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Split in the albumin band:

A

BISALBUMINEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Compound normally found in urine that may be used to assess the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection:

A

CREATININE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Myocardial infarction: ___ then ___ then ___

A

CK then AST then LD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Specimen of choice for analysis of acid-base disturbances:

A

ARTERIAL BLOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis:

A

HEPARIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Symptom of HYPOCALCEMIA:

A

TETANY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Calcium and phosphate metabolism is regulated by the:

A

PARATHYROID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

In the blood, bicarbonate leaves the RBCs and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with:

A

CHLORIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Major mineralocorticoid:

A

ALDOSTERONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Adrenal medulla secretes this hormone in the greatest quantity:

A

EPINEPHRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Hollander insulin test is used to confirm:

A

VAGOTOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Most potent estrogen:

A

ESTRADIOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Assay to monitor the fetoplacental unit:

A

ESTRIOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Hormone associated with galactorrhea, pituitary adenoma, and amenorrhea:

A

PROLACTIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by elevation of:

A

GASTRIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Conn’s disease: _____ caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or hyperplasia

A

PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Increased 5-HIAA: ________, carcinoid tumor composed of argentaffin cells. Carcinoid tumors are usually found in the intestine or lung.

A

ARGENTAFFINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:

A

TYROSINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration:

A

liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (LADME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Route of drug administration associated with 100% bioavailability:

A

INTRAVENOUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

TRINDER REACTION:

A

SALICYLATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is particularly toxic to the

A

LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Increased trough levels of AMINOGLYCOSIDES in the serum are often associated with toxic effects to the _____

A

KIDNEY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Aminoglycoside: ______ (toxic to ______) and _____ (damage _____)

A

NEPHROTOXIC, KIDNEYS; OTOTOXIC, EARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Specimen appropriate for determining exposure to lead:

A

WHOLE BLOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

HEROIN is synthesized from

A

MORPHINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

is the principal active component of MARIJUANA

A

TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

ODOR OF BITTER ALMONDS:

A

CYANIDE POISONING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth. ARSENIC HAS HIGH AFFINITY TO _____. Analysis of urine, hair, and nails, using ion emission spectroscopy, is important for the diagnosis of chronic ARSENIC poisoning (Henry).

A

KERATIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

Total renal BLOOD flow:

A

1,200 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Total renal PLASMA flow:

A

600 to 700 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Glomerulus serves as nonselective filter (SIEVE) of plasma substances with MW of less than

A

70,000 daltons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Serum osmolarity:

A

275 to 300 mOsm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Urine osmolarity range:

A

50 and 1,400 mOsm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Normal person excretes approximately _______ in the form of titratable acid (H+) or ammonium ions (NH4+)

A

70 mEq/day of acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Urine volume range ______ in 24 hours

A

600 to 2,000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Urine volume average _____ in 24 hours

A

1,200 to 1,500 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Normal random urine pH:

A

pH 4.5 to 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

First morning urine pH:

A

5 to 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

1 g/dL protein, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by

A

0.003

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

1 g/dL glucose, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by

A

0.004

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Calibration of refractometer using distilled water:

A

1.000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Calibration of refractometer using 5% NaCl:

A

1.022 ± 0.001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Urine protein:

A

less than 10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hours (Henry less than 150mg/24 hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Significant AER:

A

20 to 200 ug/min or 30 to 300 mg albumin/24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Renal threshold for glucose is

A

160 to 180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Ketones:__ BHA, ___ AAA and___ Acetone

A

78% BHA
20% AAA
2% Acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Concentration of myoglobin must be at least _____ before a red pigmentation can be visualized

A

25 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Ehrlich’s units (EU) are ____ to mg/dL

A

EQUAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Normal values for the Addis count: ______ RBCs, ______ WBCs and epithelial cells and _______ hyaline casts in a 12-hour urine

A

0 to 500,000 RBCs, 0 to 1,800,000 WBCs, 0 to 5,000 hyaline casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Centrifugation for urine microscopic exam:

A

400 RCF for 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Volume of sediment, glass slide method 20 uL or 0.02 mL covered by _____ coverslip

A

22 x 22 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

_____ RTE cells/hpf indicates tubular injury and specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing

A

More than 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

Approximately ____ of CSF is produced every hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi

A

20 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

CSF
Total volume in adult:

A

newer edition Strasinger 90 to 150 mL
(old edition 140 to 170 mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

CSF
Total volume in neonate:

A

10 to 60 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

CSF
Normal adult CSF: WBCs/uL

A

0 to 5 WBCs/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

CSF
Neonates: WBCs/uL

A

0 to 30 WBCs/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Reactive lymphocytes in CSF

A

viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50 WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of:

A

MS or other degenerating neurologic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

Increased eosinophils in CSF:

A

parasitic infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

CSF glucose is approximately ____ that of plasma glucose

A

60 to 70 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Normal CSF protein:

A

15 to 45 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF:

A

8 to 18 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Liquefaction within

A

30 to 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Seminal fluid Volume

A

2 to 5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

Seminal fluid pH

A

7.2 to 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

Sperm morphology: should be evaluated

A

at least 200 sperms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

Sperm viability test:

A

Modified Bloom’s (eosin-nigrosin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

Sperm Motility is evaluate in approximately

A

20 high-power fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

Sperm concentration:

A

newer edition Strasinger >20 M to 250 M per mL (old edition: 20 M to 160 M per mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

Sperm count

A

≥ 40 M per ejaculate*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

Most common dilution is ___ prepared using a MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette

391
Q

Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0 after 1 hour is considered

392
Q

Fructose per ejaculate

A

≥ 13 umol

393
Q

Specimens for fructose should be tested within _____ to prevent fructolysis

A

2 hours or FROZEN

394
Q

RAPE, presence of sperm:
- Enhancing specimen with ____ and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY
- ACP
- Seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in the absence of sperm
- ABO, DNA

395
Q

Motile sperm can be detected for up to ___ after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can persist for ___. As the sperm die off, only the heads remain and may be present for 7 days after intercourse.

A

24 hours;
3 days

396
Q

Synovial Fluid Volume

A

less than 3.5 mL

397
Q

Synovial Fluid Normal:

A

clear and pale yellow

398
Q

Synovial Fluid able to form

A

4 to 6 cm string

399
Q

Synovial Fluid RBC/uL

A

Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL

400
Q

Synovial Fluid WBC/uL

A

Less than 200 WBCs/uL

401
Q

Synovial Fluid Glucose less than ____ lower than the blood glucose

402
Q

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

Most reliable differentiation:

A

Fluid-to-blood ratios for protein and LD

403
Q

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

WBC counts greater than _____ and RBC counts greater than _____ are indicative of an exudate

A

1,000/uL; 100,000/uL

404
Q

Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information that the fluid is an ____

405
Q

Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or more indicates the presence of an ____

406
Q

Pleural fluid pH lower than__ may indicate the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is allowing the influx of gastric fluid

407
Q

RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are indicative of

A

BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES

408
Q

Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL and the count increases with

A

bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis

409
Q

CA 125 antigen, source is from

A

OVARIES, FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM

410
Q

Large intestine is capable of absorbing approximately ____ of water

411
Q

Most representative, for fecal fats; ___-day stool collection

412
Q

Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes. Only ______ fibers are counted, and the presence of more than 10 is reported as increased

A

undigested

413
Q

Bleeding in excess of _______ of stool is considered pathologically significant

A

2.5 mL/150 gram

414
Q

Normal stool pH is between

415
Q

pH below 5.5 in cases of

A

CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS

416
Q

SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy, and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as infection or anemia.

A

Complete Blood Count

417
Q

Hematocrit:

amount of plasma that still remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias, spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and sickle cell anemia:

A

TRAPPED PLASMA

418
Q

Hematocrit:

When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit results vary from ___ HIGHER because of this trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been calibrated).

A

1 to 3% HIGHER

419
Q

Hematocrit:

Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged within____ of collection when the blood is stored at room temperature.

420
Q

Hematocrit:

Overanticoagulation: FALSELY ___ due to shrinkage of cells

A

FALSELY LOW

421
Q

Hematocrit:

______ denote poor technique but do not affect the results

A

Air bubbles

422
Q

Hematocrit:

Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit tubes: FALSELY ___

A

FALSELY LOW

423
Q

Hematocrit:

Inadequate centrifugation of the microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand longer than several minutes after centrifugation: FALSELY ___

A

FALSELY ELEVATED

424
Q

Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a decimal point, e.g., 0.42.

425
Q

WBC count:

Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed

A

LEUKOCYTOSIS

426
Q

WBC count:

Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes (Brown) to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing [Rodak 10 minutes] PLEASE FOLLOW RODAK, 10 MINUTES.

427
Q

WBC count:

Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation between the four squares

428
Q

Platelet count:

Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found when there is

A

marked thrombocytopenia

429
Q

Platelet count:

EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased MPV

430
Q

Platelet count:

If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of whole blood, platelets may ______, causing invalidly higher count

A

SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT

431
Q

Platelet count:

Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet count must be completed within 30 minutes of diluting in order to ensure against platelet _________

A

DISINTEGRATION

432
Q

Platelet count:

1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for ____

433
Q

ESR:

Macrocytes tend to settle ___ rapidly than microcytes

A

more rapidly

434
Q

ESR:
Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely ____ ESR

A

falsely lower

435
Q

ESR:
Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate

436
Q

ESR:
In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED
The ESR of patients with severe anemia is of little diagnostic value, because it will be falsely elevated.

437
Q

Sugar water test:
Citrated whole blood

438
Q

Sugar water test:
In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly increased in PNH negative specimens

439
Q

Sugar water test:
Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs

440
Q

Sugar water test:
Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of obtaining the specimen

441
Q

Sucrose hemolysis test:
Citrated whole blood

442
Q

Sucrose hemolysis test:
Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in leukemia or myelosclerosis

443
Q

Sucrose hemolysis test:
PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis

444
Q

Acid serum test:
Whole blood defibrinated

445
Q

Acid serum test:
When patient has received blood transfusions, less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal transfused red blood cells

446
Q

Thyroxine conversion factor (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9

447
Q

X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT VARIABLES

448
Q

Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES

449
Q

UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive, lacks specificity]

450
Q

UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater specificity, more expensive]

451
Q

CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple, nonspecific]

452
Q

CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid, increased specificity]

453
Q

CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]

454
Q

URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with turbidity, several common drugs interfere]

455
Q

URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special instrumentation and optical cells]

456
Q

URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by reducing substances]

457
Q

Constituents of a number of common foods, including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)

458
Q

Laboratory personnel should be aware of the MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES, AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.

459
Q

Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan Taenia

460
Q

Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine orange

461
Q

Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf

462
Q

Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported per lpf

463
Q

Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH

464
Q

Infective stage of Leishmania to man: PROMASTIGOTE

465
Q

Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man: TRYPOMASTIGOTE

466
Q

Infective stage of Plasmodia to man: SPOROZOITES

467
Q

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis: ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS

468
Q

When an accident involving electrical shock occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED IMMEDIATELY.

469
Q

URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening

470
Q

POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults

471
Q

OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults

472
Q

Yellow-orange specimen caused by the administration of phenazopyridine (brand name Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange and viscous urine]

473
Q

CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate, sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium hydroxide

474
Q

ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine, disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The addition of lactose gives better color differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30 seconds, a new tablet should be used.

475
Q

Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the temperature reaches 100°C.

476
Q

Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE PHOTOMETRY

477
Q

Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF THE COVER SLIP

478
Q

Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per LPF

479
Q

Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF

480
Q

RTE CELLS REPORTING: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS

481
Q

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB tests (+) thick, white turbidity

482
Q

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining spot test: BLUE SPOT

483
Q

Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF

484
Q

Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated bilirubin: YELLOW CSF

485
Q

Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF

486
Q

Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD

487
Q

Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY with mucus

488
Q

Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.

489
Q

Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf

490
Q

Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf

491
Q

Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf

492
Q

Many: >200 bacteria/hpf

493
Q

First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER

494
Q

Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA

495
Q

Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT

496
Q

Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS

497
Q

Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS

498
Q

LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L

499
Q

Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE

500
Q

Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY

501
Q

KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like projections

502
Q

ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE

503
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS

504
Q

Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR

505
Q

Restriction fragment length polymorphism: MOLECULAR

506
Q

Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M

507
Q

Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such agglutinin, calling its antigen I for “individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.

508
Q

For patients with history of FEBRILE NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs

509
Q

Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM

510
Q

CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular studies.

511
Q

Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY BLADDER CANCER

512
Q

CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible in the results window, indicating that the specimen contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the intensity of the test band may vary with different specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands should be interpreted as a positive result.

513
Q

CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at T and a black or gray band is visible at the C position, the test can be considered negative, indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not present.

514
Q

CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C position, the test is invalid. The test should be repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

515
Q

CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be collected 48 hours later and tested again using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

516
Q

The standard screening method for HIV antibody has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory test is the Western blot.

517
Q

Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have also been developed.

518
Q

HBs ag: active infection

519
Q

HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF INFECTIVITY

520
Q

IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis B

521
Q

Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B

522
Q

Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B

523
Q

Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B

524
Q

HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy

525
Q

ITIS: inflammation

526
Q

Length: METER

527
Q

Mass: KILOGRAM

528
Q

Time: SECONDS

529
Q

Quantity of mass: MOLE

530
Q

Electric current: AMPERE

531
Q

Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN

532
Q

Luminous intensity: CANDELA

533
Q

Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS

534
Q

Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF THE INSTRUMENT

535
Q

POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing

536
Q

POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)

537
Q

Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T

538
Q

The bacteriological examination of water consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)

539
Q

Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH

540
Q

Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON EMB/ENDO AGAR

541
Q

Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING BACILLI

542
Q

Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is LATENCY

543
Q

Reoviruses: derivation of the word: R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)

544
Q

ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever

545
Q

CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells, bronchial asthma

546
Q

ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of Chlamydia

547
Q

SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms, chromoblastomycosis

548
Q

ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), sporotrichosis

549
Q

NEGRI BODIES: rabies

550
Q

GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus

551
Q

OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus

552
Q

PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric striations of collagen-like materials, benign conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma

553
Q

KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

554
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS

555
Q

In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the increase in NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-STOOL” appearance.

556
Q

PROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hypertrophy - increase in size of an organ due to an increase in size of individual cells

557
Q

PROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hyperplasia - increase in size of an organ due to increase in number of cells

558
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hypoplasia - failure of an organ to reach mature size

559
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Aplasia - organ is represented only by mass of fatty or fibrous nodule

560
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Agenesia - complete non-appearance of an organ

561
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Atresia - failure of an organ to form an opening

562
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Atrophy - ACQUIRED decrease in size of a normally sized organ

563
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Dysplasia - change in size, shape and orientation of cell

564
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Metaplasia - change from one adult cell type to another

565
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Anaplasia or Dedifferentiation - change to a more primitive or embryonic cell type

566
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Neoplasia or Tumor - continuous abnormal proliferation of cells

567
Q

MALIGNANT TUMOR:
Carcinoma - malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin

568
Q

MALIGNANT TUMOR:
Sarcoma - malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin

569
Q

PRIMARY SIGNS OF DEATH (3)
Respiratory, circulatory and nervous failure

570
Q

SECONDARY SIGNS OF DEATH (7)
Algor mortis - cooling
Rigor mortis - stiffening
Liver mortis - purplish discoloration
Desiccation
Putrefaction
Postmortem clotting
Autolysis

571
Q

CLASS SYSTEM
Class I - absence of atypical cytologic picture
Class II - atypical cytologic picture but no evidence of malignancy
Class III - cytologic picture SUGGESTIVE BUT NOT CONCLUSIVE of malignancy
Class IV - cytologic picture STRONGLY SUGGESTIVE of malignancy
Class V - cytologic picture CONCLUSIVE of malignancy.

572
Q

Visceral larva migrans (VLM): Toxocara cati, Toxocari canis

573
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM): Ancylostoma braziliense, A. caninum

574
Q

Infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva: HOOKWORM

575
Q

Infective stage is the unsheathed filariform larva: THREADWORM

576
Q

Semilunar cutting plates, BIPARTITE bursa: NECATOR AMERICANUS

577
Q

Two pairs of teeth, TRIPARTITE bursa: ANCYLOSTOMA DUODENALE

578
Q

Alkaline phosphatase immunoassay (APIA) for Schistosoma antibodies

579
Q

NON-OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: SCHISTOSOMA eggs

580
Q

OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: HETEROPHYES, OPISTORCHISand CLONORCHIS eggs

581
Q

Clonorchis, Opistorchis and Heterophyid egg CANNOT be differentiated under an ordinary light microscope.

582
Q

OPERCULATED AND IMMATURE (unembryonated) when laid: FASCIOLA, FASCIOLOPSIS, PARAGONIMUS and ECHINOSTOMA eggs

583
Q

Amoebic LIVER abscess (ALA) is the most common extra-intestinal form of amoebiasis

584
Q

Entamoeba polecki cyst: consistently UNINUCLEATED (1 NUCLEUS)

585
Q

ACHROMATIC karyosomal granules: IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII

586
Q

Amoeboflagellate: NAEGLERIA

587
Q

Granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis: ACANTHAMOEBA

588
Q

Gay bowel syndrome: G. LAMBLIA

589
Q

Entero-string/String test: G. LAMBLIA

590
Q

K39 and FAST (Fast Agglutination Screening Test) for Leishmania

591
Q

Rupture of RBCs every 72 hours: P. MALARIAE

592
Q

Band trophozoite: P. MALARIAE

593
Q

Amoeboid trophozoite: P. VIVAX

594
Q

Crescent-shaped gametocytes: P. FALCIPARUM

595
Q

Cyclospora cayetanensis: cyanobacterium-like body (CLB)

596
Q

Circumoval Precipitin Test (COPT) SCHISTOSOMES

597
Q

Sabin Feldman Dye test: TOXOPLASMA

598
Q

Sheather sugar flotation technique: CRYPTOSPORIDIUM

599
Q

Stool preservatives: formalin, Schaudinn’s solution, PVA (polyvinyl alcohol), MIF (merthiolate-iodine-formalin) and SAF (sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin)

600
Q

Fecal concentration procedure (formalin-ether/ethyl acetate) FOUR LAYERS a) top layer of ether or ethyl acetate, b) a plug of fatty debris adherent to the wall of the tube, c) layer of formalin, and d) sediment.

601
Q

DELAFIELD HEMATOXYLIN stain is mainly useful in demonstrating the detailed structures of MICROFILARIAE.

602
Q

Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 0.179

603
Q

Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 17.1

604
Q

Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to nmol/L): 12.9

605
Q

Specimen collection & processing: Pre-analytical QA

606
Q

Long-term accuracy of analytical methods: External QC

607
Q

Abrupt change: Shift

608
Q

Gradual change: Trend

609
Q

One control value exceeds +2s and another exceeds -2s: R4s

610
Q

2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean +2s or -2s: 2:2s

611
Q

Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller increase in sample temperature, quicker sedimentation of small particles, and operated over higher speed

612
Q

Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the SD of 2 groups of data: f-test

613
Q

Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of 2 groups of data: t-test

614
Q

Sample of known quantity with several analytes.: Control

615
Q

Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass: Heparin

616
Q

Basal state collection: Early morning blood collection

617
Q

Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching: Fluorometry

618
Q

Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and reference beam: Double – beam in space

619
Q

Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin- Wu, Nelson Somogyi

620
Q

Chemical method for glucose, still widely used: Ortho-toluidine, condensation method

621
Q

Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top: Standing plasma test

622
Q

Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100

623
Q

Transports exogenous triglycerides: Chylomicrons

624
Q

Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL

625
Q

Highest cholesterol content: LDL

626
Q

One step method for cholesterol determination: Liebermann - Burchardt

627
Q

Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method of cholesterol determination

628
Q

CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error): ≤ 4%

629
Q

Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor lamp: Enzymatic: UV

630
Q

Greater specificity and more expensive BUN assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation

631
Q

Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine determination : Colorimetric: end point

632
Q

Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-renal

633
Q

Test used to assess the ability to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile: SERUM BILIRUBIN LEVELS

634
Q

Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple myeloma

635
Q

Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis

636
Q

Reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration: First-order kinetics

637
Q

Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary glands: Amylase

638
Q

Clinically significant if decreased: Cholinesterase

639
Q

Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate

640
Q

Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride

641
Q

Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system: CARBON DIOXIDE

642
Q

Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship: Reciprocal

643
Q

Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose suppression test

644
Q

Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH

645
Q

T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased

646
Q

Begins with patient identification and continues until testing is completed and the results are reported : Chain of custody

647
Q

Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus tests

648
Q

Method of choice for measuring antidepressants: HPLC

649
Q

Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS

650
Q

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates & Carbamates

651
Q

Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen ions: Acid

652
Q

Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl ions: Base

653
Q

Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen ions: Base

654
Q

Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl ions: Acid

655
Q

Comparing patient’s results with previous results: Delta check

656
Q

POCT is most often performed by nurses, perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and physician themselves.

657
Q

Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl): Urobilinogen

658
Q

Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin: Blondheim’s test

659
Q

Degree of Hazard 1: Slight hazard

660
Q

Degree of Hazard 2: Moderate hazard

661
Q

Degree of Hazard 3: Serious hazard

662
Q

Degree of Hazard 4: Extreme hazard

663
Q

Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or 20 sec , 6th ed), downward

664
Q

When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention

665
Q

Preservative of choice for urine cytology studies: Saccomano’s fixative

666
Q

Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon sample (2-4pm)

667
Q

Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry place

668
Q

Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium nitroprusside

669
Q

Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl

670
Q

Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria

671
Q

Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader: Reflectance photometry

672
Q

Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells, amorphous phosphates, carbonates

673
Q

Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic fluid

674
Q

Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES

675
Q

Cause a white precipitate following specimen refrigeration: Amorphous phosphates

676
Q

Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF

677
Q

Telescoped sediment: Elements of glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome

678
Q

Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic urine

679
Q

Formation of casts: Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy

680
Q

Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin

681
Q

Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin, tyrosine, leucine

682
Q

Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like, Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes

683
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)

684
Q

Most frequent parasite encountered in urine: Trichomonas vaginalis

685
Q

Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova

686
Q

Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with methylene blue

687
Q

Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA and SSA

688
Q

Positive for pellicle clot formation: Tubercular meningitis

689
Q

Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in serum → Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis

690
Q

Semen fructose test is not tested within 2 hours: Specimen must be FROZEN

691
Q

Reagent used in Florence test which detects choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine

692
Q

Used to assess sperm cell velocity and trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)

693
Q

Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5 ml

694
Q

Normal synovial fluid glucose: <10mg/dl lower than blood glucose

695
Q

Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies

696
Q

Type of effusion caused by congestive heart failure: Transudate

697
Q

Sputum: Not a normal body fluid, tracheobronchial secretions

698
Q

Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic carinii in immunocompromised patients: Bronchoalveolar lavage

699
Q

Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP, acetylcholinesterase

700
Q

Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity: measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION

701
Q

Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM

702
Q

Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL DEATH

703
Q

Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH MUCUS

704
Q

Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity: DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST

705
Q

Collagen-like material with concentric striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas: PSAMMOMA BODIES

706
Q

Melena: BLACK AND TARRY STOOL

707
Q

Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II

708
Q

HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria, fungi)

709
Q

Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max. 3 BAILEY’S) at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours

710
Q

Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw, and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized

711
Q

Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA

712
Q

Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello

713
Q

Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as disinfectant: 3% H2O2

714
Q

MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine

715
Q

Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated by: Organic substances

716
Q

Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain instead of methylene, AFB

717
Q

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic, anti-complement

718
Q

Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS, Simmon’s citrate agar

719
Q

Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, B. pertussis

720
Q

Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)

721
Q

Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide, phenylethyl alcohol

722
Q

Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate test

723
Q

Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus, coagglutination

724
Q

Slime layer production: Staphylococcus epidermidis

725
Q

Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes

726
Q

Colonies with ground glass appearance: Legionella (Mahon)

727
Q

Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium

728
Q

Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma

729
Q

Benchmarking: Comparison with peers

730
Q

Histoplasma cross-reacts with: Blastomyces, Aspergillus and Coccidioides

731
Q

Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue

732
Q

Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus

733
Q

African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii

734
Q

Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ tube test

735
Q

Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans: Cornmeal agar

736
Q

Candidiasis infection affecting the oral cavity: Thrush

737
Q

General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s dextrose agar

738
Q

Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel: Coccidioides immitis

739
Q

Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds to cell wall: Calcofluor white

740
Q

Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies

741
Q

Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis

742
Q

Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body

743
Q

Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus

744
Q

Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus

745
Q

Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus

746
Q

Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)

747
Q

Cross reactive antigen in all human adenoviruses: Hexon

748
Q

Gastroenteritis in children during winter months: Rotavirus

749
Q

Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults: Norovirus

750
Q

Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate

751
Q

Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human fibroblast cells

752
Q

True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba

753
Q

Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell: Entamoeba histolytica

754
Q

Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba gingivalis

755
Q

Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis

756
Q

Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule

757
Q

Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum: Plerocercoid larva

758
Q

Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult: Spirometra

759
Q

Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by ALCOHOL

760
Q

Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick radial striations

761
Q

Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes

762
Q

Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 – 1.5 inches

763
Q

Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle (15 degree angle)

764
Q

The distance of drop of blood from the edge of the slide: 1 cm

765
Q

Blood production outside the bone marrow: EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis

766
Q

Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34

767
Q

Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD 10

768
Q

Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line: Dithionate solubility test

769
Q

Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris: Burkitt’s lymphoma

770
Q

Granules (tertiary granules) present in Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase

771
Q

Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for fibrinolysis

772
Q

Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening test

773
Q

Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW

774
Q

Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW

775
Q

In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin

776
Q

Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve lavender

777
Q

Patient with PNH received blood transfusion: Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs transfused

778
Q

Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture plugs (most common)

779
Q

Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing of RBCs

780
Q

Instrumental error that is either a positive or negative error: Improper setting of aperture current or threshold

781
Q

Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots: Petechiae

782
Q

Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and mucous membrane: Purpura

783
Q

Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis

784
Q

Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction

785
Q

Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx

786
Q

Contains microtubules that maintains platelet shape: Sol-gel zone

787
Q

Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL: Slight decrease

788
Q

Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low normal

789
Q

Labile factors: Factors V and VIII

790
Q

Prematurely activates at cold temperature: Factors VII FXI

791
Q

Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII, IX, X

792
Q

Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time: 6 – 10 minutes

793
Q

Christmas factor: Factor IX

794
Q

Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency

795
Q

Platelet estimate of 401,000 to 599,000/µl: Slight increase

796
Q

Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL: Moderate increase

797
Q

A surgical connection between to structures, it usually means a connection that is created between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS

798
Q

Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are frequently derived from: RABBIT

799
Q

Most rapid of the common freezing agents: LIQUID NITROGEN

800
Q

General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered formalin

801
Q

Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol saline or formaldehyde vapor

802
Q

Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol and Carnoy’s solution

803
Q

Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20 times the tissue volume.

804
Q

Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1

805
Q

Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less than 10 times the volume of tissue

806
Q

Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol

807
Q

Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper sulfate

808
Q

Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper sulfate

809
Q

Clearing: Dealcoholization

810
Q

Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum embedding

811
Q

Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate, clear, and infiltrate

812
Q

Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN SECTION

813
Q

ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or fixed tissues.

814
Q

Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium salts = black

815
Q

Red chromogen for peroxidases: Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)

816
Q

Brown chromogen for peroxidases: Diaminobenzidine (DAB)

817
Q

Administrative investigation:2 members of board + 1 legal officer

818
Q

Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education: CMO no. 14 s. 2006

819
Q

Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008

820
Q

STAT, STATIM: Immediately

821
Q

Biodegradable wastes: Green bag

822
Q

CC Bishop
REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL AND TRIGLYCERIDES: GC-MS
CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS
TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️ GC-MS

823
Q

CC Bishop
CHOLESTEROL MEASUREMENT

In the past, the reference method for cholesterol involved hexane extraction after hydrolysis with alcoholic KOH followed by reaction with Liebermann-Burchard color reagent, which comprises sulfuric and acetic acids and acetic anhydride.

Recently, the reference method has changed to a gas chromatography–mass spectrometry (GC–MS) method that now specifically measures cholesterol and does not detect related sterols.

824
Q

CC Bishop
TRIGLYCERIDE MEASUREMENT

Like the reference method for cholesterol, the CDC has recently switched to a GC–MS method that involves the hydrolysis of fatty acids on triglycerides and the measurement of glycerol.

825
Q

Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine (50 ml-container capacity)

826
Q

Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-container capacity)

827
Q

Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine (Gregorios)

828
Q

Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle

829
Q

Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90 degrees for femoral artery)

830
Q

Before blood is collected from the radial artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation to the hand after the radial artery puncture.

831
Q

Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection: eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not recommended for bacteriology (organisms can contaminate specimen)

832
Q

Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5 ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture, anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.

833
Q

Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin, make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin, reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20 degrees

834
Q

Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2 (heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30 min)

835
Q

C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and continuous assessment of beta cell function

836
Q

Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM, ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs

837
Q

Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM

838
Q

Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van Handel and Zilversmith

839
Q

CDC reference method for TAG: Modified van Handel and Zilversmith ➡️GC-MS

840
Q

Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch condensation

841
Q

Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS

842
Q

Smallest but the most dense: HDL

843
Q

Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT deficiency: Lipoprotein X

844
Q

Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL

845
Q

Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)

846
Q

Triglycerides, LDLc: FASTING 12 to 14 hours

847
Q

Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL – VLDL

848
Q

Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175

849
Q

De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825

850
Q

Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5

851
Q

De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5

852
Q

ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol: LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)

853
Q

One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry (Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)

854
Q

Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction (Bloors)

855
Q

Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E + Saponification (Abell-Kendall)

856
Q

Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S + Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and Jung)

857
Q

REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)

858
Q

REFERENCE METHOD FOR TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)

859
Q

TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and significantly reduced

860
Q

Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and XI (seven, eleven)

861
Q

Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V and VIII (five, eight)

862
Q

Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore

863
Q

Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore

864
Q

Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1 mm bore (1.2 mm)

865
Q

Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g for 30 minutes

866
Q

Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for 5 minutes (five minutes)

867
Q

Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss, hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia

868
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia

869
Q

Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

870
Q

Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR

871
Q

Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

872
Q

Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

873
Q

Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased ESR

874
Q

Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

875
Q

Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

876
Q

Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN

877
Q

Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot: FIBROMETER

878
Q

Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE, Ortho-Koagulab

879
Q

Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and azocarmine

879
Q

Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED PHASE CONTRAST microscope

880
Q

Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid (like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin

881
Q

Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it includes a differentiation step

882
Q

Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain

883
Q

Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic stain

884
Q

Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s stain

885
Q

Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)

886
Q

Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus

887
Q

OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells (superficial cells)

888
Q

EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)

889
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong “Emergence of the Profession” (1963-1967)

890
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Nardito D. Moraleta “Professional Recognition” (1967-1970)

891
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Felix E. Asprer “Legislative Agenda” (1970-1971, 1973-1976)

892
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Bernardo T. Tabaosares “Celebration of the Practice” (1971-1973)

893
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Angelina R. Jose “Career Advocacy” (1973)

894
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA) “Educational Enhancement” (1977-1981)

895
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Carmencita P. Acedera “Image Building” (1982-1991)

896
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Marilyn R. Atienza “Proactivism” (1992-1996)

897
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Norma N. Chang “International Leadership” (1997-2000)

898
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Agnes B. Medenilla “Organizational Dynamism” (2001-2002, 2005-2006)

899
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Shirley F. Cruzada “Interdisciplinary Networking” (2003-2004)

900
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Leila M. Florento “Beyond Expectations” (2007-2012)

901
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio “Soar Higher through V.O.I.C.E.” Visibility, Oneness, Integrity, Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)

902
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-2020)

903
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Rommel Saceda (2020-2022)

904
Q

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
CURRENT PAMET PRESIDENT IS MA’AM LUELLA VERTUCIO (2020 to present)

905
Q

FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO

906
Q

PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15, 1963

907
Q

PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco

908
Q

PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares, Jr.

909
Q

Current PAMET President: Ma’am Luella Vertucio

910
Q

Current PASMETH President: Dean Jose Jurel Nuevo

911
Q

Board of MT Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza

912
Q

Board of MT Member: Ma’am Leila Lani Florento

913
Q

PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora

914
Q

DOH SECRETARY Dr. Teodoro Herbosa

915
Q

BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA

916
Q

CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica

917
Q

CCFA: C. difficile

918
Q

BCYE medium: Legionella

919
Q

HBT medium: Gardnerella

920
Q

ssDNA: Parvovirus

921
Q

dsRNA: Reovirus

922
Q

Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)

923
Q

Acid-resistant: Enterovirus

924
Q

Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus

925
Q

KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

926
Q

Measles: RUBEOLA

927
Q

German measles: RUBELLA

928
Q

Chickenpox: VARICELLA

929
Q

Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE

930
Q

Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth: ARSERNIC

931
Q

A blood alcohol level in the range of 80 mg/dL has been established as the statutory limit for operation of a motor vehicle in the United States.

This is associated with a diminution of judgment and motor performance.

The determination of blood ethanol concentration by the laboratory in cases of drunk driving requires an appropriate chain of custody, documentation of quality control, and proficiency testing records.

932
Q

Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2

933
Q

Amperometry: measurement of pO2

934
Q

High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC

935
Q

Visible region: 400 to 700 nm

936
Q

UV region <400 nm

937
Q

Infrared region > 700 nm

938
Q

Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%

939
Q

Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%

940
Q

HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%

941
Q

OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m. [ASIA-PACIFIC 25]

942
Q

Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.

943
Q

Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.

944
Q

BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active

945
Q

STAT for the Latin word statim meaning immediately. Tests that fall into this category include:
Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis
Some drug levels such as theophylline
Amylase in suspected pancreatitis
CK in suspected MI
Hematocrit
Blood gases
Potassium

946
Q

CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of analytes that truly do have the potential to be lethal if unchecked for a short period.

947
Q

SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of vitamin B12 absorption

948
Q

Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation system and fibrinolytic system.

949
Q

OSMOLALITY
Osmolality = 2Na + ( Glucose/20 ) + ( BUN/3 )
Osmolality = 1.86Na + ( Glucose/18 ) +
( BUN/2.8 ) + 9

950
Q

ANION GAP (AG)
AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)

951
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Uric acid is alkali soluble

952
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat

953
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl

954
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic acid

955
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid

956
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid

957
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with heat

958
Q

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid

959
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl

960
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform

961
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol

962
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat

963
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH, ether and chloroform

964
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Sulfonamides soluble in acetone

965
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH

966
Q

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Ampicillin crystals form bundles when refrigerated

967
Q

F. tularensis is a very small, strictly aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE for growth

968
Q

Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar supplemented with growth factors, including L-CYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.

969
Q

Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic, nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and usually METHIONINE for growth.

970
Q

MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of skill by a health-care professional that results in injury to the patient.

971
Q

NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be proven in a malpractice suit.

972
Q

SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for the determination of circulating concentrations of most drugs.

973
Q

Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas the blood sample provides only a quick picture of the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE, CALBREATH

974
Q

CHAIN OF CUSTODY
Processing steps for such specimens—initial collection, transportation, storage, and analytical testing— must be documented by careful record keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been no tampering with the specimen by any interested parties, that the specimen has been collected from the appropriate person, and that the results reported are accurate.

Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING, TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented; this is called the chain of custody.

975
Q

RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted synovium.

976
Q

OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).

977
Q

PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark, eosinophil granules are gray, not orange.
CAUSES: Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common), inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized blood sample.

978
Q

PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs are barely visible.
CAUSES: Stain or buffer too acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short), over-rinsing.

979
Q

HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.

980
Q

CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).

981
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Formaldehyde – for Addis count

982
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine, catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid

983
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone

984
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)

985
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin

986
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total nitrogen

987
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Chloroform – for aldosterone

988
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other inorganic constituents

989
Q

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis

990
Q

TYPES OF HUMAN STEM CELLS
Functionally, three types of human stem cells exist:
1. Totipotential stem cells
These cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized.
Totipotential stem cells, the most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus.
2. Pluripotential stem cells
These cells are present several days after fertilization.
Pluripotent stem cells can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus.
3. Multipotential stem cells
These cells are derived from pluripotent stem cells.
They can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues.
For example, bone marrow stem cells can produce all types of blood cells, bone cartilage, and adipose (fat) cells.

991
Q

Rheumatic fever, which is manifested by fever, endocarditis (inflammation of heart muscle), subcutaneous nodules, and polyarthritis, usually follows respiratory tract infections and is thought to be mediated by antibodies produced against S. pyogenes M protein that cross-react with human heart tissue.

Acute glomerulonephritis, characterized by edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria, can follow respiratory or cutaneous infections and is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in glomeruli, where they initiate damage.

992
Q

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR: 1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999 2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995 3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

993
Q

Additional information: FUNCTIONS OF THE DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD - The Dangerous Drugs Board. – The Board shall be the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control.

994
Q

Highest CK

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

995
Q

Highest LD

A

Pernicious anemia

996
Q

Killer immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR) system. KIRs are one of several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes. Alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.

A

Noted, these alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.