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MT review > Assessment HISTOMTLE > Flashcards

Assessment HISTOMTLE Flashcards

1
Q

This type of epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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2
Q

Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

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3
Q

It forms the linings of the urinary bladder, the ureters and part of the urethra (organs which are subject to considerable stretching):

Stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium

A

Transitional epithelium

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4
Q

Long, cylindrical and multinucleate, they have obvious striations, and can be controlled voluntarily:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

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5
Q

Uninucleate branching cells that fight tightly together at junctions called intercalated disks:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Cardiac muscle

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6
Q

With single nucleus and are spindle-shaped, no striations are visible:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Visceral muscle

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7
Q

What is the stem cell precursor of most connective tissues?

Macrophage
Mesenchymal
Adipocytes
Plasma cells

A

Mesenchymal

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8
Q

Elastic cartilage EXCEPT:

Intervertebral discs
External ear
Walls of the Eustachian tubes
Epiglottis

A

Intervertebral discs

Intervertebral discs: FIBROCARTILAGE

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9
Q

Which one of the listed statements is the best histologic definition of an
abscess?

A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris
A localized defect that results from the sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue
from the surface of an organ
A localized proliferation of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
An aggregate of two or more activated macrophages
The excessive secretion of mucus from a mucosal surface

A

a. A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris

An abscess is a localized collection of neutrophils and necrotic debris. It is basically a localized form of suppurative (purulent) inflammation, which is associated with pyogenic bacteria and is characterized by edema fluid admixed with neutrophils and necrotic cells (liquefactive necrosis or pus).

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10
Q

Cells provide a structural framework for the skin and play a critical role in
WOUND HEALING:

Basophils
Fibroblasts
Lymphocytes
Monocytes and macrophages

A

b. Fibroblasts

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11
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of:

Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
Increased vascular permeability of venules
Vasoconstriction of muscular arteries
Vasodilation of arterioles

A

e. Vasodilation of arterioles

Inflammation can be defined as the reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury.
Celsus originally described four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor
(swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). Virchow later added a fifth sign, loss of function
(functio laesa).
Redness (rubor) and heat (calor) are primarily the result of increased blood flow secondary
to vasodilation of arterioles.

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12
Q

During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular
permeability causes the formation of exudates (inflammatory
edema).Which one of the listed cell types is the most likely source of the
histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability?

Endothelial cells
Fibroblast
Lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils

A

Mast cells

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13
Q

Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Suppurative or purulent

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14
Q

Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Serous

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15
Q

It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

True hypertrophy

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16
Q

It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or appendicitis):

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

False hypertrophy

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17
Q

An increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of the individual cells:

Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy

A

Hypertrophy

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18
Q

A reversible change involving the transformation of one type of cell to
another:

Anaplasia
Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Neoplasia

A

Metaplasia

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19
Q

Microscopically, the hallmark of this type necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into ‘TOMBSTONES’ :

Caseous necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Liquefaction necrosis

A

Coagulation necrosis

Outlines of the cells are retained so that the cell type can still be recognized but their cytoplasmic and nuclear details are lost.

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20
Q

A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis within the ventricle can best be described as:

Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis

A

Coagulative necrosis

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21
Q

A special form of cell death produced by the tubercle bacillus:

Liquefaction necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis

A

Caseous necrosis

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22
Q

Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION:

Heart
Liver
Lungs
Kidney

A

Liver

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23
Q

Cytological picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class III

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24
Q

Cytological picture strongly suggestive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class IV

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25
Q

Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue origin, which have less tendency to produce supporting tissue or stroma.

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

A

Carcinoma

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26
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intercellular tissue framework.

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

A

Sarcoma

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27
Q

A 57-year-old male presents with signs of fatigue that are the result of
anemia. Workup reveals that his anemia is the result of bleeding from a colon cancer located in the sigmoid colon. The lesion is resected and at the time of surgery no metastatic disease is found. Which of the listed
markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of possible metastatic disease from his colon cancer?

α fetoprotein (AFP)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Chloroacetate esterase (CAE)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein associated with many cancers including adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and breast. It is used clinically to follow up patients with certain malignancies, such as colon cancer,
and to evaluate them for recurrence or metastases.

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28
Q

A 23-year-old female presents with the recent onset of vaginal discharge. Physical examination reveals multiple clear vesicles on her vulva and vagina. A smear of material obtained from one of these vesicles reveals several multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions and ground-glass nuclei. These vesicles are most likely the result of an infection with

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Infection by herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is recognized by nuclear homogenization (ground-glass nuclei), intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A bodies), and the formation of multinucleated cells.

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29
Q

Programmed cell death is called:

Necrosis
Apoptosis
Cellular senescence
Terminal differentiation

A

Apoptosis

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30
Q

Physiologic death of cells, indicating the death of a group of cells with immediate regeneration of cells of the same type.

Hyaline degeneration
Fatty metamorphosis
Necrosis
Necrobiosis

A

Necrobiosis

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31
Q

A postmortem clot is most likely to:

Grossly display features of recanalization
Grossly have lines of Zahn
Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”
Microscopically appear attached to the wall of the blood vessel
Microscopically have alternating layers of cells and platelets

A

Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”

The postmortem clot is usually rubbery, gelatinous, and lacks fibrin strands and
attachments to the vessel wall.
Large postmortem clots may have a “chicken fat” appearance overlying a dark “currant jelly” base.

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32
Q

This autopsy technique is characterized by in situ dissection:

Virchow
Rokitansky
Ghon
Letulle

A

Rokitansky

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33
Q

A person died of unknown disease, the physician would like to know the
final diagnosis. Who is authorized to give consent for autopsy?

The deceased himself
Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased
The attending physician
NBI must perform autopsy

A

Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased

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34
Q

Father of Pathology:

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A

Rudolf Carl Virchow

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35
Q

Father of Cytopathology:

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A

George Nicholas Papanicolaou

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36
Q

It is generally used in histochemistry and during operative procedures,
and is the most rapid of the commonly available freezing agents:

Liquid nitrogen
Isopentane
Carbon dioxide gas
Aerosol spray

A

Liquid nitrogen

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37
Q

Freeze-drying is a special way of preserving tissues by rapid freezing
(quenching) of fresh tissue and subsequently removing ice water
molecules (desiccation) by a physical process of transferring the still
frozen tissue block in a vacuum at a higher temperature (sublimation).
Which of the following is the correct procedure?

Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –40C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

A

Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

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38
Q

The first and most critical step in histotechnology?

Fixation
Clearing
Infiltration
Embedding

A

Fixation

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39
Q

Which of the following organ should be fixed before “grossing” or
sectioning?

Liver
Lungs
Heart
Brain

A

Brain

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40
Q

The primary aim of fixation:

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

A

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell

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41
Q

The secondary goal of fixation:

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

A

Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling

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42
Q

Traditionally, the amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the
volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently the maximum effectiveness of
fixation is noted to be ____ times the tissue volume.

10
12
15
20

A

20

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43
Q

Immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the
case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing
the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation):

Heat fixation
Microwave fixation
Cryopreservation (freeze drying)
Physical fixation
Chemical fixation

A

Chemical fixation

Fixation of tissues can be achieved by chemical or physical means.
Physical methods include heating, micro-waving and cryo-preservation (freeze drying).
Chemical fixation is usually achieved by immersing the specimen in the fixative
(immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung,
by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation).

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44
Q

Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT:

Zenker’s fluid
Helly’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

A

Zenker’s fluid

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45
Q

Simplest aldehyde:

Formaldehyde (methanal)
Acetaldehyde (ethanal)
Propionaldehyde (propanal)
Butyraldehyde (butanal)

A

Formaldehyde (methanal)

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46
Q

Commercial formalin is buffered with _______ at a pH of 7.

Citrate
EDTA
Phosphate
Any of these

A

Phosphate

Commercial formalin is buffered with phosphate at a pH of 7.

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47
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid

Zenker
Helly
Bouin
Zamboni

A

Bouin

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48
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate,
and mercuric chloride?

Zenker
Helly
Carnoy
Orth

A

Helly

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49
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

4% formaldehyde
10% formaldehyde
37% to 40% formaldehyde
98% to 100% formaldehyde

A

37% to 40% formaldehyde

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50
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

Running water
Alcoholic iodine
Alcoholic picric acid
Potassium permanganate

A

Alcoholic picric acid

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51
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

Decreases the tissue autolysis
Decreases the fixative penetration
Increases the speed of fixation
Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

Increases the speed of fixation

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52
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?

Methyl alcohol
Formic acid
Paraformaldehyde
Sodium phosphate

A

Methyl alcohol

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53
Q

All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse
BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE
STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:

Saturated solution of iodine
Sodium thiosulfate
Distilled water
Saturated solution of picric acid

A

Saturated solution of iodine

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54
Q

All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT:

Bouin’s
Brasil’s
Carnoy’s
Gendre’s

A

Carnoy’s

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55
Q

An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a
saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely:

Melanin
Hemosiderin
Formalin pigment
Mercurial pigment

A

Formalin pigment

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56
Q

All of the following statements are true for Carnoy’s fluid, EXCEPT:

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative
It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide
Recommended for chromosome, lymph glands and urgent biopsies
It fixes and dehydrates at the same time

A

It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide

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57
Q

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:

Carnoy’s fluid
Helly’s solution
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

A

Carnoy’s fluid

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58
Q

Fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially the skin:

Moller’s fluid
Newcomer’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Heidenhain’s Susa solution

A

Heidenhain’s Susa solution

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59
Q

Fixative recommended for the study of early degenerative processes and
tissue necrosis/ demonstrate Rickettsiae and other bacteria:

Acetone
Orth’s fluid
Ethyl alcohol
Bouin’s solution

A

Orth’s fluid

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60
Q

Fixative used in preserving brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies:

Methyl alcohol
Acetone
Osmic acid
Flemming’s solution without acetic acid

A

Acetone

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61
Q

Neutral formalin may be prepared from 40% formaldehyde by adding:

10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 30 mL water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 39 parts water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

A

1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

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62
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete fixation

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63
Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete dehydration

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64
Q

Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of
alcohol.

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Insufficient clearing

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65
Q

Air holes found during trimming:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete impregnation

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66
Q

An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Workup reveals
decreased left ventricular filling due to decreased compliance of the left
ventricle. Two months later the patient dies, and postmortem sections
reveal deposits of eosinophilic, CONGO RED-POSITIVE material in the
interstitium of his heart. When viewed under polarized light, this material
displays an apple-green birefringence. What is the correct diagnosis?

Amyloidosis
Glycogenosis
Hemochromatosis
Sarcoidosis
Senile atrophy

A

Amyloidosis

The histologic diagnosis of amyloid is based solely on its special staining characteristics. It stains pink with the routine hematoxylin and eosin stain, but, with Congo red stain, amyloid stains dark red and has an apple-green birefringence when viewed under polarized light.

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67
Q

The most common and fastest decalcifying agent used as simple
solution or combines with other reagents.

Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
Formic acid
Sulfurous acid

A

Nitric acid

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68
Q

Composition of von Ebner’s fluid:

Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl alcohol
Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water
Trichloroacetic acid, formol saline
Chromic acid, osmium tetoxide, acetic acid

A

Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water

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69
Q

Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of
decalcification:

Physical test
Chemical test
X-ray or radiological test
All of these

A

X-ray or radiological test

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70
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

Formalin
Xylene
Benzene
Alcohol

A

Alcohol

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71
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:

For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
In very small volume ratios
For long periods without changing

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

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72
Q

All of the following are CLEARING AGENTS, EXCEPT:

Chloroform
Dioxane
Ethanol
Xylene

A

Ethanol

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73
Q

It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable for urgent biopsies and clears
within 15 to 30 minutes.

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Xylene

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74
Q

Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man
and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow
resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Benzene

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75
Q

It is especially recommended for cutting extremely hard and rough tissue blocks.

Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

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76
Q

Celloidin embedded tissues are usually cut by means of:

Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

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77
Q

This type of hone usually gives the best result. It is used for manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt or nicked.

Fine carborundum
Arkansas
Belgium yellow

A

Belgium yellow

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78
Q

The knife is first fitted with the appropriate knife back, then laid obliquely on the strop and with the cutting edge behind (edge last) is pushed backward and drawn forward in a toe to heel direction.

Honing
Stropping

A

Stropping

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79
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:

Presence of water in the clearing agent
pH of the fixative
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

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80
Q

When the magnification can be changed without the need to refocus, the microscope objectives are said to be:

Parfocal
Binocular
Achromatic
Apochromatic

A

Parfocal

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81
Q

A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Bioloid

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82
Q

It has a lower melting point of 46 to 48C, but it is harder than paraffin.

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Ester wax

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83
Q

It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber, with the same property as
paraplast.

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Tissue mat

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84
Q

The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:

Bones and teeth
Large brain blocks
Whole organs
Eyes

A

Eyes

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85
Q

Dip and dunk” machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed:

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Tissue transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from
container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process
chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

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86
Q

Tissues are subjected to a series of different reagents in an ENCLOSED PROCESSOR by:

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Fluid transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from
container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process
chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

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87
Q

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or
human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated
with a suitable ______ paraffin wax and can be embedded ready for
section cutting on the microtome.

Commercial wax
Analytical wax
Technical wax
Histological wax

A

Histological wax

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable histological wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.

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88
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete fixation

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89
Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete dehydration

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90
Q

Airholes found on tissue during trimming:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete impregnation

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91
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:

Fat
Glycogen
Nuclei
Cytoplasm

A

Nuclei

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92
Q

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the
nucleus with:

Acidified hematoxylin
Non-acidified hematoxylin
Acidified eosin
Non-acidified eosin

A

Non-acidified hematoxylin

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the NUCLEUS with a NON-ACIDIFIED HEMATOXYLIN such as Harris’s.

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93
Q

The action of the dye is intensified by adding another agent or mordant:

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Indirect staining

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94
Q

Mordants are used to:

Change the refractive index of the tissue
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
Help differentiate stains
Oxidize staining solutions

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

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95
Q

It involves a differentiation or decolorization step:

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Regressive staining

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96
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

Keep heterochromatin from staining
Make nuclear staining more specific
Ripen the hematoxylin
Form a dye lake

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

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97
Q

Possible correction when hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue
section shows UNEVEN NUCLEAR STAINING and “BLUE BLOBS” lacking
distinct chromatin patterns:

Restain with H & E stain
Change paraffin and reprocess tissue
Change reagents and reprocess tissue
No correction

A

Change reagents and reprocess tissue

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows uneven nuclear staining and
“blue blobs” lacking distinct chromatin patterns
POSSIBLE CAUSE: If tissue was fixed properly, then sample was improperly dehydrated
and infiltrated with paraffin
CORRECTION: Change reagents and reprocess tissue on proper processing protocol

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98
Q

Vital dye especially recommended for mitochondria:

Nile blue
Neutral red
Janus green
Toluidine blue

A

Janus green

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99
Q

Oldest stain:

Hematoxylin
Orcein
Carmine
Iodine

A

Iodine

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100
Q

It is the most common method used for the demonstration of basement
membrane, particularly the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, due to their CHO content.

Gomori’s stain
Mallory’s PTAH
Periodic acid Schiff
Congo red

A

Periodic acid Schiff

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101
Q

A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:

Masson trichrome
van Gieson
Best carmine
Aldehyde fuchsin

A

Masson trichrome

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102
Q

The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for
demonstrating:

Edema fluid
Muscle striations
Ground substance
Reticulin network

A

Muscle striations

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103
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:

Eosin
Pyronin
Feulgen reaction
Fast green

A

Feulgen reaction

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104
Q

Toluidine blue is used to demonstrate which of the following cells?

Plasma cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Macrophages

A

Mast cells

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105
Q

Most sensitive lipid stain known:

Sudan Black B
Sudan III
Sudan IV
Oil red O

A

Sudan Black B

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106
Q

A copper phthalocyanine dye that is used for MYELIN STAINING of
paraffin processed tissue:

Perl’s Prussian blue
Luxol fast blue
Gmelin technique
Sodium alizarin red S

A

Luxol fast blue

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107
Q

Astrocytes are demonstrated by which of the following procedures?

Luxol fast blue
Cresyl violet
Weil’s
Cajal’s

A

Cajal’s

Cajal’s gold sublimate method for astrocytes
Mod. Holzer’s method for astrocytic process

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108
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:

Fontana silver nitrate
Congo red
von Kossa silver nitrate
Schmorl method

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

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109
Q

Rhodanine is used to demonstrate:

Ferric iron
Copper
Calcium
Urate crystals

A

Copper

Rhodanine stain is used in histology to identify copper deposits.

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110
Q

The recommended stain for all parasitic blood work:

Giemsa
Wright
Jenner
May-Grunwald

A

Giemsa

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111
Q

Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent
microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method
uses capillary tube coated with:

Auramine-rhodamine
Methyl green- pyronine
Acridine orange
Fluoresceine isothiocyanate

A

Acridine orange

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112
Q

Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for
demonstration of malarial parasite:

Brightfield microscope
Fluorescent microscope
Polarizing microscope
Phase-contrast microscope

A

Fluorescent microscope

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113
Q

When an antibody labeled with a chromogen is reacted with tissue from a patient, the immunohistochemical technique is called:

Direct
Indirect
Avidin-biotin-complex
Soluble enzyme immune complex

A

Direct

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114
Q

This system is designed to: (1) Provide routine and consistent checks to
ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness; (2) Identify and
address errors and omissions; (3) Document and archive inventory
material and record all these activities.

Quality assurance
Quality control
Continuous quality improvement
Total quality management

A

Quality control

Quality Control (QC) is a system of routine technical activities to assess and maintain the
quality of the inventory as it is being compiled. It is performed by personnel compiling the
inventory. The
QC system is designed to:
1. Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and
completeness;
2. Identify and address errors and omissions;
3. Document and archive inventory material and record all QC activities.
QC activities include general methods such as accuracy checks on data acquisition and
calculations, and the use of approved standardized procedures for emission and removal
calculations, measurements, estimating uncertainties, archiving information and reporting.
QC activities also include technical reviews of categories, activity data, emission factors,
other estimation parameters, and methods.
Quality Assurance (QA) is a planned system of review procedures conducted by personnel
not directly involved in the inventory compilation/development process. Reviews,
preferably by independent third parties, are performed upon a completed inventory
following the implementation of QC procedures.

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115
Q

The traditional model for infectious disease. It consists of an external AGENT, a susceptible HOST, and an ENVIRONMENT that brings the host and agent together.

Chain of infection
Chain of custody
Epidemiological triad
Universal health

A

Epidemiological triad

EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD
REMEMBER “AHE” - Agent, Host and Environment
A number of models of disease causation have been proposed. Among the simplest of these is the EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD OR TRIANGLE, the traditional model for infectious disease.
The triad consists of an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the host and agent together. In this model, disease results from the interaction between the agent and the susceptible host in an environment that supports transmission of the agent from a source to that host.

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116
Q

Buffer used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP

A

2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol

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117
Q

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program?

Calibration
Preventive maintenance
Viral marker testing
Record keeping

A

Viral marker testing

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118
Q

Manual records can be corrected as long as:

The original entry is neither obliterated nor deleted
The person making the correction dates and initials the change
The item to be corrected is crossed off with a single line
All of the above

A

All of the above

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119
Q

What is the purpose of competency assessment?

Identify employees in need of retraining
Identify employees who need to be fired
Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge during a job interview
All of the above

A

Identify employees in need of retraining

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120
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding internal audits except that they:

Help identify problems early
Ensure continuous quality improvement efforts
Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers”
Are one of the many responsibilities of the QA unit

A

Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers”

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121
Q

Employees are the core of an organization, and therefore they:

Must be trained
Must report errors without fear of reprisal
Are a key part of problem solving
All of the above

A

All of the above

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122
Q

All blood banks as mandated by law must have a:

Water fountain
Written laboratory safety program
BSC
Foot-operated hand wash

A

Written laboratory safety program

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123
Q

Goggles, face shields, and splash barriers are:

-Personal protective equipment
-Not necessary unless working with HIV-positive or HBV-positive specimens
-Mandated at all times when working with blood specimens and blood products provided by the employee if needed
-Provided by the employee if needed

A

Personal protective equipment

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124
Q

The most effective defense for infection control and safety is wearing
gloves and:

Goggles
Laboratory coats
Posting warning signs
Hand washing

A

Hand washing

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125
Q

The reporting of an accident or injury should occur when any:

Injury may result in a fatality
Injury involves possible infection with HIV or HBV
Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes a patient
Accident or injury occurs

A

Accident or injury occurs

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126
Q

One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory
environment is to provide employees with:

Health insurance
Safety education
Rest breaks
Fluid-repellent laboratory coats

A

Safety education

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127
Q

During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation
requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory manager. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate way to handle such a situation?

-Nothing should be changed, it was handled appropriately
-The manager should have posted the change on the bulletin board in the breakroom
-The manager should have announced the policy on each shift
-The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy
from the manager

A

The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy
from the manager

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128
Q

What is the most important role of the manager in charge?

Independent decision making
Communication
Informal discussions
None of the above

A

Communication

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129
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of teams in the work place?

Sense of accomplishment
Increased communication
Relief for employees
All of the above

A

All of the above

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130
Q

Which of the following arrangements offers the most instrument service coverage and “piece of mind” for laboratory managers?

-Pay as needed for time and materials
-Establishing a service contract for key instruments
-Fingers crossed that nothing breaks down
-Order new instruments when the warranty runs out on the old one

A

Establishing a service contract for key instruments

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131
Q

Which of the following components should not be included in a written
procedure?

Test method
Cost per billable test
Quality control procedures
Reagents and media needs

A

Cost per billable test

132
Q

You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory manager has asked you to evaluate two new methods for cholesterol analysis. In your evaluation, you found that method A was very accurate and precise and that method B was not very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory will make more money by investing in method B. Which of the
following decisions would exhibit professionalism?

-Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results
-Recommend method B to your laboratory manager. It is important that the
laboratory make as much money as possible
-State that you are unable to make a recommendation, because no difference in the methods was noted
-Recommend that you need more time to evaluate both methods

A

Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results

133
Q

Which statement describes the appropriate scheduling process?

-Matching the people presently working in the laboratory with current workload requirements
-The setting of long-term goals and objectives for the number and types of personnel needed to meet the labor requirements of the laboratory
-Allow a democratic approach and have the staff schedule when they want to work
-Placing all of the experienced personnel on one shift

A

Matching the people presently working in the laboratory with current workload requirements

An effective manager will schedule the appropriate personnel to the workload requirements. Scheduling is an immediate and ongoing process versus workload management, which is a long- range planning process, and a free-for-all in a democratic
schedule can create gaps in a schedule. A balance of experienced personnel on all shifts is an appropriate scheduling process.

134
Q

Which of the following is a goal of an interview?

Establish social contacts
Evaluate applicant’s skills and personality
Discuss the religious background of the applicant
Discuss prior arrests of the applicant

A

Evaluate applicant’s skills and personality

135
Q

Records of a patient’s laboratory test results may not be released without his or her consent to anyone outside the clinical
laboratory except to the:

American Red Cross
Department of Health and Human Services
Insurance carrier
Physician who ordered the tests

A

Physician who ordered the tests

136
Q

Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services

Laboratory supervisor
Laboratory director and administrator
Laboratory manager

A

Laboratory supervisor

LABORATORY SUPERVISORS
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services
LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS
Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital
investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management
LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST
Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently
Plan, organize, direct, and control job

137
Q

Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently

Laboratory supervisor
Laboratory director and administrator
Laboratory manager

A

Laboratory manager

LABORATORY SUPERVISORS
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services
LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS
Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital
investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management
LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST
Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently
Plan, organize, direct, and control job

138
Q

It is a statistical modification of the original Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) method adopted by the The Joint Commission (TJC) as a guideline for health-care organizations. The primary goal is to reduce variables and decrease errors to a level of 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities

Chain of custody
Lean
Six sigma
Standard Precautions

A

Six sigma

139
Q

It utilizes a tool called “6S, ” which stands for: sort, straighten, scrub, safety, standardize, and sustain. The focus is on the elimination of
waste to allow a facility to do more with less and at the same time increase customer and employee satisfaction.

Chain of custody
Lean
Six sigma
Standard Precautions

A

Lean

140
Q

Black belts dedicate _____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.

20%
50%
80%
100%

A

100%

141
Q

Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.

20%
50%
80%
100%

A

20%

142
Q

Mid- to senior-level sponsors who review the project, remove
organizational barriers, and encourage the team members.

White belts
Green belts
Black belts
Blue belts

A

Blue belts

143
Q

Smaller scale improvement projects typically headed by ____ belts use
the same Lean Six Sigma principles condensed over 1 week to improve
more focused and limited processes.

White belts
Brown belts
Yellow belts
Purple belts

A

Purple belts

144
Q

The four essential functions of a manager are:

-Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
-Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
-Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
-Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem-solving

A

Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling.
Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules.
Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training.
Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership.
Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.

145
Q

Direct laboratory costs for tests include which of the following?

Equipment maintenance
Insurance
Depreciation
Overtime pay

A

Overtime pay

All costs that are specifically linked to a test (e.g., personnel, overtime, chemicals,
supplies) are direct costs.

146
Q

Which of the following accounts for the largest portion of the direct cost of a laboratory test?

Reagents
General supplies
Technologist labor
Instrument depreciation

A

Technologist labor

Labor accounts for 60%–70% of the direct cost per test in most laboratories.

147
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) is a team effort approach for clinical laboratories to:

Identify potential problems and correct them
Set lab financial benchmarks for the year
Make up new codes
Improve overall wages for lab employees

A

Identify potential problems and correct them

The CQI team identifies problems by collecting data, analyzing it, and developing methods of correcting problems. By identifying potential problems and correcting existing problems, a high competency is achieved and potential law suits are avoided.

148
Q

A new laboratory information system (LIS) will be evaluated by the laboratory staff. Which of the following points should be considered in
the evaluation?

Cost of updating software
Interface ability with existing laboratory instruments
Tracking of uncrossmatched blood units in Blood Bank
All of these options

A

All of these options

LIS: LABORATORY INFORMATION SYSTEM
Each laboratory will have specific needs to determine the appropriate LIS. However,storage capacity, reliability, security, upgrade costs, instrument interface availability,
inventory management, and quality control functions are common parameters that must be considered.

149
Q

Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:

All testing done to the patient to save time
All lab testing done in the central lab
Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside
Satellite lab testing

A

Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside

Point-of-care testing saves time and is invaluable for patient care. When a device is used at the bedside of a patient to produce a laboratory result, it is considered a point-of-care instrument.

150
Q

BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-ofcare testing (POCT)

Arterial blood
Venous blood
Capillary blood
None of these

A

Capillary blood

CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently
in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT).

151
Q

Most laboratories have a definite structure that establishes the formal
setup of the various departments and levels. Which of the following
refers to this structure?

Administration table
Laboratory directory
Report of contact
Organizational chart

A

Organizational chart

The organizational chart shows the lines of supervision, relationships of various staff
members, and interrelationships of the various departments.

152
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the goals of a laboratory
continuing education program?

Staff development
Improvement of laboratory functioning
Compliance with accreditation requirements
Prevention of boredom

A

Prevention of boredom

Staff development that generally improves the capabilities of the laboratory worker,
improvement of laboratory functioning through in-service programs, and the meeting of
accreditation requirements are important goals of a continuing education program.
These goals may be accomplished by means of seminars, journal clubs, lectures,
workshops, and so forth.

153
Q

Which of the following refers to a program where the overall activities
conducted by the institution are directed toward assuring the quality of
the products and services provided?

Quality control
Quality assurance
Total quality management
Continuous quality improvement

A

Quality assurance

Quality assurance (QA) developed out of the limitations of the QC approach and defined
quality in healthcare institutions by the success of the total organization, not just
individual components of the system, in achieving the goals of patient care.

154
Q

Chain-of-custody procedures must be followed for:

Blood specimens for alcohol level determination
Routine urinalysis for glucose and ketones
Therapeutic drug threshold determinations
Throat swabs of group A beta streptococcus screening

A

Blood specimens for alcohol level determination

Chain of custody:
When results of laboratory testing are to be used in a court of law, a specific chain of
documentation is required, whereby all steps of the testing are recorded, from specimen
collection to the issuing of the results report.

155
Q

Preanalytical variables in laboratory testing include:

Result accuracy
Report delivery to the ordering physician
Test turnaround time
Specimen acceptability

A

Specimen acceptability

Preanalytical (i.e. pre-examination) variables include all steps in the process prior to the
analytic phase of testing, starting with the physician’s order. Examples include accuracy of
transmission of physician’s orders, specimen transport and preparation, requisition
accuracy, quality of phlebotomy services, specimen acceptability rates, etc.

156
Q

Using a common labeling system for hazardous material identification
such as NFPA, the top red quadrant represent which hazard?

Health hazard
Fire hazard
Specific hazard
Reactivity

A

Fire hazard

HAZARDUS MATERIALS CLASSIFICATION
BLUE: Health hazard
RED: Fire hazard
WHITE: Specific hazard
YELLOW: Reactivity

157
Q

The best way to motivate an ineffective employee would be to:

Confirm low performance with subjective data
Set short-term goals for the employee
Transfer the employee to another department
Ignore failure to meet goals

A

Set short-term goals for the employee

158
Q

The most important aspect of supervision is:

Balancing the budget
Performing technical procedures
Writing accurate job descriptions
Dealing with people

A

Dealing with people

159
Q

On repeated occasions, the day shift supervisor has observed a
technologist on the night shift sleeping. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial course of action for the day supervisor?

Ignore the repeated incidents
Discuss the incidents with the technologist’s immediate supervisor
Notify the personnel department
Advise the laboratory director

A

Discuss the incidents with the technologist’s immediate supervisor

The first step in progressive counseling is verbal counseling.

160
Q

Which of the following ISO standard applies to the clinical laboratory?

ISO 9000
ISO 7000
ISO 15436
ISO 15189

A

ISO 15189

THERE ARE TWO (2) ISO STANDARD THAT APPLY TO THE CLINICAL LABORATORY:
1. ISO 15189
MEDICAL LABORATORIES – PARTICULAR REQUIREMENT FOR QUALITY AND
COMPETENCE, 2007
2. ISO/IEC 17025 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALITY AND COMPETENCE OF
TESTING AND CALIBRATION LABORATORIES, 2005

161
Q

Which of the following published standards for GOOD LABORATORY
PRACTICE (GLP)?

Department of Health - Philippines
World Health Organization
National Reference Laboratories
Philippine Association of Medical Technologists

A

Philippine Association of Medical Technologists

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR
1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

162
Q

In what phase of the management process does the manager gather
together the necessary resources and people and develop an
organizational structure to put the formal plan into action?

Directing
Planning
Organizing
Controlling

A

Organizing

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

163
Q

Which management function is LEADERSHIP considered the fulfillment of:

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Controlling

A

Directing

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

164
Q

Which management function does staffing of the laboratory fulfill?

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Controlling

A

Planning

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

165
Q

Which management function is responsible for monitoring the standards and feedback mechanisms set in place when objectives were
established during the planning stage?

Directing
Planning
Organizing
Controlling

A

Controlling

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

166
Q

If the laboratory manager wishes to determine the number of
phlebotomists needed to provide emergency room coverage on Sunday
nights during the 11:00 to 7:00 shift, which one of the decision-making
procedures may prove the most useful?

Probability analysis
Queuing theory
Simulation
Linear programming

A

Queuing theory

QUANTITATIVE TOOLS
1. Probability analysis
Measures risk by assigning a value, expressed in percentage to the likelihood of a specific
event occurring
2. Queuing theory
Provides recommendations for the number of staff (phlebotomists, clerks, technical
personnel, and so on) needed to handle an unpredictable workload
3. Linear programming
A tool for allocating limited resources among competing needs
4. Simulation
Designs models to imitate real-life conditions so the different intervention scenarios can
be compared

167
Q

According to AO 2007-0027, what are the services done only in a tertiary
category laboratory? CHECK FOUR (4) BOXES.

-Routine hematology
-Qualitative platelet determination
-Quantitative platelet determination
-Immunology
-KOH, Gram-staining
-Culture and sensitivity
-Routine chemistry
-Crossmatching
-Special chemistry
-Special hematology including coagulation procedures

A

Immunology
Culture and sensitivity
Special chemistry
Special hematology including coagulation procedures

PRIMARY CATEGORY
1. Routine Hematology
2. Qualitative Platelet Determination
3. Routine Urinalysis
4. Routine Fecalysis
5. Blood Typing – for hospital-based

SECONDARY CATEGORY
1. Services of primary category laboratory
2. Routine Clinical Chemistry
3. Quantitative Platelet Determination
4. Cross-matching – for hospital-based
5. Gram staining – for hospital-based
6. KOH – for hospital-based

TERTIARY CATEGORY
1. Services of secondary category laboratory
2. Special Chemistry
3. Special Hematology, including coagulation procedures
4. Immunology
5. Microbiology – culture and sensitivity

168
Q

Components of an information system consist of all of the following except:

Hardware
Software
Validation
People

A

Validation

A computer system includes three major components: hardware, software, and people.
Hardware components are the physical pieces of equipment.
Software is a set of instructions written in computer language that tells the computer how to operate and manipulate the data.
The people interface with the hardware to enter the data that are manipulated by the software. Just as there are many different kinds of people who enter data, so there are
many different kinds of hardware and software.

169
Q

An example of INTERFACE software functionality is:

The entry of blood components into the blood bank database
The transmission of patient information from the HIS into the blood bank system
The printing of a workload report
Preventing access to the system by an unauthorized

A

The transmission of patient information from the HIS into the blood bank system

170
Q

User passwords should be:

Shared with others
Kept confidential
Posted at each terminal
Never changed

A

Kept confidential

171
Q

The four essential functions of a manager are:

Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem-solving

A

Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling.
Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules.
Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training.
Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership.
Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.

172
Q

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?

Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands
Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat
Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area

A

Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

According to the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Rule of 1992, gloves and lab coats are to be removed after disinfection of the work area.

173
Q

The material safety data sheets (MSDSs) for hazardous chemicals address which of the following conditions?

Physical characteristics of the chemical
Safe handling and storage of the chemical
Specific health hazards associated with the chemical
All of these

A

All of these

The MSDS documents describe the chemical and physical characteristics, safe handling
and storage, and potential health hazards of reagents used in the laboratory. These
documents must be located in an easily accessible place so that all employees have
access to them. They should be reviewed at least once per year during safety in service
training.

174
Q

The OSHA hazard communication standard, the “RIGHT-TO-KNOW” rule, is designed:

To avoid lawsuits
To protect laboratory staff
To protect patients
To establish safety standards

A

To protect laboratory staff

Legislation on chemical hazard precautions, such as state “right-to-know” laws, and OSHA document 29 CFR 1910 set the standards for chemical hazard communication (HAZCOM)
and determine the types of documents that must be on file in a laboratory

175
Q

“Six sigma” is a method used in industry and business as well as the clinical laboratory in order to:

Allow for improved performance
Prevent and remove defects in production
Improve customer satisfaction
All of these

A

All of these

Six sigma management is a method for measuring the efficiency of a process such as mass production, and it is applied in the clinical laboratory to reduce the frequency of test errors.
The process consists of five steps: define, measure, analyze, improve, and control.
The term “six sigma” denotes a process so precise that six times the standard deviation still results in a useful product (laboratory test result that is within acceptable limits for total allowable error).

176
Q

DEMOGRAPHIC INFORMATION about the patient in the information database, EXCEPT:

Name and gender
Age and birth date (DOB)
Referring or attending physician
Marital status

A

Marital status

177
Q

SITUATION: A medical laboratory science student in training accidentally splashed a few drops of an extraction reagent from an enzyme immunoassay kit for group A Streptococcus into her right eye, and felt an immediate burning sensation. What should she do first?

Locate the MSDS sheet for the EIA test kit
Go directly to the emergency department for treatment
Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water
Report directly to her immediate supervisor

A

Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water

When a chemical compound comes into contact with the skin or eyes, the first course of action is to dilute the chemical by flooding it with a large volume of water.

178
Q

Certificate of registration as Medical Technologist shall not be required for which of the following?

Duly registered physicians
MT from other countries called in for consultation or as visiting or exchange professors
Medical technologists in the service of the US Armed Forces stationed in the Philippines
All of these

A

All of these

179
Q

Qualification for Medical Technologist examination:

Good health and good moral character
Completed a course of at least four (4) years leading to the degree of BSMT/ PH
Graduated from some other profession and has been actually performing medical
technology for the last (5) years prior to the date of the examinations, if such
performance began prior to June 21, 1969
All of these

A

All of these

180
Q

In cases where the screening drug-testing laboratory is a division, section, or unit of a Clinical Laboratory, it shall be headed by:

Licensed physician
Medical technologist
Pharmacist
Chemist, chemical engineer
All of these

A

All of these

181
Q

A drug test is valid for _________.

Three months
Six months
One year
Two years

A

One year

ADDITIONAL DRUG TESTING MAY BE REQUIRED FOR JUST CAUSE AS IN ANY OF THE
FOLLOWING CASES:
After workplace-related accidents, including near miss;
1. Following treatment and rehabilitation to establish fitness for returning to work/resumption of job
2. In the light of clinical findings and/or upon recommendation of the assessment team.

182
Q

The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the CLINICAL LABORATORY is valid for:

One year
Two years
Three years
Six months

A

One year

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

183
Q

LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service Facilities is valid for a period of ____ years.

One year
Two years
Three years
Six years

A

Three years

Beginning on January 1 of the first year of the validity period to December 31 of the third year of the validity period.

184
Q

Coliform organisms which grow at 44 or 44.5 C and ferment lactose to produce acid and gas:

Fecal streptococi
Thermorolerant (fecal) coliforms
Heterotrophic organisms
Total coliforms

A

Thermorolerant (fecal) coliforms

THERMOTOLERANT (FECAL) COLIFORMS
Coliform organisms which grow at 44 or 44.5 C and ferment lactose to produce acid and gas

185
Q

According to DOH, for the diagnostic evaluation of PTB, ___ sputum specimens should be obtained for DSSM.

1
2
3
4

A

2

For the diagnostic evaluation of PTB, two (2) sputum specimens should be obtained for DSSM.
Same day (spot-spot) strategy using 2 consecutive specimens collected 1-hour apart is recommended for direct Ziehl-Neelsen microscopy.
AT LEAST 1 SPUTUM SMEAR POSITIVE IS CONSIDERED BACTERIOLOGICALLY CONFIRMED TB.

186
Q

The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination.

One man
Two-man
Three-man
Four-man

A

Three-man

PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora
PRC COMMISSIONERS: Jose Y. Cueto, Jr. & Erwin Enad

187
Q

An act done to avoid harming the patients:

Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Autonomy
Justice

A

Non-maleficence

188
Q

First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:

San Lazaro Hospital
Manila Public Health Laboratory
Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
National Reference Laboratory

A

Manila Public Health Laboratory

189
Q

Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II:

Dr. Pio de Roda
Dr. Mariano Icasiano
Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

A

26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

190
Q

Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:

Filipino citizen, good moral character
Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment

A

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment

In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment

BOARD OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza
Members: Marian Tantingco, Marilyn Atienza
1. Filipino citizen
2. Good moral character
3. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
4. In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment
5. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two (2) years
prior to appointment or having any pecuniary interest direct or indirect in such institution
TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

191
Q

BOARD OF MT term of office:

1 year after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and
duly qualified
2 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and
duly qualified
3 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed
and duly qualified
5 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and
duly qualified

A

3 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed
and duly qualified

TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

192
Q

The current PRC CHAIRPERSON is:

Dr. Marilyn Barza
Dr. Jose Cueto
Atty. Charito Zamora
Yolanda Reyes

A

Atty. Charito Zamora

PRC is a THREE-MAN COMMISSION attached to the office of the President for general direction and coordination.
THE CHAIRPERSON OR COMMISSIONER SHALL BE:
1. At least forty (40) years of age
2. Holding a valid certificate of registration/professional license and a valid professional
identification card or a valid certificate of competency issued by the Commission or a valid professional license issued by any government agency
3. Familiar with the principles and methods of professional regulation and/or licensing
4. Had at least five (5) years of executive or management experience
5. Provided, that, one (1) of the Commissioners must be a past Chairperson/member of a Professional Regulatory Board

193
Q

Renewal of CLINICAL LABORATORY license:

January to February
March to April
August to September
October to November

A

October to November

AO 2007-0027 (CLINICAL LABORATORIES): Renewal of LTO, FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER TO LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER; processed not later than 5 working days after expiration of its
license; announced licensure inspections at any reasonable time.

194
Q

Random drug test:

Applicants for firearm’s license
Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or
local government
Persons apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of the drug act
Students of secondary and tertiary schools

A

Students of secondary and tertiary schools

MANDATORY DRUG TEST
1. Applicants for driver’s license
2. Applicants for firearm’s license
3. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
4. Persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an
imposable penalty of imprisonment of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day
5. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local
government
6. Persons apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of the drug act

RANDOM DRUG TEST
1. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
2. Officers and employees of public and private offices whether domestic or overseas.

195
Q

Current HIV testing diagnostic algorithm in the Philippines include screening test from referring labs:

3 parallel screening tests
2 parallel screening tests + 1 supplemental confirmatory test
1 screening test + 1 confirmatory test
2 parallel screening tests + 2 confirmatory tests

A

2 parallel screening tests + 1 supplemental confirmatory test

CURRENT NATIONAL HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM IN THE PHILIPPINES
Current HIV testing diagnostic algorithm in the Philippines include screening test from referring labs
*A reactive result from the screening test will be sent to SACCL for confirmatory testing,
where 2 parallel screening tests are performed
*A reactive result on either of these tests will then require Western blot and/or nucleic acid test as supplemental confirmatory tests.

PROPOSED RAPID HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM (rHIVda) FOR THE PHILIPPINES
The Disease Prevention and Control Bureau (DPCB) of DOH, National Reference
Laboratory-San Lazaro Hospital/STD AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory (NRL SLH/SACCL), and the HIV National Reference Laboratory of Australia has conducted the research study to develop a rHIVda for the Philippines
*rHIVda, includes 2 immunoassay tests and 3 RDTs for local validation of sensitivity and specificity on general and key population in the country
*Key population includes men who are having sex with men, people in prisons and other closed settings, people who inject drugs, sex workers, and transgender men and women

196
Q

A process of providing an individual information on the biomedical aspects of HIV/AIDS and emotional support to any psychological
implications of undergoing HIV testing and the test result itself BEFORE he/she is subjected to the test:

Medical confidentiality
Informed consent
Pre-test counselling
Post-test counselling

A

Pre-test counselling

197
Q

A process of providing risk-reduction information and emotional support to a person who submitted to HIV testing at the time that the test result is released

Medical confidentiality
Informed consent
Pre-test counselling
Post-test counselling

A

Post-test counselling

198
Q

According to RA 8504, all results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons, EXCEPT:

Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program
Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court
Boyfriend of the person who submiited herself to test

A

Boyfriend of the person who submitted herself to test

RA 8504
ALL RESULTS OF HIV/AIDS TESTING SHALL BE CONFIDENTIAL AND SHALL BE RELEASED
ONLY TO THE FOLLOWING PERSONS:
o Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
o Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
o Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
o Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program
o Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court (as provided under Subsection (c) of RA 8504 and on accordance with the provision of Section 16)

RA 11166
DISCLOSURE OF HIV-RELATED TEST RESULTS:
RESULT OF ANY TEST RELATED TO HIV SHALL BE DISCLOSED BY THE TRAINED SERVICE PROVIDER WHO CONDUCTS PRE-TEST AND POST-TEST COUNSELING TO:
1. Individual who submitted to the test
2. If the patient is <15 years old, an orphan or is mentally incapacitated, the result may be disclosed to either parent, legal guardian or a duly assigned licensed social worker or health worker, whichever is applicable.
3. If the patient is <15 years old and not suffering from any mental incapacity, has given
voluntary and informed consent to the procedure, the result of the test shall be disclosed to the child, provided that the child should be given age-appropriate counseling and access to health care and sufficient support services.
4. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the DOH Monitoring Body

199
Q

National Reference Laboratory for HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis, Syphilis and other Sexually Transmitted Infections (STls):

Reasearch Institute for Tropical Medicine
San Lazaro Hospital
East Avenue Medical Center
National Kidney and Transplant Institute
Lung Center of the Philippines

A

San Lazaro Hospital

200
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Dengue, Influenza, Tuberculosis and other Mycobacteria, Malaria and other parasites, Bacterial enteric
diseases, Measles and other Viral exanthems, Mycology, Enteroviruses, Antimicrobial resistance and Emerging Diseases; NRL for confirmatory
testing of blood units:

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
San Lazaro Hospital
East Avenue Medical Center
Lung Center of the Philippines
National Kidney and Transplant Institute

A

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

201
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Biochemistry:

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
San Lazaro Hospital
East Avenue Medical Center
Lung Center of the Philippines
National Kidney and Transplant Institute

A

Lung Center of the Philippines

202
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Environmental and Occupational Health; Toxicology and Micronutrient Assay:

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
San Lazaro Hospital
East Avenue Medical Center
Lung Center of the Philippines
National Kidney and Transplant Institute

A

East Avenue Medical Center

203
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Hematology including Immunohematology, Immunopathology and Anatomic Pathology:

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
San Lazaro Hospital
East Avenue Medical Center
Lung Center of the Philippines
National Kidney and Transplant Institute

A

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

204
Q

Other term for METHYLENEDIOXYMETHAMPHETAMINE (MDMA):

Opium
Marijuana
Shabu
Ecstacy

A

Ecstacy

205
Q

Other term for METHAMPHETAMINE HYDROCHLORIDE:

Opium
Marijuana
Shabu
Ecstacy

A

Shabu

206
Q

Individual from whom a specimen is collected for drug testing:

Patient
Donor
Coddler
Pusher

A

Donor

207
Q

A standard 5 PANEL DRUG URINE TEST is the drug test most frequently used by government agencies and private employers. A 5 panel drug test typically tests for:

THC, opiates and PCP
THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and ethanol
THC, opiates, PCP and cocaine
THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and amphetamines

A

THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and amphetamines

208
Q

All are included in the five (5) panel drug test, EXCEPT:

Amphetamine
Cocaine
Ethanol
Marijuana

A

Ethanol

209
Q

In order to pass the examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of at least ___ in the written test.

60%
65%
70%
75%

A

75%

210
Q

Certificate of registration as medical technologist will be issued to successful applicants who attained the age of:

18 years old
19 years old
20 years old
21 years old

A

21 years old

211
Q

Relative weight of Histopathology and MT Laws in the MT Board Examination:

10%
20%
35%
65%

A

10%

212
Q

Step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens:

Turnaround time
Chain of custody
Chain of infection
Standard precaution

A

Chain of custody

213
Q

Time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report:

Turnaround time
Chain of custody
Chain of infection
Standard precaution

A

Turnaround time

214
Q

On March 25, 2020, the President signed into law the Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469), which is valid for ____ months unless extended by
Congress.

Two months
Three months
Six months
Twelve months

A

Three months

On March 25, the President signed into law the Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469), which is valid for three months unless extended by Congress.

215
Q

RA 5527 consists of:

30 sections
32 sections
50 sections
52 sections

A

32 sections

216
Q

Which of the following amends RA 5527 on June 11, 1978?

RA 6138
PD 498
PD 1534

A

PD 1534

217
Q

All are sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534, except:

Section 3
Section 8
Section 13
Section 18

A

Section 18

218
Q

Minor subject (10%) in the MT Board Exam:

Clinical Chemistry
Hematology
Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking
Clinical Microscopy

A

Clinical Microscopy

219
Q

Refresher course for applicants who have failed the Board Examination for the ___ time.

First time
Second time
Third time
Fourth time

A

Third time

220
Q

Revocation:

Unanimous vote (3/3)
Majority vote (2/3)

A

Unanimous vote (3/3)

221
Q

Suspension:

Unanimous vote (3/3)
Majority vote (2/3)

A

Majority vote (2/3)

222
Q

Part of drinking water analysis, except:

Calcium
Fecal coliform test
Sodium
Potassium

A

Potassium

223
Q

License and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city:

DOH
PDEA
PNP
PRC

A

DOH

224
Q

Random drug test:

Applicants for firearm’s license
Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
Students of secondary and tertiary schools
Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government

A

Students of secondary and tertiary schools

225
Q

Fill in the blank (Code of Ethics): Be dedicated to ____.

Fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the profession
Law and shall not participate in illegal work
Responsibilities inherent to being a professional
Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

A

Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

226
Q

Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016:

RA 7719
RA 9288
RA 10912
RA 7170

A

RA 10912

227
Q

Published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE:

CDC
DOH
PRC
WHO

A

WHO

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR:
1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

228
Q

First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:

San Lazaro Hospital
Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
Manila Public Health Laboratory
National Reference Laboratory

A

Manila Public Health Laboratory

229
Q

Acceptable patient identifiers include:

-Patient’s name, gender, medical record number
-Patient’s name, gender, date of birth
-Patient’s name, requesting physician, medical record number
-Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

A

Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

Acceptable patient identifiers include the patient’s name, an identification number assigned by a health care facility such as the medical record number, or date of birth.

230
Q

According to DOH A.O. 2020-0031, certificate of accreditation of laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for __ year(s) and expires on the last day of December. TAKE NOTE OF YEAR 2020 DOH REVISION.

One year
Two years
Three years
Five years

A

Three years

Administrative Order No. 2006-0024 known as the “Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis
Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 2 years and expires on the last day of December

DOH A.O. 2020-0031 (July 17, 2020)
Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis Laboratory for Drinking Water Analysis (LDWA)
DOH Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 3 years, effective from January 1 of the first year, and shall expire on the last day of December on the third year

231
Q

If a medical technologist was not able to complete the number of CPD units upon renewal of PRC license, he may sign a/an: [ONLY UP TO DECEMBER 2023]

Affidavit of undertaking
Certificate of exemption
Certificate of registration
Suspension order

A

Affidavit of undertaking

AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
Contains your specific promises to:
1. Undertake to comply with the required number of CPD credit units during the validity of your PRC ID; and to
2. Submit proof of compliance with the required number of CPD units during the next renewal of the PRC ID

232
Q

Obligation of MT to the patient:

Compliance to PRC
Compliance to the department of health
Comprehensive health education
Strive for excellence in professional practice

A

Strive for excellence in professional practice

233
Q

All traits are mentioned in the MT CODE OF ETHICS, except:

Honesty
Humility
Integrity
Reliability

A

Humility

234
Q

Components of quality assurance:

Pre-analytical variables
Analytical variables
Post-analytical variables
All of these

A

All of these

Quality assurance is the broader concept, encompassing preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical variables.

235
Q

An example of cellular adaptation is:

Edema
Inflammation
Neoplasia
Dysplasia

A

Dysplasia

Cellular adaptations:
1. Atrophy
2. Hypertrophy
3. Hyperplasia
4. Metaplasia
5. Dysplasia

236
Q

Low temperature:

Enhance fixation
Retard fixation
Variable
No effect

A

Retard fixation

237
Q

Stopping all cellular activities so that the cells can be viewed under the microscope as if they are still in their original living state:

Decalcification
Embedding
Fixation
Staining

A

Fixation

238
Q

Fixative for electron microscopy:

Carnoy’s
Formalin
Glutaraldehyde
Zenker

A

Glutaraldehyde

239
Q

Most common and fastest decalcifying agent used:

Formic acid
Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
Sulfurous acid

A

Nitric acid

240
Q

For most instances, dehydration starts by placing the fixed specimen in:

70% ethyl alcohol
95% ethyl alcohol
Absolute alcohol
Xylene

A

70% ethyl alcohol

241
Q

Transition step between dehydration and infiltration with the embedding medium:

Fixation
Clearing
Infiltration
Mounting

A

Clearing

242
Q

Enclosed tissue processor:

Mechanical transfer
Dip and dunk
Fluid transfer
Tissue transfer

A

Fluid transfer

243
Q

What are the processes (IN ORDER) done by the automatic tissue processor:

Fixation, clearing, dehydration and infiltration
Fixation, infiltration, dehydration and clearing
Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration
Fixation, dehydration, infiltration and clearing

A

Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration

244
Q

These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):

Disposal blades
Steel knives
Diamond or glass knives
Magnetic blades

A

Diamond or glass knives

245
Q

Sections fail to form ribbons:

Hard spot in tissue due to calcium
Sections are too thick
Paraffin is impure
Knife edge is dirty

A

Sections are too thick

Surfaces and edges of the block are not parallel
Horizontal surface of the block is not parallel to the knife
Paraffin wax is too hard
Knife is tilted too much
Sections are too thick
Knife is dull

246
Q

Effect of basic pH to ripening process:

Slower oxidizing process
More rapid oxidizing process
Variable
No effect

A

More rapid oxidizing process

pH will have effect on rate of oxidation.
1. Neutral aqueous solution of hematoxylin will form hematein in a few hours
2. Alkaline solutions - more rapid oxidizing process
3. Acid solutions - slower oxidizing process

247
Q

RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:

Black
Blue
Red
Green

A

Black

248
Q

A stain containing silver nitrate for demonstration of spirochetes:

Fite-Faraco
Warthin-Starry
Masson-Fontana
Mallory’s PTAH

A

Warthin-Starry

249
Q

Frozen sections are stained by hand because:

Staining is more accurate
Prevent overstaining
Faster for one or a few individual sections
Predictable colors

A

Faster for one or a few individual sections

Frozen sections are stained by hand, because this is faster for one or a few individual sections.

250
Q

_______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _______.

Antigen, antibody, visual marker
Visual marker, antigen, antibody
Antibody, antigen, visual marker
Visual marker, antibody, antigen

A

Antibody, antigen, visual marker

251
Q

Gastrointestinal specimens, except:

Gastric lavage
Gastric brush
Fine needle aspirate (submucosal lesions)
Induced vomiting

A

Induced vomiting

252
Q

Liquid-based cytology samples:

Body fluids
Touch imprint
Brush sampling
Skin scrape

A

Body fluids

253
Q

It is considered to be a most sensitive and specific reagent for lipid staining:

Sudan III
Sudan IV
Sudan Black
Oil Red O

A

Sudan Black

254
Q

One measure of the efficiency of a surgical pathology service:

Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians
Rapidity of tissue processing
Sufficiency of tissue preservation
Sufficiency of reagents and standards

A

Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians

255
Q

Objective of a quality assurance program in histopathology:

Ensure to process the tissues
Ensure acceptable service
Ensure to follow standards
Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

A

Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

256
Q

Primary objective in quality and safety control programs in histopathology laboratories:

Correctness of interpretation of reports
Ensure correct sampling
Ensure accurate treatment to patient
Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

A

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment should be the primary objective in quality and safety control programs adopted by the histopathology laboratories.

257
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid?

Zenker
Helly
Bouin
Zamboni

A

Bouin

258
Q

The volume of fixative should exceed the volume of the tissue by:

1 to 2 times
5 to 10 times
10 to 20 times
25 to 50 times

A

10 to 20 times

259
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride?

Zenker
Helly
Carnoy
Orth

A

Helly

260
Q

Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in:

Running water
Sodium thiosulfate
Weak ammonia water
Iodine

A

Iodine

261
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

4% formaldehyde
10% formaldehyde
37 to 40% formaldehyde
98 to 100% formaldehyde

A

37 to 40% formaldehyde

Important:
Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde
As fixing fluid: 10% formalin

262
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

Running water
Alcoholic iodine
Alcoholic picric acid
Potassium permanganate

A

Alcoholic picric acid

263
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde:

1,000 mL
900 mL
450 mL
10 mL

A

900 mL

Important: 1:10 dilution
1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV = 10

264
Q

Carnoy fluid is prepared with acetic acid, alcohol, and:

Chloroform
Formalin
Acetone
Osmium tetroxide

A

Chloroform

265
Q

The first and most important procedure in the preparation of a tissue for microscopic examination is the choice of:

Fixative
Dehydrating agent
Clearing agent
Staining technique

A

Fixative

266
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

Decreases the tissue autolysis
Decreases the fixative penetration
Increases the speed of fixation
Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

Increases the speed of fixation

267
Q

Which of the following may cause tissue to become overhardened?

Prolonged fixation
Abbreviated fixation
Inadequate dehydration
Incomplete clearing

A

Prolonged fixation

268
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?

Methyl alcohol
Formic acid
Paraformaldehyde
Sodium phosphate

A

Methyl alcohol

269
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

Formalin
Xylene
Benzene
Alcohol

A

Alcohol

270
Q

A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding must be miscible with the:

Fixative and paraffin
Dehydrant and paraffin
Fixative and dehydrant
Paraffin and water

A

Dehydrant and paraffin

271
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:

For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
In very small volume ratios
For long periods without changing

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

272
Q

A reagent that CANNOT be used for dehydrating tissue is:

Benzene
Absolute alcohol
Dioxane
Acetone

A

Benzene

273
Q

Which of the following chemicals is NOT a clearing agent?

Chloroform
Dioxane
Ethanol
Xylene

A

Ethanol

274
Q

The process of removing water from tissue is called:

Dehydration
Reduction
Oxidation
Clearing

A

Dehydration

275
Q

The dehydration and clearing steps can be omitted when using:

Celloidin
Epoxy resin
Glycol methacrylate
Water-soluble wax

A

Water-soluble wax

276
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:

Presence of water in the clearing agent
pH of the fixative
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

277
Q

The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin for embedding tissue should be about:

43C
43F
60C
60F

A

60C

278
Q

When using a microscope with a x10 ocular and a x40 objective, the total magnification is approximately:

100
400
1,000
4,000

A

400

Important:
Total magnification (TM)
= magnification of objective x magnification of ocular
= 10 x 40
= 400

279
Q

The microwave oven creates heat in staining solutions by:

Convection
Conduction
Nonionizing radiation
Electrolytic action

A

Nonionizing radiation

280
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:

Fat
Glycogen
Nuclei
Cytoplasm

A

Nuclei

281
Q

Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:

Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Mordanting
Reduction

A

Oxidation

282
Q

The active staining ingredient in ripened hematoxylin solutions is:

Hematin
Hematein
Hematoxylin
Hemosiderin

A

Hematein

283
Q

The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is:

Postmordanting in picric acid
Use of hematoxylin containing acetic acid
Differentiation in acid-alcohol
Washing in water after the hematoxylin

A

Differentiation in acid-alcohol

284
Q

Mordants are used to:

Change the refractive index of the tissue
Help differentiate stains
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
Oxidize staining solutions

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

285
Q

The combination of a dye and a mordant is called a/an:

Base
Accelerator
Lake
Buffer

A

Lake

286
Q

Mercuric oxide (or sodium iodate) is used in Harris hematoxylin to:

Form hematein
Prevent oxidation
Serve as the mordant
Stabilize the solution

A

Form hematein

287
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:

Eosin
Pyronin
Feulgen reaction
Fast green

A

Feulgen reaction

288
Q

The mordant in Weigert hematoxylin is:

Iron
Aluminum
Mercury
Tungsten

A

Iron

289
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

Keep heterochromatin from staining
Make nuclear staining more specific
Ripen the hematoxylin
Form a dye lake

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

290
Q

Which of the following is stained rose by the methyl green-pyronin (MGP) technique?

Heterochromatin
DNA
RNA
Golgi apparatus

A

RNA

291
Q

Differentiating in the H&E stain is an example of using:

Excess mordant
Weak acid
Oxidizers
Buffers

A

Weak acid

292
Q

The Feulgen reaction demonstrates:

DNA only
RNA only
Both DNA and RNA
Phosphoric acid groups

A

DNA only

293
Q

Sections for special stains have been accidentally stained with hematoxylin. To remove the hematoxylin, place the sections in:

Acid alcohol
Dilute ammonia
Lithium carbonate
Isopropyl alcohol

A

Acid alcohol

294
Q

Glycogen is best demonstrated by the use of:

Crystal violet
Mayer mucicarmine
PAS with and without diastase
Alcian blue with and without hyaluronidase

A

PAS with and without diastase

295
Q

Amyloid can be demonstrated with:

Congo red
Mayer mucicarmine
Cresyl echt violet
Alcian blue

A

Congo red

296
Q

Which of the following methods best demonstrates elastic tissue?

Verhoeff
Silver impreganation
Gomori trichrome
PAS

A

Verhoeff

297
Q

The oil red O stain requires which of the following sections?

Paraffin
Celloidin
Frozen
Plastic

A

Frozen

298
Q

The oil red O stain might be used to demonstrate:

Rhabdomyosarcomas
Leiomyosarcomas
Liposarcomas
Adenocarcinomas

A

Liposarcomas

299
Q

The best stain for the demonstration of Mycobacterium leprae is the:

Fite
PAS
Kinyoun
Gram

A

Fite

300
Q

The PAS reaction will demonstrate fungi, because the cell wall contains:

Lipids
Carbohydrates
Reducing substances
Argyrophilic protein

A

Carbohydrates

301
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:

Gomori chromium hematoxylin
Fontana-Masson
von Kossa silver nitrate
Schmorl method

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

302
Q

The Perl’s stain is used for the detection of:

Reducing substances
Hemosiderin
Hemoglobin
Calcium

A

Hemosiderin

303
Q

A tissue frequently used as a control for the Fontana-Masson stain is:

Skin
Lymph node
Liver
Spleen

A

Skin

304
Q

Toluidine blue stains:

Helicobacter
Legionella
Spirochetes
Chlamydia

A

Helicobacter

305
Q

Acridine orange demonstrates:

Cell wall
Mitochondria
Nucleic acid
Flagella

A

Nucleic acid

306
Q

Spirochetes in fixed tissue are best demonstrated by:

Histochemical techniques
Vital staining
Metallic impregnation
Physical methods

A

Metallic impregnation

307
Q

Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the fibers is classified as:

Smooth
Visceral
Skeletal
Cardiac

A

Skeletal

308
Q

The terms “squamous,” “cuboidal,” and “columnar” describe cells that have their origin in which tissue?

Connective
Muscle
Epithelium
Bone

A

Epithelium

309
Q

Another name for fat cells is:

APUD cells
Myocytes
Adipocytes
Histiocytes

A

Adipocytes

310
Q

Elastic fibers have an affinity for:

Sudan
Indigo
Brazilin
Orcein

A

Orcein

311
Q

Transitional epithelium refers to:

Endothelium
Urothelium
Mesothelium
Metaplasia

A

Urothelium

312
Q

Which of the following histological features is unique to cardiac muscle?

Cross-striations
Peripherally located nuclei
Intercalated discs
Non-branching fibers

A

Intercalated discs

313
Q

In addition to its ability to stain argentaffin cell granules, the Fontana-Masson technique may also be used to stain:

Lipids
Collagen
Melanin
Spirochetes

A

Melanin

314
Q

A delicate three-dimensional connective tissue meshwork that forms the framework of organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, is made of:

Elastic fibers
Reticular fibers
Smooth muscle
Basement membrane

A

Reticular fibers

315
Q

The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:

Plasma cells
Mast cells
Macrophages
Fibroblasts

A

Fibroblasts

316
Q

An example of an exogenous pigment is:

Argentaffin
Melanin
Chromaffin
Carbon

A

Carbon

317
Q

The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for COPPER is the:

Chloranilic acid
Rhodanine
Orcein
Aldehyde fuchsin

A

Rhodanine

318
Q

The nerve process carrying electrical impulses away from the cell body is called a(n):

Neuron
Dendrite
Synapse
Axon

A

Axon

Dendrites bring electrical signals to the cell body and axons take information away from the cell body.

319
Q

Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, and bile pigment are classified as:

Endogenous pigments
Artifact pigments
Exogenous pigments
Extraneous pigments

A

Endogenous pigments

320
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:

Carcinomas
Lipomas
Sarcomas
Fibromas

A

Sarcomas

321
Q

A rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant tumor, skeletal muscle) is suspected in a biopsy submitted to the laboratory. To aid in making a definitive diagnosis, a helpful stain would be the:

Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)
Gomori aldehyde fuchsin
Verhoeff-van Gieson
Periodic acid Schiff

A

Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)

322
Q

The use of mounting media makes stained tissue components more visible by:

Distinguishing only the nuclei
Distinguishing only the cytoplasm
Destaining after hematoxylin
Improving the index of refraction

A

Improving the index of refraction

323
Q

Neuritic plaques of Alzheimer’s disease consist of abnormal cell processes often in close proximity to deposits of:

Amyloid
Phospholipids
Neuromelanin
Astrocytes

A

Amyloid

324
Q

A disorder involving excess iron deposition in tissues, with resultant TISSUE DAMAGE, is known as:

Hemosiderosis
Hemoglobinemia
Hemophilia
Hemochromatosis

A

Hemochromatosis

325
Q

Start of renewal of Clinical Laboratory License:

October 1
November 1
December 1
January 1

A

October 1

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

326
Q

Which of the following can only be done in a tertiary category laboratory?

Crossmatching
Routine chemistry
Routine hematology
Special hematology

A

Special hematology

327
Q

All are qualifications of the Board of Medical Technology, except:

-Filipino citizen
-Good moral character
-Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT
-In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment
-Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to appointment

A

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.

MT review (26 decks)

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