Assessment HISTOMTLE Flashcards

1
Q

This type of epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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2
Q

Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

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3
Q

It forms the linings of the urinary bladder, the ureters and part of the urethra (organs which are subject to considerable stretching):

Stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium

A

Transitional epithelium

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4
Q

Long, cylindrical and multinucleate, they have obvious striations, and can be controlled voluntarily:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

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5
Q

Uninucleate branching cells that fight tightly together at junctions called intercalated disks:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Cardiac muscle

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6
Q

With single nucleus and are spindle-shaped, no striations are visible:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Visceral muscle

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7
Q

What is the stem cell precursor of most connective tissues?

Macrophage
Mesenchymal
Adipocytes
Plasma cells

A

Mesenchymal

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8
Q

Elastic cartilage EXCEPT:

Intervertebral discs
External ear
Walls of the Eustachian tubes
Epiglottis

A

Intervertebral discs

Intervertebral discs: FIBROCARTILAGE

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9
Q

Which one of the listed statements is the best histologic definition of an
abscess?

A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris
A localized defect that results from the sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue
from the surface of an organ
A localized proliferation of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
An aggregate of two or more activated macrophages
The excessive secretion of mucus from a mucosal surface

A

a. A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris

An abscess is a localized collection of neutrophils and necrotic debris. It is basically a localized form of suppurative (purulent) inflammation, which is associated with pyogenic bacteria and is characterized by edema fluid admixed with neutrophils and necrotic cells (liquefactive necrosis or pus).

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10
Q

Cells provide a structural framework for the skin and play a critical role in
WOUND HEALING:

Basophils
Fibroblasts
Lymphocytes
Monocytes and macrophages

A

b. Fibroblasts

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11
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of:

Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
Increased vascular permeability of venules
Vasoconstriction of muscular arteries
Vasodilation of arterioles

A

e. Vasodilation of arterioles

Inflammation can be defined as the reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury.
Celsus originally described four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor
(swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). Virchow later added a fifth sign, loss of function
(functio laesa).
Redness (rubor) and heat (calor) are primarily the result of increased blood flow secondary
to vasodilation of arterioles.

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12
Q

During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular
permeability causes the formation of exudates (inflammatory
edema).Which one of the listed cell types is the most likely source of the
histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability?

Endothelial cells
Fibroblast
Lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils

A

Mast cells

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13
Q

Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Suppurative or purulent

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14
Q

Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Serous

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15
Q

It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

True hypertrophy

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16
Q

It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or appendicitis):

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

False hypertrophy

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17
Q

An increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of the individual cells:

Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy

A

Hypertrophy

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18
Q

A reversible change involving the transformation of one type of cell to
another:

Anaplasia
Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Neoplasia

A

Metaplasia

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19
Q

Microscopically, the hallmark of this type necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into ‘TOMBSTONES’ :

Caseous necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Liquefaction necrosis

A

Coagulation necrosis

Outlines of the cells are retained so that the cell type can still be recognized but their cytoplasmic and nuclear details are lost.

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20
Q

A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis within the ventricle can best be described as:

Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis

A

Coagulative necrosis

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21
Q

A special form of cell death produced by the tubercle bacillus:

Liquefaction necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis

A

Caseous necrosis

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22
Q

Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION:

Heart
Liver
Lungs
Kidney

A

Liver

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23
Q

Cytological picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class III

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24
Q

Cytological picture strongly suggestive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class IV

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25
Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue origin, which have less tendency to produce supporting tissue or stroma. Carcinoma Sarcoma Polyps or papillomas Adenoma
Carcinoma
26
Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intercellular tissue framework. Carcinoma Sarcoma Polyps or papillomas Adenoma
Sarcoma
27
A 57-year-old male presents with signs of fatigue that are the result of anemia. Workup reveals that his anemia is the result of bleeding from a colon cancer located in the sigmoid colon. The lesion is resected and at the time of surgery no metastatic disease is found. Which of the listed markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of possible metastatic disease from his colon cancer? α fetoprotein (AFP) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) Chloroacetate esterase (CAE) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) ## Footnote Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein associated with many cancers including adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and breast. It is used clinically to follow up patients with certain malignancies, such as colon cancer, and to evaluate them for recurrence or metastases.
28
A 23-year-old female presents with the recent onset of vaginal discharge. Physical examination reveals multiple clear vesicles on her vulva and vagina. A smear of material obtained from one of these vesicles reveals several multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions and ground-glass nuclei. These vesicles are most likely the result of an infection with Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Human papillomavirus (HPV) Candida albicans Trichomonas vaginalis
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) ## Footnote Infection by herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is recognized by nuclear homogenization (ground-glass nuclei), intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A bodies), and the formation of multinucleated cells.
29
Programmed cell death is called: Necrosis Apoptosis Cellular senescence Terminal differentiation
Apoptosis
30
Physiologic death of cells, indicating the death of a group of cells with immediate regeneration of cells of the same type. Hyaline degeneration Fatty metamorphosis Necrosis Necrobiosis
Necrobiosis
31
A postmortem clot is most likely to: Grossly display features of recanalization Grossly have lines of Zahn Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly” Microscopically appear attached to the wall of the blood vessel Microscopically have alternating layers of cells and platelets
Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly” ## Footnote The postmortem clot is usually rubbery, gelatinous, and lacks fibrin strands and attachments to the vessel wall. Large postmortem clots may have a “chicken fat” appearance overlying a dark “currant jelly” base.
32
This autopsy technique is characterized by in situ dissection: Virchow Rokitansky Ghon Letulle
Rokitansky
33
A person died of unknown disease, the physician would like to know the final diagnosis. Who is authorized to give consent for autopsy? The deceased himself Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased The attending physician NBI must perform autopsy
Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased
34
Father of Pathology: George Nicholas Papanicolaou Rudolf Carl Virchow Hippocrates Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Rudolf Carl Virchow
35
Father of Cytopathology: George Nicholas Papanicolaou Rudolf Carl Virchow Hippocrates Anton van Leeuwenhoek
George Nicholas Papanicolaou
36
It is generally used in histochemistry and during operative procedures, and is the most rapid of the commonly available freezing agents: Liquid nitrogen Isopentane Carbon dioxide gas Aerosol spray
Liquid nitrogen
37
Freeze-drying is a special way of preserving tissues by rapid freezing (quenching) of fresh tissue and subsequently removing ice water molecules (desiccation) by a physical process of transferring the still frozen tissue block in a vacuum at a higher temperature (sublimation). Which of the following is the correct procedure? Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –160C Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –160C Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –40C Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C
38
The first and most critical step in histotechnology? Fixation Clearing Infiltration Embedding
Fixation
39
Which of the following organ should be fixed before “grossing” or sectioning? Liver Lungs Heart Brain
Brain
40
The primary aim of fixation: Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling Act as mordant or accentuators Inhibit bacterial decomposition
Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
41
The secondary goal of fixation: Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling Act as mordant or accentuators Inhibit bacterial decomposition
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
42
Traditionally, the amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently the maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be ____ times the tissue volume. 10 12 15 20
20
43
Immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation): Heat fixation Microwave fixation Cryopreservation (freeze drying) Physical fixation Chemical fixation
Chemical fixation ## Footnote Fixation of tissues can be achieved by chemical or physical means. Physical methods include heating, micro-waving and cryo-preservation (freeze drying). Chemical fixation is usually achieved by immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation).
44
Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT: Zenker's fluid Helly's fluid Orth's fluid Regaud's fluid
Zenker's fluid
45
Simplest aldehyde: Formaldehyde (methanal) Acetaldehyde (ethanal) Propionaldehyde (propanal) Butyraldehyde (butanal)
Formaldehyde (methanal)
46
Commercial formalin is buffered with _______ at a pH of 7. Citrate EDTA Phosphate Any of these
Phosphate ## Footnote Commercial formalin is buffered with phosphate at a pH of 7.
47
Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid Zenker Helly Bouin Zamboni
Bouin
48
Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride? Zenker Helly Carnoy Orth
Helly
49
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain: 4% formaldehyde 10% formaldehyde 37% to 40% formaldehyde 98% to 100% formaldehyde
37% to 40% formaldehyde
50
Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by: Running water Alcoholic iodine Alcoholic picric acid Potassium permanganate
Alcoholic picric acid
51
Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution: Decreases the tissue autolysis Decreases the fixative penetration Increases the speed of fixation Increases the volume of fixative needed
Increases the speed of fixation
52
To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions? Methyl alcohol Formic acid Paraformaldehyde Sodium phosphate
Methyl alcohol
53
All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by: Saturated solution of iodine Sodium thiosulfate Distilled water Saturated solution of picric acid
Saturated solution of iodine
54
All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT: Bouin's Brasil's Carnoy's Gendre's
Carnoy's
55
An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely: Melanin Hemosiderin Formalin pigment Mercurial pigment
Formalin pigment
56
All of the following statements are true for Carnoy’s fluid, EXCEPT: It is considered to be the most rapid fixative It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide Recommended for chromosome, lymph glands and urgent biopsies It fixes and dehydrates at the same time
It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide
57
It is considered to be the most rapid fixative: Carnoy's fluid Helly's solution Orth's fluid Regaud's fluid
Carnoy's fluid
58
Fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially the skin: Moller's fluid Newcomer's fluid Orth's fluid Heidenhain's Susa solution
Heidenhain’s Susa solution
59
Fixative recommended for the study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis/ demonstrate Rickettsiae and other bacteria: Acetone Orth's fluid Ethyl alcohol Bouin's solution
Orth's fluid
60
Fixative used in preserving brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies: Methyl alcohol Acetone Osmic acid Flemming's solution without acetic acid
Acetone
61
Neutral formalin may be prepared from 40% formaldehyde by adding: 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 30 mL water 1 part 40% formaldehyde to 39 parts water 1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water
62
Tissue is soft when block is trimmed: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Incomplete clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete fixation
63
Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Incomplete clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete dehydration
64
Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of alcohol. Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Insufficient clearing Incomplete impregnation
Insufficient clearing
65
Air holes found during trimming: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Insufficient clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete impregnation
66
An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Workup reveals decreased left ventricular filling due to decreased compliance of the left ventricle. Two months later the patient dies, and postmortem sections reveal deposits of eosinophilic, CONGO RED-POSITIVE material in the interstitium of his heart. When viewed under polarized light, this material displays an apple-green birefringence. What is the correct diagnosis? Amyloidosis Glycogenosis Hemochromatosis Sarcoidosis Senile atrophy
Amyloidosis ## Footnote The histologic diagnosis of amyloid is based solely on its special staining characteristics. It stains pink with the routine hematoxylin and eosin stain, but, with Congo red stain, amyloid stains dark red and has an apple-green birefringence when viewed under polarized light.
67
The most common and fastest decalcifying agent used as simple solution or combines with other reagents. Hydrochloric acid Nitric acid Formic acid Sulfurous acid
Nitric acid
68
Composition of von Ebner’s fluid: Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl alcohol Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water Trichloroacetic acid, formol saline Chromic acid, osmium tetoxide, acetic acid
Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water
69
Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification: Physical test Chemical test X-ray or radiological test All of these
X-ray or radiological test
70
Which of the following is a dehydrating agent? Formalin Xylene Benzene Alcohol
Alcohol
71
Dioxane is a reagent that can be used: For both fixing and dehydrating tissues For both dehydrating and clearing tissues In very small volume ratios For long periods without changing
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
72
All of the following are CLEARING AGENTS, EXCEPT: Chloroform Dioxane Ethanol Xylene
Ethanol
73
It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable for urgent biopsies and clears within 15 to 30 minutes. Xylene Toluene Benzene Chloroform
Xylene
74
Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA: Xylene Toluene Benzene Chloroform
Benzene
75
It is especially recommended for cutting extremely hard and rough tissue blocks. Rocking microtome Rotary microtome Sliding microtome Freezing microtome
Sliding microtome
76
Celloidin embedded tissues are usually cut by means of: Rocking microtome Rotary microtome Sliding microtome Freezing microtome
Sliding microtome
77
This type of hone usually gives the best result. It is used for manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt or nicked. Fine carborundum Arkansas Belgium yellow
Belgium yellow
78
The knife is first fitted with the appropriate knife back, then laid obliquely on the strop and with the cutting edge behind (edge last) is pushed backward and drawn forward in a toe to heel direction. Honing Stropping
Stropping
79
During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the: Presence of water in the clearing agent pH of the fixative Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin Freshness of the reagents on the processor
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
80
When the magnification can be changed without the need to refocus, the microscope objectives are said to be: Parfocal Binocular Achromatic Apochromatic
Parfocal
81
A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes: Embeddol Bioloid Tissue mat Ester wax
Bioloid
82
It has a lower melting point of 46 to 48C, but it is harder than paraffin. Embeddol Bioloid Tissue mat Ester wax
Ester wax
83
It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber, with the same property as paraplast. Embeddol Bioloid Tissue mat Ester wax
Tissue mat
84
The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the: Bones and teeth Large brain blocks Whole organs Eyes
Eyes
85
Dip and dunk” machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed: Tissue transfer Fluid transfer Heat transfer Linear transport
Tissue transfer ## Footnote TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS 1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed 2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required
86
Tissues are subjected to a series of different reagents in an ENCLOSED PROCESSOR by: Tissue transfer Fluid transfer Heat transfer Linear transport
Fluid transfer ## Footnote TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS 1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed 2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required
87
“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable ______ paraffin wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome. Commercial wax Analytical wax Technical wax Histological wax
Histological wax ## Footnote “Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable histological wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.
88
Tissue is soft when block is trimmed: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Incomplete clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete fixation
89
Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Incomplete clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete dehydration
90
Airholes found on tissue during trimming: Incomplete fixation Incomplete dehydration Insufficient clearing Incomplete impregnation
Incomplete impregnation
91
Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain: Fat Glycogen Nuclei Cytoplasm
Nuclei
92
Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the nucleus with: Acidified hematoxylin Non-acidified hematoxylin Acidified eosin Non-acidified eosin
Non-acidified hematoxylin ## Footnote Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the NUCLEUS with a NON-ACIDIFIED HEMATOXYLIN such as Harris's.
93
The action of the dye is intensified by adding another agent or mordant: Direct staining Indirect staining Progressive staining Regressive staining
Indirect staining
94
Mordants are used to: Change the refractive index of the tissue Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye Help differentiate stains Oxidize staining solutions
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
95
It involves a differentiation or decolorization step: Direct staining Indirect staining Progressive staining Regressive staining
Regressive staining
96
Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to: Keep heterochromatin from staining Make nuclear staining more specific Ripen the hematoxylin Form a dye lake
Make nuclear staining more specific
97
Possible correction when hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows UNEVEN NUCLEAR STAINING and "BLUE BLOBS" lacking distinct chromatin patterns: Restain with H & E stain Change paraffin and reprocess tissue Change reagents and reprocess tissue No correction
Change reagents and reprocess tissue ## Footnote Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows uneven nuclear staining and "blue blobs" lacking distinct chromatin patterns POSSIBLE CAUSE: If tissue was fixed properly, then sample was improperly dehydrated and infiltrated with paraffin CORRECTION: Change reagents and reprocess tissue on proper processing protocol
98
Vital dye especially recommended for mitochondria: Nile blue Neutral red Janus green Toluidine blue
Janus green
99
Oldest stain: Hematoxylin Orcein Carmine Iodine
Iodine
100
It is the most common method used for the demonstration of basement membrane, particularly the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, due to their CHO content. Gomori’s stain Mallory’s PTAH Periodic acid Schiff Congo red
Periodic acid Schiff
101
A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue: Masson trichrome van Gieson Best carmine Aldehyde fuchsin
Masson trichrome
102
The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating: Edema fluid Muscle striations Ground substance Reticulin network
Muscle striations
103
DNA can be demonstrated with: Eosin Pyronin Feulgen reaction Fast green
Feulgen reaction
104
Toluidine blue is used to demonstrate which of the following cells? Plasma cells Mast cells Fibroblasts Macrophages
Mast cells
105
Most sensitive lipid stain known: Sudan Black B Sudan III Sudan IV Oil red O
Sudan Black B
106
A copper phthalocyanine dye that is used for MYELIN STAINING of paraffin processed tissue: Perl’s Prussian blue Luxol fast blue Gmelin technique Sodium alizarin red S
Luxol fast blue
107
Astrocytes are demonstrated by which of the following procedures? Luxol fast blue Cresyl violet Weil's Cajal's
Cajal's ## Footnote Cajal’s gold sublimate method for astrocytes Mod. Holzer’s method for astrocytic process
108
A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the: Fontana silver nitrate Congo red von Kossa silver nitrate Schmorl method
von Kossa silver nitrate
109
Rhodanine is used to demonstrate: Ferric iron Copper Calcium Urate crystals
Copper ## Footnote Rhodanine stain is used in histology to identify copper deposits.
110
The recommended stain for all parasitic blood work: Giemsa Wright Jenner May-Grunwald
Giemsa
111
Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with: Auramine-rhodamine Methyl green- pyronine Acridine orange Fluoresceine isothiocyanate
Acridine orange
112
Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for demonstration of malarial parasite: Brightfield microscope Fluorescent microscope Polarizing microscope Phase-contrast microscope
Fluorescent microscope
113
When an antibody labeled with a chromogen is reacted with tissue from a patient, the immunohistochemical technique is called: Direct Indirect Avidin-biotin-complex Soluble enzyme immune complex
Direct
114
This system is designed to: (1) Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness; (2) Identify and address errors and omissions; (3) Document and archive inventory material and record all these activities. Quality assurance Quality control Continuous quality improvement Total quality management
Quality control ## Footnote Quality Control (QC) is a system of routine technical activities to assess and maintain the quality of the inventory as it is being compiled. It is performed by personnel compiling the inventory. The QC system is designed to: 1. Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness; 2. Identify and address errors and omissions; 3. Document and archive inventory material and record all QC activities. QC activities include general methods such as accuracy checks on data acquisition and calculations, and the use of approved standardized procedures for emission and removal calculations, measurements, estimating uncertainties, archiving information and reporting. QC activities also include technical reviews of categories, activity data, emission factors, other estimation parameters, and methods. Quality Assurance (QA) is a planned system of review procedures conducted by personnel not directly involved in the inventory compilation/development process. Reviews, preferably by independent third parties, are performed upon a completed inventory following the implementation of QC procedures.
115
The traditional model for infectious disease. It consists of an external AGENT, a susceptible HOST, and an ENVIRONMENT that brings the host and agent together. Chain of infection Chain of custody Epidemiological triad Universal health
Epidemiological triad ## Footnote EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD REMEMBER "AHE" - Agent, Host and Environment A number of models of disease causation have been proposed. Among the simplest of these is the EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD OR TRIANGLE, the traditional model for infectious disease. The triad consists of an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the host and agent together. In this model, disease results from the interaction between the agent and the susceptible host in an environment that supports transmission of the agent from a source to that host.
116
Buffer used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP
2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
117
Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program? Calibration Preventive maintenance Viral marker testing Record keeping
Viral marker testing
118
Manual records can be corrected as long as: The original entry is neither obliterated nor deleted The person making the correction dates and initials the change The item to be corrected is crossed off with a single line All of the above
All of the above
119
What is the purpose of competency assessment? Identify employees in need of retraining Identify employees who need to be fired Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge during a job interview All of the above
Identify employees in need of retraining
120
All of the following statements are true regarding internal audits except that they: Help identify problems early Ensure continuous quality improvement efforts Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers” Are one of the many responsibilities of the QA unit
Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers”
121
Employees are the core of an organization, and therefore they: Must be trained Must report errors without fear of reprisal Are a key part of problem solving All of the above
All of the above
122
All blood banks as mandated by law must have a: Water fountain Written laboratory safety program BSC Foot-operated hand wash
Written laboratory safety program
123
Goggles, face shields, and splash barriers are: -Personal protective equipment -Not necessary unless working with HIV-positive or HBV-positive specimens -Mandated at all times when working with blood specimens and blood products provided by the employee if needed -Provided by the employee if needed
Personal protective equipment
124
The most effective defense for infection control and safety is wearing gloves and: Goggles Laboratory coats Posting warning signs Hand washing
Hand washing
125
The reporting of an accident or injury should occur when any: Injury may result in a fatality Injury involves possible infection with HIV or HBV Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes a patient Accident or injury occurs
Accident or injury occurs
126
One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with: Health insurance Safety education Rest breaks Fluid-repellent laboratory coats
Safety education
127
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory manager. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate way to handle such a situation? -Nothing should be changed, it was handled appropriately -The manager should have posted the change on the bulletin board in the breakroom -The manager should have announced the policy on each shift -The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
128
What is the most important role of the manager in charge? Independent decision making Communication Informal discussions None of the above
Communication
129
Which of the following is a benefit of teams in the work place? Sense of accomplishment Increased communication Relief for employees All of the above
All of the above
130
Which of the following arrangements offers the most instrument service coverage and “piece of mind” for laboratory managers? -Pay as needed for time and materials -Establishing a service contract for key instruments -Fingers crossed that nothing breaks down -Order new instruments when the warranty runs out on the old one
Establishing a service contract for key instruments
131
Which of the following components should not be included in a written procedure? Test method Cost per billable test Quality control procedures Reagents and media needs
Cost per billable test
132
You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory manager has asked you to evaluate two new methods for cholesterol analysis. In your evaluation, you found that method A was very accurate and precise and that method B was not very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory will make more money by investing in method B. Which of the following decisions would exhibit professionalism? -Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results -Recommend method B to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory make as much money as possible -State that you are unable to make a recommendation, because no difference in the methods was noted -Recommend that you need more time to evaluate both methods
Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results
133
Which statement describes the appropriate scheduling process? -Matching the people presently working in the laboratory with current workload requirements -The setting of long-term goals and objectives for the number and types of personnel needed to meet the labor requirements of the laboratory -Allow a democratic approach and have the staff schedule when they want to work -Placing all of the experienced personnel on one shift
Matching the people presently working in the laboratory with current workload requirements ## Footnote An effective manager will schedule the appropriate personnel to the workload requirements. Scheduling is an immediate and ongoing process versus workload management, which is a long- range planning process, and a free-for-all in a democratic schedule can create gaps in a schedule. A balance of experienced personnel on all shifts is an appropriate scheduling process.
134
Which of the following is a goal of an interview? Establish social contacts Evaluate applicant’s skills and personality Discuss the religious background of the applicant Discuss prior arrests of the applicant
Evaluate applicant’s skills and personality
135
Records of a patient’s laboratory test results may not be released without his or her consent to anyone outside the clinical laboratory except to the: American Red Cross Department of Health and Human Services Insurance carrier Physician who ordered the tests
Physician who ordered the tests
136
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services Laboratory supervisor Laboratory director and administrator Laboratory manager
Laboratory supervisor ## Footnote LABORATORY SUPERVISORS Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently Plan, organize, direct, and control job
137
Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently Laboratory supervisor Laboratory director and administrator Laboratory manager
Laboratory manager ## Footnote LABORATORY SUPERVISORS Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently Plan, organize, direct, and control job
138
It is a statistical modification of the original Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) method adopted by the The Joint Commission (TJC) as a guideline for health-care organizations. The primary goal is to reduce variables and decrease errors to a level of 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities Chain of custody Lean Six sigma Standard Precautions
Six sigma
139
It utilizes a tool called “6S, ” which stands for: sort, straighten, scrub, safety, standardize, and sustain. The focus is on the elimination of waste to allow a facility to do more with less and at the same time increase customer and employee satisfaction. Chain of custody Lean Six sigma Standard Precautions
Lean
140
Black belts dedicate _____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems. 20% 50% 80% 100%
100%
141
Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions. 20% 50% 80% 100%
20%
142
Mid- to senior-level sponsors who review the project, remove organizational barriers, and encourage the team members. White belts Green belts Black belts Blue belts
Blue belts
143
Smaller scale improvement projects typically headed by ____ belts use the same Lean Six Sigma principles condensed over 1 week to improve more focused and limited processes. White belts Brown belts Yellow belts Purple belts
Purple belts
144
The four essential functions of a manager are: -Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating -Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing -Planning, organizing, directing, controlling -Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem-solving
Planning, organizing, directing, controlling ## Footnote While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling. Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules. Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training. Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership. Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.
145
Direct laboratory costs for tests include which of the following? Equipment maintenance Insurance Depreciation Overtime pay
Overtime pay ## Footnote All costs that are specifically linked to a test (e.g., personnel, overtime, chemicals, supplies) are direct costs.
146
Which of the following accounts for the largest portion of the direct cost of a laboratory test? Reagents General supplies Technologist labor Instrument depreciation
Technologist labor ## Footnote Labor accounts for 60%–70% of the direct cost per test in most laboratories.
147
Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) is a team effort approach for clinical laboratories to: Identify potential problems and correct them Set lab financial benchmarks for the year Make up new codes Improve overall wages for lab employees
Identify potential problems and correct them ## Footnote The CQI team identifies problems by collecting data, analyzing it, and developing methods of correcting problems. By identifying potential problems and correcting existing problems, a high competency is achieved and potential law suits are avoided.
148
A new laboratory information system (LIS) will be evaluated by the laboratory staff. Which of the following points should be considered in the evaluation? Cost of updating software Interface ability with existing laboratory instruments Tracking of uncrossmatched blood units in Blood Bank All of these options
All of these options ## Footnote LIS: LABORATORY INFORMATION SYSTEM Each laboratory will have specific needs to determine the appropriate LIS. However,storage capacity, reliability, security, upgrade costs, instrument interface availability, inventory management, and quality control functions are common parameters that must be considered.
149
Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to: All testing done to the patient to save time All lab testing done in the central lab Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside Satellite lab testing
Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside ## Footnote Point-of-care testing saves time and is invaluable for patient care. When a device is used at the bedside of a patient to produce a laboratory result, it is considered a point-of-care instrument.
150
BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-ofcare testing (POCT) Arterial blood Venous blood Capillary blood None of these
Capillary blood ## Footnote CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT).
151
Most laboratories have a definite structure that establishes the formal setup of the various departments and levels. Which of the following refers to this structure? Administration table Laboratory directory Report of contact Organizational chart
Organizational chart ## Footnote The organizational chart shows the lines of supervision, relationships of various staff members, and interrelationships of the various departments.
152
Which of the following is not associated with the goals of a laboratory continuing education program? Staff development Improvement of laboratory functioning Compliance with accreditation requirements Prevention of boredom
Prevention of boredom ## Footnote Staff development that generally improves the capabilities of the laboratory worker, improvement of laboratory functioning through in-service programs, and the meeting of accreditation requirements are important goals of a continuing education program. These goals may be accomplished by means of seminars, journal clubs, lectures, workshops, and so forth.
153
Which of the following refers to a program where the overall activities conducted by the institution are directed toward assuring the quality of the products and services provided? Quality control Quality assurance Total quality management Continuous quality improvement
Quality assurance ## Footnote Quality assurance (QA) developed out of the limitations of the QC approach and defined quality in healthcare institutions by the success of the total organization, not just individual components of the system, in achieving the goals of patient care.
154
Chain-of-custody procedures must be followed for: Blood specimens for alcohol level determination Routine urinalysis for glucose and ketones Therapeutic drug threshold determinations Throat swabs of group A beta streptococcus screening
Blood specimens for alcohol level determination ## Footnote Chain of custody: When results of laboratory testing are to be used in a court of law, a specific chain of documentation is required, whereby all steps of the testing are recorded, from specimen collection to the issuing of the results report.
155
Preanalytical variables in laboratory testing include: Result accuracy Report delivery to the ordering physician Test turnaround time Specimen acceptability
Specimen acceptability ## Footnote Preanalytical (i.e. pre-examination) variables include all steps in the process prior to the analytic phase of testing, starting with the physician’s order. Examples include accuracy of transmission of physician’s orders, specimen transport and preparation, requisition accuracy, quality of phlebotomy services, specimen acceptability rates, etc.
156
Using a common labeling system for hazardous material identification such as NFPA, the top red quadrant represent which hazard? Health hazard Fire hazard Specific hazard Reactivity
Fire hazard ## Footnote HAZARDUS MATERIALS CLASSIFICATION BLUE: Health hazard RED: Fire hazard WHITE: Specific hazard YELLOW: Reactivity
157
The best way to motivate an ineffective employee would be to: Confirm low performance with subjective data Set short-term goals for the employee Transfer the employee to another department Ignore failure to meet goals
Set short-term goals for the employee
158
The most important aspect of supervision is: Balancing the budget Performing technical procedures Writing accurate job descriptions Dealing with people
Dealing with people
159
On repeated occasions, the day shift supervisor has observed a technologist on the night shift sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial course of action for the day supervisor? Ignore the repeated incidents Discuss the incidents with the technologist’s immediate supervisor Notify the personnel department Advise the laboratory director
Discuss the incidents with the technologist’s immediate supervisor ## Footnote The first step in progressive counseling is verbal counseling.
160
Which of the following ISO standard applies to the clinical laboratory? ISO 9000 ISO 7000 ISO 15436 ISO 15189
ISO 15189 ## Footnote THERE ARE TWO (2) ISO STANDARD THAT APPLY TO THE CLINICAL LABORATORY: 1. ISO 15189 MEDICAL LABORATORIES – PARTICULAR REQUIREMENT FOR QUALITY AND COMPETENCE, 2007 2. ISO/IEC 17025 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALITY AND COMPETENCE OF TESTING AND CALIBRATION LABORATORIES, 2005
161
Which of the following published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP)? Department of Health - Philippines World Health Organization National Reference Laboratories Philippine Association of Medical Technologists
Philippine Association of Medical Technologists ## Footnote WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR 1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999 2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995 3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001
162
In what phase of the management process does the manager gather together the necessary resources and people and develop an organizational structure to put the formal plan into action? Directing Planning Organizing Controlling
Organizing ## Footnote MANAGEMENT PROCESS 1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback. 2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship. 3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation. 4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications
163
Which management function is LEADERSHIP considered the fulfillment of: Planning Organizing Directing Controlling
Directing ## Footnote MANAGEMENT PROCESS 1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback. 2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship. 3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation. 4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications
164
Which management function does staffing of the laboratory fulfill? Planning Organizing Directing Controlling
Planning ## Footnote MANAGEMENT PROCESS 1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback. 2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship. 3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation. 4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications
165
Which management function is responsible for monitoring the standards and feedback mechanisms set in place when objectives were established during the planning stage? Directing Planning Organizing Controlling
Controlling ## Footnote MANAGEMENT PROCESS 1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback. 2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship. 3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation. 4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications
166
If the laboratory manager wishes to determine the number of phlebotomists needed to provide emergency room coverage on Sunday nights during the 11:00 to 7:00 shift, which one of the decision-making procedures may prove the most useful? Probability analysis Queuing theory Simulation Linear programming
Queuing theory ## Footnote QUANTITATIVE TOOLS 1. Probability analysis Measures risk by assigning a value, expressed in percentage to the likelihood of a specific event occurring 2. Queuing theory Provides recommendations for the number of staff (phlebotomists, clerks, technical personnel, and so on) needed to handle an unpredictable workload 3. Linear programming A tool for allocating limited resources among competing needs 4. Simulation Designs models to imitate real-life conditions so the different intervention scenarios can be compared
167
According to AO 2007-0027, what are the services done only in a tertiary category laboratory? CHECK FOUR (4) BOXES. -Routine hematology -Qualitative platelet determination -Quantitative platelet determination -Immunology -KOH, Gram-staining -Culture and sensitivity -Routine chemistry -Crossmatching -Special chemistry -Special hematology including coagulation procedures
Immunology Culture and sensitivity Special chemistry Special hematology including coagulation procedures ## Footnote PRIMARY CATEGORY 1. Routine Hematology 2. Qualitative Platelet Determination 3. Routine Urinalysis 4. Routine Fecalysis 5. Blood Typing – for hospital-based SECONDARY CATEGORY 1. Services of primary category laboratory 2. Routine Clinical Chemistry 3. Quantitative Platelet Determination 4. Cross-matching – for hospital-based 5. Gram staining – for hospital-based 6. KOH – for hospital-based TERTIARY CATEGORY 1. Services of secondary category laboratory 2. Special Chemistry 3. Special Hematology, including coagulation procedures 4. Immunology 5. Microbiology – culture and sensitivity
168
Components of an information system consist of all of the following except: Hardware Software Validation People
Validation ## Footnote A computer system includes three major components: hardware, software, and people. Hardware components are the physical pieces of equipment. Software is a set of instructions written in computer language that tells the computer how to operate and manipulate the data. The people interface with the hardware to enter the data that are manipulated by the software. Just as there are many different kinds of people who enter data, so there are many different kinds of hardware and software.
169
An example of INTERFACE software functionality is: The entry of blood components into the blood bank database The transmission of patient information from the HIS into the blood bank system The printing of a workload report Preventing access to the system by an unauthorized
The transmission of patient information from the HIS into the blood bank system
170
User passwords should be: Shared with others Kept confidential Posted at each terminal Never changed
Kept confidential
171
The four essential functions of a manager are: Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing Planning, organizing, directing, controlling Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem-solving
Planning, organizing, directing, controlling ## Footnote While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling. Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules. Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training. Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership. Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.
172
Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens? Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area
Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands ## Footnote According to the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Rule of 1992, gloves and lab coats are to be removed after disinfection of the work area.
173
The material safety data sheets (MSDSs) for hazardous chemicals address which of the following conditions? Physical characteristics of the chemical Safe handling and storage of the chemical Specific health hazards associated with the chemical All of these
All of these ## Footnote The MSDS documents describe the chemical and physical characteristics, safe handling and storage, and potential health hazards of reagents used in the laboratory. These documents must be located in an easily accessible place so that all employees have access to them. They should be reviewed at least once per year during safety in service training.
174
The OSHA hazard communication standard, the “RIGHT-TO-KNOW” rule, is designed: To avoid lawsuits To protect laboratory staff To protect patients To establish safety standards
To protect laboratory staff ## Footnote Legislation on chemical hazard precautions, such as state “right-to-know” laws, and OSHA document 29 CFR 1910 set the standards for chemical hazard communication (HAZCOM) and determine the types of documents that must be on file in a laboratory
175
“Six sigma” is a method used in industry and business as well as the clinical laboratory in order to: Allow for improved performance Prevent and remove defects in production Improve customer satisfaction All of these
All of these ## Footnote Six sigma management is a method for measuring the efficiency of a process such as mass production, and it is applied in the clinical laboratory to reduce the frequency of test errors. The process consists of five steps: define, measure, analyze, improve, and control. The term “six sigma” denotes a process so precise that six times the standard deviation still results in a useful product (laboratory test result that is within acceptable limits for total allowable error).
176
DEMOGRAPHIC INFORMATION about the patient in the information database, EXCEPT: Name and gender Age and birth date (DOB) Referring or attending physician Marital status
Marital status
177
SITUATION: A medical laboratory science student in training accidentally splashed a few drops of an extraction reagent from an enzyme immunoassay kit for group A Streptococcus into her right eye, and felt an immediate burning sensation. What should she do first? Locate the MSDS sheet for the EIA test kit Go directly to the emergency department for treatment Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water Report directly to her immediate supervisor
Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water ## Footnote When a chemical compound comes into contact with the skin or eyes, the first course of action is to dilute the chemical by flooding it with a large volume of water.
178
Certificate of registration as Medical Technologist shall not be required for which of the following? Duly registered physicians MT from other countries called in for consultation or as visiting or exchange professors Medical technologists in the service of the US Armed Forces stationed in the Philippines All of these
All of these
179
Qualification for Medical Technologist examination: Good health and good moral character Completed a course of at least four (4) years leading to the degree of BSMT/ PH Graduated from some other profession and has been actually performing medical technology for the last (5) years prior to the date of the examinations, if such performance began prior to June 21, 1969 All of these
All of these
180
In cases where the screening drug-testing laboratory is a division, section, or unit of a Clinical Laboratory, it shall be headed by: Licensed physician Medical technologist Pharmacist Chemist, chemical engineer All of these
All of these
181
A drug test is valid for _________. Three months Six months One year Two years
One year ## Footnote ADDITIONAL DRUG TESTING MAY BE REQUIRED FOR JUST CAUSE AS IN ANY OF THE FOLLOWING CASES: After workplace-related accidents, including near miss; 1. Following treatment and rehabilitation to establish fitness for returning to work/resumption of job 2. In the light of clinical findings and/or upon recommendation of the assessment team.
182
The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the CLINICAL LABORATORY is valid for: One year Two years Three years Six months
One year ## Footnote Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.
183
LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service Facilities is valid for a period of ____ years. One year Two years Three years Six years
Three years ## Footnote Beginning on January 1 of the first year of the validity period to December 31 of the third year of the validity period.
184
Coliform organisms which grow at 44 or 44.5 C and ferment lactose to produce acid and gas: Fecal streptococi Thermorolerant (fecal) coliforms Heterotrophic organisms Total coliforms
Thermorolerant (fecal) coliforms ## Footnote THERMOTOLERANT (FECAL) COLIFORMS Coliform organisms which grow at 44 or 44.5 C and ferment lactose to produce acid and gas
185
According to DOH, for the diagnostic evaluation of PTB, ___ sputum specimens should be obtained for DSSM. 1 2 3 4
2 ## Footnote For the diagnostic evaluation of PTB, two (2) sputum specimens should be obtained for DSSM. Same day (spot-spot) strategy using 2 consecutive specimens collected 1-hour apart is recommended for direct Ziehl-Neelsen microscopy. AT LEAST 1 SPUTUM SMEAR POSITIVE IS CONSIDERED BACTERIOLOGICALLY CONFIRMED TB.
186
The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination. One man Two-man Three-man Four-man
Three-man ## Footnote PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora PRC COMMISSIONERS: Jose Y. Cueto, Jr. & Erwin Enad
187
An act done to avoid harming the patients: Beneficence Non-maleficence Autonomy Justice
Non-maleficence
188
First clinical laboratory in the Philippines: San Lazaro Hospital Manila Public Health Laboratory Research Institute for Tropical Medicine National Reference Laboratory
Manila Public Health Laboratory
189
Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II: Dr. Pio de Roda Dr. Mariano Icasiano Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army
26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army
190
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT: Filipino citizen, good moral character Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment
In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment ## Footnote In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment BOARD OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza Members: Marian Tantingco, Marilyn Atienza 1. Filipino citizen 2. Good moral character 3. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs 4. In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment 5. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two (2) years prior to appointment or having any pecuniary interest direct or indirect in such institution TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
191
BOARD OF MT term of office: 1 year after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified 2 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified 3 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified 5 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
3 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified ## Footnote TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
192
The current PRC CHAIRPERSON is: Dr. Marilyn Barza Dr. Jose Cueto Atty. Charito Zamora Yolanda Reyes
Atty. Charito Zamora ## Footnote PRC is a THREE-MAN COMMISSION attached to the office of the President for general direction and coordination. THE CHAIRPERSON OR COMMISSIONER SHALL BE: 1. At least forty (40) years of age 2. Holding a valid certificate of registration/professional license and a valid professional identification card or a valid certificate of competency issued by the Commission or a valid professional license issued by any government agency 3. Familiar with the principles and methods of professional regulation and/or licensing 4. Had at least five (5) years of executive or management experience 5. Provided, that, one (1) of the Commissioners must be a past Chairperson/member of a Professional Regulatory Board
193
Renewal of CLINICAL LABORATORY license: January to February March to April August to September October to November
October to November ## Footnote AO 2007-0027 (CLINICAL LABORATORIES): Renewal of LTO, FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER TO LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER; processed not later than 5 working days after expiration of its license; announced licensure inspections at any reasonable time.
194
Random drug test: Applicants for firearm’s license Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government Persons apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of the drug act Students of secondary and tertiary schools
Students of secondary and tertiary schools ## Footnote MANDATORY DRUG TEST 1. Applicants for driver’s license 2. Applicants for firearm’s license 3. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers 4. Persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of imprisonment of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day 5. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government 6. Persons apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of the drug act RANDOM DRUG TEST 1. Students of secondary and tertiary schools 2. Officers and employees of public and private offices whether domestic or overseas.
195
Current HIV testing diagnostic algorithm in the Philippines include screening test from referring labs: 3 parallel screening tests 2 parallel screening tests + 1 supplemental confirmatory test 1 screening test + 1 confirmatory test 2 parallel screening tests + 2 confirmatory tests
2 parallel screening tests + 1 supplemental confirmatory test ## Footnote CURRENT NATIONAL HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM IN THE PHILIPPINES Current HIV testing diagnostic algorithm in the Philippines include screening test from referring labs *A reactive result from the screening test will be sent to SACCL for confirmatory testing, where 2 parallel screening tests are performed *A reactive result on either of these tests will then require Western blot and/or nucleic acid test as supplemental confirmatory tests. PROPOSED RAPID HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM (rHIVda) FOR THE PHILIPPINES The Disease Prevention and Control Bureau (DPCB) of DOH, National Reference Laboratory-San Lazaro Hospital/STD AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory (NRL SLH/SACCL), and the HIV National Reference Laboratory of Australia has conducted the research study to develop a rHIVda for the Philippines *rHIVda, includes 2 immunoassay tests and 3 RDTs for local validation of sensitivity and specificity on general and key population in the country *Key population includes men who are having sex with men, people in prisons and other closed settings, people who inject drugs, sex workers, and transgender men and women
196
A process of providing an individual information on the biomedical aspects of HIV/AIDS and emotional support to any psychological implications of undergoing HIV testing and the test result itself BEFORE he/she is subjected to the test: Medical confidentiality Informed consent Pre-test counselling Post-test counselling
Pre-test counselling
197
A process of providing risk-reduction information and emotional support to a person who submitted to HIV testing at the time that the test result is released Medical confidentiality Informed consent Pre-test counselling Post-test counselling
Post-test counselling
198
According to RA 8504, all results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons, EXCEPT: Person who submitted himself/herself to such test Either parent of a minor child who has been tested Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court Boyfriend of the person who submiited herself to test
Boyfriend of the person who submitted herself to test ## Footnote RA 8504 ALL RESULTS OF HIV/AIDS TESTING SHALL BE CONFIDENTIAL AND SHALL BE RELEASED ONLY TO THE FOLLOWING PERSONS: o Person who submitted himself/herself to such test o Either parent of a minor child who has been tested o Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans o Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program o Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court (as provided under Subsection (c) of RA 8504 and on accordance with the provision of Section 16) RA 11166 DISCLOSURE OF HIV-RELATED TEST RESULTS: RESULT OF ANY TEST RELATED TO HIV SHALL BE DISCLOSED BY THE TRAINED SERVICE PROVIDER WHO CONDUCTS PRE-TEST AND POST-TEST COUNSELING TO: 1. Individual who submitted to the test 2. If the patient is <15 years old, an orphan or is mentally incapacitated, the result may be disclosed to either parent, legal guardian or a duly assigned licensed social worker or health worker, whichever is applicable. 3. If the patient is <15 years old and not suffering from any mental incapacity, has given voluntary and informed consent to the procedure, the result of the test shall be disclosed to the child, provided that the child should be given age-appropriate counseling and access to health care and sufficient support services. 4. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the DOH Monitoring Body
199
National Reference Laboratory for HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis, Syphilis and other Sexually Transmitted Infections (STls): Reasearch Institute for Tropical Medicine San Lazaro Hospital East Avenue Medical Center National Kidney and Transplant Institute Lung Center of the Philippines
San Lazaro Hospital
200
National Reference Laboratory for Dengue, Influenza, Tuberculosis and other Mycobacteria, Malaria and other parasites, Bacterial enteric diseases, Measles and other Viral exanthems, Mycology, Enteroviruses, Antimicrobial resistance and Emerging Diseases; NRL for confirmatory testing of blood units: Research Institute for Tropical Medicine San Lazaro Hospital East Avenue Medical Center Lung Center of the Philippines National Kidney and Transplant Institute
Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
201
National Reference Laboratory for Biochemistry: Research Institute for Tropical Medicine San Lazaro Hospital East Avenue Medical Center Lung Center of the Philippines National Kidney and Transplant Institute
Lung Center of the Philippines
202
National Reference Laboratory for Environmental and Occupational Health; Toxicology and Micronutrient Assay: Research Institute for Tropical Medicine San Lazaro Hospital East Avenue Medical Center Lung Center of the Philippines National Kidney and Transplant Institute
East Avenue Medical Center
203
National Reference Laboratory for Hematology including Immunohematology, Immunopathology and Anatomic Pathology: Research Institute for Tropical Medicine San Lazaro Hospital East Avenue Medical Center Lung Center of the Philippines National Kidney and Transplant Institute
National Kidney and Transplant Institute
204
Other term for METHYLENEDIOXYMETHAMPHETAMINE (MDMA): Opium Marijuana Shabu Ecstacy
Ecstacy
205
Other term for METHAMPHETAMINE HYDROCHLORIDE: Opium Marijuana Shabu Ecstacy
Shabu
206
Individual from whom a specimen is collected for drug testing: Patient Donor Coddler Pusher
Donor
207
A standard 5 PANEL DRUG URINE TEST is the drug test most frequently used by government agencies and private employers. A 5 panel drug test typically tests for: THC, opiates and PCP THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and ethanol THC, opiates, PCP and cocaine THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and amphetamines
THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and amphetamines
208
All are included in the five (5) panel drug test, EXCEPT: Amphetamine Cocaine Ethanol Marijuana
Ethanol
209
In order to pass the examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of at least ___ in the written test. 60% 65% 70% 75%
75%
210
Certificate of registration as medical technologist will be issued to successful applicants who attained the age of: 18 years old 19 years old 20 years old 21 years old
21 years old
211
Relative weight of Histopathology and MT Laws in the MT Board Examination: 10% 20% 35% 65%
10%
212
Step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens: Turnaround time Chain of custody Chain of infection Standard precaution
Chain of custody
213
Time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report: Turnaround time Chain of custody Chain of infection Standard precaution
Turnaround time
214
On March 25, 2020, the President signed into law the Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469), which is valid for ____ months unless extended by Congress. Two months Three months Six months Twelve months
Three months ## Footnote On March 25, the President signed into law the Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469), which is valid for three months unless extended by Congress.
215
RA 5527 consists of: 30 sections 32 sections 50 sections 52 sections
32 sections
216
Which of the following amends RA 5527 on June 11, 1978? RA 6138 PD 498 PD 1534
PD 1534
217
All are sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534, except: Section 3 Section 8 Section 13 Section 18
Section 18
218
Minor subject (10%) in the MT Board Exam: Clinical Chemistry Hematology Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking Clinical Microscopy
Clinical Microscopy
219
Refresher course for applicants who have failed the Board Examination for the ___ time. First time Second time Third time Fourth time
Third time
220
Revocation: Unanimous vote (3/3) Majority vote (2/3)
Unanimous vote (3/3)
221
Suspension: Unanimous vote (3/3) Majority vote (2/3)
Majority vote (2/3)
222
Part of drinking water analysis, except: Calcium Fecal coliform test Sodium Potassium
Potassium
223
License and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city: DOH PDEA PNP PRC
DOH
224
Random drug test: Applicants for firearm’s license Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers Students of secondary and tertiary schools Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government
Students of secondary and tertiary schools
225
Fill in the blank (Code of Ethics): Be dedicated to ____. Fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the profession Law and shall not participate in illegal work Responsibilities inherent to being a professional Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind
Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind
226
Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016: RA 7719 RA 9288 RA 10912 RA 7170
RA 10912
227
Published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE: CDC DOH PRC WHO
WHO ## Footnote WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR: 1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999 2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995 3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001
228
First clinical laboratory in the Philippines: San Lazaro Hospital Research Institute for Tropical Medicine Manila Public Health Laboratory National Reference Laboratory
Manila Public Health Laboratory
229
Acceptable patient identifiers include: -Patient's name, gender, medical record number -Patient's name, gender, date of birth -Patient's name, requesting physician, medical record number -Patient's name, date of birth, medical record number
Patient's name, date of birth, medical record number ## Footnote Acceptable patient identifiers include the patient's name, an identification number assigned by a health care facility such as the medical record number, or date of birth.
230
According to DOH A.O. 2020-0031, certificate of accreditation of laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for __ year(s) and expires on the last day of December. TAKE NOTE OF YEAR 2020 DOH REVISION. One year Two years Three years Five years
Three years ## Footnote Administrative Order No. 2006-0024 known as the “Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 2 years and expires on the last day of December DOH A.O. 2020-0031 (July 17, 2020) Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis Laboratory for Drinking Water Analysis (LDWA) DOH Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 3 years, effective from January 1 of the first year, and shall expire on the last day of December on the third year
231
If a medical technologist was not able to complete the number of CPD units upon renewal of PRC license, he may sign a/an: [ONLY UP TO DECEMBER 2023] Affidavit of undertaking Certificate of exemption Certificate of registration Suspension order
Affidavit of undertaking ## Footnote AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING Contains your specific promises to: 1. Undertake to comply with the required number of CPD credit units during the validity of your PRC ID; and to 2. Submit proof of compliance with the required number of CPD units during the next renewal of the PRC ID
232
Obligation of MT to the patient: Compliance to PRC Compliance to the department of health Comprehensive health education Strive for excellence in professional practice
Strive for excellence in professional practice
233
All traits are mentioned in the MT CODE OF ETHICS, except: Honesty Humility Integrity Reliability
Humility
234
Components of quality assurance: Pre-analytical variables Analytical variables Post-analytical variables All of these
All of these ## Footnote Quality assurance is the broader concept, encompassing preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical variables.
235
An example of cellular adaptation is: Edema Inflammation Neoplasia Dysplasia
Dysplasia ## Footnote Cellular adaptations: 1. Atrophy 2. Hypertrophy 3. Hyperplasia 4. Metaplasia 5. Dysplasia
236
Low temperature: Enhance fixation Retard fixation Variable No effect
Retard fixation
237
Stopping all cellular activities so that the cells can be viewed under the microscope as if they are still in their original living state: Decalcification Embedding Fixation Staining
Fixation
238
Fixative for electron microscopy: Carnoy's Formalin Glutaraldehyde Zenker
Glutaraldehyde
239
Most common and fastest decalcifying agent used: Formic acid Hydrochloric acid Nitric acid Sulfurous acid
Nitric acid
240
For most instances, dehydration starts by placing the fixed specimen in: 70% ethyl alcohol 95% ethyl alcohol Absolute alcohol Xylene
70% ethyl alcohol
241
Transition step between dehydration and infiltration with the embedding medium: Fixation Clearing Infiltration Mounting
Clearing
242
Enclosed tissue processor: Mechanical transfer Dip and dunk Fluid transfer Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
243
What are the processes (IN ORDER) done by the automatic tissue processor: Fixation, clearing, dehydration and infiltration Fixation, infiltration, dehydration and clearing Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration Fixation, dehydration, infiltration and clearing
Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration
244
These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM): Disposal blades Steel knives Diamond or glass knives Magnetic blades
Diamond or glass knives
245
Sections fail to form ribbons: Hard spot in tissue due to calcium Sections are too thick Paraffin is impure Knife edge is dirty
Sections are too thick ## Footnote Surfaces and edges of the block are not parallel Horizontal surface of the block is not parallel to the knife Paraffin wax is too hard Knife is tilted too much Sections are too thick Knife is dull
246
Effect of basic pH to ripening process: Slower oxidizing process More rapid oxidizing process Variable No effect
More rapid oxidizing process ## Footnote pH will have effect on rate of oxidation. 1. Neutral aqueous solution of hematoxylin will form hematein in a few hours 2. Alkaline solutions - more rapid oxidizing process 3. Acid solutions - slower oxidizing process
247
RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain: Black Blue Red Green
Black
248
A stain containing silver nitrate for demonstration of spirochetes: Fite-Faraco Warthin-Starry Masson-Fontana Mallory's PTAH
Warthin-Starry
249
Frozen sections are stained by hand because: Staining is more accurate Prevent overstaining Faster for one or a few individual sections Predictable colors
Faster for one or a few individual sections ## Footnote Frozen sections are stained by hand, because this is faster for one or a few individual sections.
250
_______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _______. Antigen, antibody, visual marker Visual marker, antigen, antibody Antibody, antigen, visual marker Visual marker, antibody, antigen
Antibody, antigen, visual marker
251
Gastrointestinal specimens, except: Gastric lavage Gastric brush Fine needle aspirate (submucosal lesions) Induced vomiting
Induced vomiting
252
Liquid-based cytology samples: Body fluids Touch imprint Brush sampling Skin scrape
Body fluids
253
It is considered to be a most sensitive and specific reagent for lipid staining: Sudan III Sudan IV Sudan Black Oil Red O
Sudan Black
254
One measure of the efficiency of a surgical pathology service: Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians Rapidity of tissue processing Sufficiency of tissue preservation Sufficiency of reagents and standards
Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians
255
Objective of a quality assurance program in histopathology: Ensure to process the tissues Ensure acceptable service Ensure to follow standards Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report
Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report
256
Primary objective in quality and safety control programs in histopathology laboratories: Correctness of interpretation of reports Ensure correct sampling Ensure accurate treatment to patient Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment
Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment ## Footnote Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment should be the primary objective in quality and safety control programs adopted by the histopathology laboratories.
257
Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid? Zenker Helly Bouin Zamboni
Bouin
258
The volume of fixative should exceed the volume of the tissue by: 1 to 2 times 5 to 10 times 10 to 20 times 25 to 50 times
10 to 20 times
259
Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride? Zenker Helly Carnoy Orth
Helly
260
Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in: Running water Sodium thiosulfate Weak ammonia water Iodine
Iodine
261
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain: 4% formaldehyde 10% formaldehyde 37 to 40% formaldehyde 98 to 100% formaldehyde
37 to 40% formaldehyde ## Footnote Important: Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde As fixing fluid: 10% formalin
262
Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by: Running water Alcoholic iodine Alcoholic picric acid Potassium permanganate
Alcoholic picric acid
263
To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde: 1,000 mL 900 mL 450 mL 10 mL
900 mL ## Footnote Important: 1:10 dilution 1 part 40% formaldehyde 9 parts water TV = 10
264
Carnoy fluid is prepared with acetic acid, alcohol, and: Chloroform Formalin Acetone Osmium tetroxide
Chloroform
265
The first and most important procedure in the preparation of a tissue for microscopic examination is the choice of: Fixative Dehydrating agent Clearing agent Staining technique
Fixative
266
Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution: Decreases the tissue autolysis Decreases the fixative penetration Increases the speed of fixation Increases the volume of fixative needed
Increases the speed of fixation
267
Which of the following may cause tissue to become overhardened? Prolonged fixation Abbreviated fixation Inadequate dehydration Incomplete clearing
Prolonged fixation
268
To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions? Methyl alcohol Formic acid Paraformaldehyde Sodium phosphate
Methyl alcohol
269
Which of the following is a dehydrating agent? Formalin Xylene Benzene Alcohol
Alcohol
270
A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding must be miscible with the: Fixative and paraffin Dehydrant and paraffin Fixative and dehydrant Paraffin and water
Dehydrant and paraffin
271
Dioxane is a reagent that can be used: For both fixing and dehydrating tissues For both dehydrating and clearing tissues In very small volume ratios For long periods without changing
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
272
A reagent that CANNOT be used for dehydrating tissue is: Benzene Absolute alcohol Dioxane Acetone
Benzene
273
Which of the following chemicals is NOT a clearing agent? Chloroform Dioxane Ethanol Xylene
Ethanol
274
The process of removing water from tissue is called: Dehydration Reduction Oxidation Clearing
Dehydration
275
The dehydration and clearing steps can be omitted when using: Celloidin Epoxy resin Glycol methacrylate Water-soluble wax
Water-soluble wax
276
During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the: Presence of water in the clearing agent pH of the fixative Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin Freshness of the reagents on the processor
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
277
The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin for embedding tissue should be about: 43C 43F 60C 60F
60C
278
When using a microscope with a x10 ocular and a x40 objective, the total magnification is approximately: 100 400 1,000 4,000
400 ## Footnote Important: Total magnification (TM) = magnification of objective x magnification of ocular = 10 x 40 = 400
279
The microwave oven creates heat in staining solutions by: Convection Conduction Nonionizing radiation Electrolytic action
Nonionizing radiation
280
Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain: Fat Glycogen Nuclei Cytoplasm
Nuclei
281
Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of: Hydrolysis Oxidation Mordanting Reduction
Oxidation
282
The active staining ingredient in ripened hematoxylin solutions is: Hematin Hematein Hematoxylin Hemosiderin
Hematein
283
The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is: Postmordanting in picric acid Use of hematoxylin containing acetic acid Differentiation in acid-alcohol Washing in water after the hematoxylin
Differentiation in acid-alcohol
284
Mordants are used to: Change the refractive index of the tissue Help differentiate stains Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye Oxidize staining solutions
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
285
The combination of a dye and a mordant is called a/an: Base Accelerator Lake Buffer
Lake
286
Mercuric oxide (or sodium iodate) is used in Harris hematoxylin to: Form hematein Prevent oxidation Serve as the mordant Stabilize the solution
Form hematein
287
DNA can be demonstrated with: Eosin Pyronin Feulgen reaction Fast green
Feulgen reaction
288
The mordant in Weigert hematoxylin is: Iron Aluminum Mercury Tungsten
Iron
289
Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to: Keep heterochromatin from staining Make nuclear staining more specific Ripen the hematoxylin Form a dye lake
Make nuclear staining more specific
290
Which of the following is stained rose by the methyl green-pyronin (MGP) technique? Heterochromatin DNA RNA Golgi apparatus
RNA
291
Differentiating in the H&E stain is an example of using: Excess mordant Weak acid Oxidizers Buffers
Weak acid
292
The Feulgen reaction demonstrates: DNA only RNA only Both DNA and RNA Phosphoric acid groups
DNA only
293
Sections for special stains have been accidentally stained with hematoxylin. To remove the hematoxylin, place the sections in: Acid alcohol Dilute ammonia Lithium carbonate Isopropyl alcohol
Acid alcohol
294
Glycogen is best demonstrated by the use of: Crystal violet Mayer mucicarmine PAS with and without diastase Alcian blue with and without hyaluronidase
PAS with and without diastase
295
Amyloid can be demonstrated with: Congo red Mayer mucicarmine Cresyl echt violet Alcian blue
Congo red
296
Which of the following methods best demonstrates elastic tissue? Verhoeff Silver impreganation Gomori trichrome PAS
Verhoeff
297
The oil red O stain requires which of the following sections? Paraffin Celloidin Frozen Plastic
Frozen
298
The oil red O stain might be used to demonstrate: Rhabdomyosarcomas Leiomyosarcomas Liposarcomas Adenocarcinomas
Liposarcomas
299
The best stain for the demonstration of Mycobacterium leprae is the: Fite PAS Kinyoun Gram
Fite
300
The PAS reaction will demonstrate fungi, because the cell wall contains: Lipids Carbohydrates Reducing substances Argyrophilic protein
Carbohydrates
301
A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the: Gomori chromium hematoxylin Fontana-Masson von Kossa silver nitrate Schmorl method
von Kossa silver nitrate
302
The Perl's stain is used for the detection of: Reducing substances Hemosiderin Hemoglobin Calcium
Hemosiderin
303
A tissue frequently used as a control for the Fontana-Masson stain is: Skin Lymph node Liver Spleen
Skin
304
Toluidine blue stains: Helicobacter Legionella Spirochetes Chlamydia
Helicobacter
305
Acridine orange demonstrates: Cell wall Mitochondria Nucleic acid Flagella
Nucleic acid
306
Spirochetes in fixed tissue are best demonstrated by: Histochemical techniques Vital staining Metallic impregnation Physical methods
Metallic impregnation
307
Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the fibers is classified as: Smooth Visceral Skeletal Cardiac
Skeletal
308
The terms "squamous," "cuboidal," and "columnar" describe cells that have their origin in which tissue? Connective Muscle Epithelium Bone
Epithelium
309
Another name for fat cells is: APUD cells Myocytes Adipocytes Histiocytes
Adipocytes
310
Elastic fibers have an affinity for: Sudan Indigo Brazilin Orcein
Orcein
311
Transitional epithelium refers to: Endothelium Urothelium Mesothelium Metaplasia
Urothelium
312
Which of the following histological features is unique to cardiac muscle? Cross-striations Peripherally located nuclei Intercalated discs Non-branching fibers
Intercalated discs
313
In addition to its ability to stain argentaffin cell granules, the Fontana-Masson technique may also be used to stain: Lipids Collagen Melanin Spirochetes
Melanin
314
A delicate three-dimensional connective tissue meshwork that forms the framework of organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, is made of: Elastic fibers Reticular fibers Smooth muscle Basement membrane
Reticular fibers
315
The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are: Plasma cells Mast cells Macrophages Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts
316
An example of an exogenous pigment is: Argentaffin Melanin Chromaffin Carbon
Carbon
317
The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for COPPER is the: Chloranilic acid Rhodanine Orcein Aldehyde fuchsin
Rhodanine
318
The nerve process carrying electrical impulses away from the cell body is called a(n): Neuron Dendrite Synapse Axon
Axon ## Footnote Dendrites bring electrical signals to the cell body and axons take information away from the cell body.
319
Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, and bile pigment are classified as: Endogenous pigments Artifact pigments Exogenous pigments Extraneous pigments
Endogenous pigments
320
Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as: Carcinomas Lipomas Sarcomas Fibromas
Sarcomas
321
A rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant tumor, skeletal muscle) is suspected in a biopsy submitted to the laboratory. To aid in making a definitive diagnosis, a helpful stain would be the: Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH) Gomori aldehyde fuchsin Verhoeff-van Gieson Periodic acid Schiff
Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)
322
The use of mounting media makes stained tissue components more visible by: Distinguishing only the nuclei Distinguishing only the cytoplasm Destaining after hematoxylin Improving the index of refraction
Improving the index of refraction
323
Neuritic plaques of Alzheimer's disease consist of abnormal cell processes often in close proximity to deposits of: Amyloid Phospholipids Neuromelanin Astrocytes
Amyloid
324
A disorder involving excess iron deposition in tissues, with resultant TISSUE DAMAGE, is known as: Hemosiderosis Hemoglobinemia Hemophilia Hemochromatosis
Hemochromatosis
325
Start of renewal of Clinical Laboratory License: October 1 November 1 December 1 January 1
October 1 ## Footnote Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.
326
Which of the following can only be done in a tertiary category laboratory? Crossmatching Routine chemistry Routine hematology Special hematology
Special hematology
327
All are qualifications of the Board of Medical Technology, except: -Filipino citizen -Good moral character -Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT -In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment -Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to appointment
In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment ## Footnote In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.