Assessment HISTOMTLE Flashcards

Question 1

Q

This type of epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Answer

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 2

Q

Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium

Answer

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

Question 3

Q

It forms the linings of the urinary bladder, the ureters and part of the urethra (organs which are subject to considerable stretching):

Stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium

Answer

A

Transitional epithelium

Question 4

Q

Long, cylindrical and multinucleate, they have obvious striations, and can be controlled voluntarily:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

Answer

A

Skeletal muscle

Question 5

Q

Uninucleate branching cells that fight tightly together at junctions called intercalated disks:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

Answer

A

Cardiac muscle

Question 6

Q

With single nucleus and are spindle-shaped, no striations are visible:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

Answer

A

Visceral muscle

Question 7

Q

What is the stem cell precursor of most connective tissues?

Macrophage
Mesenchymal
Adipocytes
Plasma cells

Answer

A

Mesenchymal

Question 8

Q

Elastic cartilage EXCEPT:

Intervertebral discs
External ear
Walls of the Eustachian tubes
Epiglottis

Answer

A

Intervertebral discs

Intervertebral discs: FIBROCARTILAGE

Question 9

Q

Which one of the listed statements is the best histologic definition of an
abscess?

A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris
A localized defect that results from the sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue
from the surface of an organ
A localized proliferation of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
An aggregate of two or more activated macrophages
The excessive secretion of mucus from a mucosal surface

Answer

A

a. A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris

An abscess is a localized collection of neutrophils and necrotic debris. It is basically a localized form of suppurative (purulent) inflammation, which is associated with pyogenic bacteria and is characterized by edema fluid admixed with neutrophils and necrotic cells (liquefactive necrosis or pus).

Question 10

Q

Cells provide a structural framework for the skin and play a critical role in
WOUND HEALING:

Basophils
Fibroblasts
Lymphocytes
Monocytes and macrophages

Answer

A

b. Fibroblasts

Question 11

Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of:

Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
Increased vascular permeability of venules
Vasoconstriction of muscular arteries
Vasodilation of arterioles

Answer

A

e. Vasodilation of arterioles

Inflammation can be defined as the reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury.
Celsus originally described four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor
(swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). Virchow later added a fifth sign, loss of function
(functio laesa).
Redness (rubor) and heat (calor) are primarily the result of increased blood flow secondary
to vasodilation of arterioles.

Question 12

Q

During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular
permeability causes the formation of exudates (inflammatory
edema).Which one of the listed cell types is the most likely source of the
histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability?

Endothelial cells
Fibroblast
Lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils

Answer

A

Mast cells

Question 13

Q

Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

Answer

A

Suppurative or purulent

Question 14

Q

Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

Question 15

Q

It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

Answer

A

True hypertrophy

Question 16

Q

It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or appendicitis):

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

Answer

A

False hypertrophy

Question 17

Q

An increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of the individual cells:

Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy

Answer

A

Hypertrophy

Question 18

Q

A reversible change involving the transformation of one type of cell to
another:

Anaplasia
Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Neoplasia

Answer

A

Metaplasia

Question 19

Q

Microscopically, the hallmark of this type necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into ‘TOMBSTONES’ :

Caseous necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Liquefaction necrosis

Answer

A

Coagulation necrosis

Outlines of the cells are retained so that the cell type can still be recognized but their cytoplasmic and nuclear details are lost.

Question 20

Q

A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis within the ventricle can best be described as:

Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis

Answer

A

Coagulative necrosis

Question 21

Q

A special form of cell death produced by the tubercle bacillus:

Liquefaction necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis

Answer

A

Caseous necrosis

Question 22

Q

Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION:

Heart
Liver
Lungs
Kidney

Question 23

Q

Cytological picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

Answer

A

Class III

Question 24

Q

Cytological picture strongly suggestive of malignancy:

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

Question 25

Q

Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue origin, which have less tendency to produce supporting tissue or stroma.

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

Answer

A

Carcinoma

Question 26

Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intercellular tissue framework.

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

Question 27

Q

A 57-year-old male presents with signs of fatigue that are the result of
anemia. Workup reveals that his anemia is the result of bleeding from a colon cancer located in the sigmoid colon. The lesion is resected and at the time of surgery no metastatic disease is found. Which of the listed
markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of possible metastatic disease from his colon cancer?

α fetoprotein (AFP)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Chloroacetate esterase (CAE)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

Answer

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein associated with many cancers including adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and breast. It is used clinically to follow up patients with certain malignancies, such as colon cancer,
and to evaluate them for recurrence or metastases.

Question 28

Q

A 23-year-old female presents with the recent onset of vaginal discharge. Physical examination reveals multiple clear vesicles on her vulva and vagina. A smear of material obtained from one of these vesicles reveals several multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions and ground-glass nuclei. These vesicles are most likely the result of an infection with

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Infection by herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is recognized by nuclear homogenization (ground-glass nuclei), intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A bodies), and the formation of multinucleated cells.

Question 29

Q

Programmed cell death is called:

Necrosis
Apoptosis
Cellular senescence
Terminal differentiation

Answer

A

Apoptosis

Question 30

Q

Physiologic death of cells, indicating the death of a group of cells with immediate regeneration of cells of the same type.

Hyaline degeneration
Fatty metamorphosis
Necrosis
Necrobiosis

Answer

A

Necrobiosis

Question 31

Q

A postmortem clot is most likely to:

Grossly display features of recanalization
Grossly have lines of Zahn
Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”
Microscopically appear attached to the wall of the blood vessel
Microscopically have alternating layers of cells and platelets

Answer

A

Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”

The postmortem clot is usually rubbery, gelatinous, and lacks fibrin strands and
attachments to the vessel wall.
Large postmortem clots may have a “chicken fat” appearance overlying a dark “currant jelly” base.

Question 32

Q

This autopsy technique is characterized by in situ dissection:

Virchow
Rokitansky
Ghon
Letulle

Answer

A

Rokitansky

Question 33

Q

A person died of unknown disease, the physician would like to know the
final diagnosis. Who is authorized to give consent for autopsy?

The deceased himself
Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased
The attending physician
NBI must perform autopsy

Answer

A

Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased

Question 34

Q

Father of Pathology:

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Answer

A

Rudolf Carl Virchow

Question 35

Q

Father of Cytopathology:

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Answer

A

George Nicholas Papanicolaou

Question 36

Q

It is generally used in histochemistry and during operative procedures,
and is the most rapid of the commonly available freezing agents:

Liquid nitrogen
Isopentane
Carbon dioxide gas
Aerosol spray

Answer

A

Liquid nitrogen

Question 37

Q

Freeze-drying is a special way of preserving tissues by rapid freezing
(quenching) of fresh tissue and subsequently removing ice water
molecules (desiccation) by a physical process of transferring the still
frozen tissue block in a vacuum at a higher temperature (sublimation).
Which of the following is the correct procedure?

Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –40C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

Answer

A

Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

Question 38

Q

The first and most critical step in histotechnology?

Fixation
Clearing
Infiltration
Embedding

Question 39

Q

Which of the following organ should be fixed before “grossing” or
sectioning?

Liver
Lungs
Heart
Brain

Question 40

Q

The primary aim of fixation:

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

Answer

A

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell

Question 41

Q

The secondary goal of fixation:

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

Answer

A

Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling

Question 42

Q

Traditionally, the amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the
volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently the maximum effectiveness of
fixation is noted to be ____ times the tissue volume.

10
12
15
20

Question 43

Q

Immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the
case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing
the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation):

Heat fixation
Microwave fixation
Cryopreservation (freeze drying)
Physical fixation
Chemical fixation

Answer

A

Chemical fixation

Fixation of tissues can be achieved by chemical or physical means.
Physical methods include heating, micro-waving and cryo-preservation (freeze drying).
Chemical fixation is usually achieved by immersing the specimen in the fixative
(immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung,
by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation).

Question 44

Q

Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT:

Zenker’s fluid
Helly’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

Answer

A

Zenker’s fluid

Question 45

Q

Simplest aldehyde:

Formaldehyde (methanal)
Acetaldehyde (ethanal)
Propionaldehyde (propanal)
Butyraldehyde (butanal)

Answer

A

Formaldehyde (methanal)

Question 46

Q

Commercial formalin is buffered with _______ at a pH of 7.

Citrate
EDTA
Phosphate
Any of these

Answer

A

Phosphate

Commercial formalin is buffered with phosphate at a pH of 7.

Question 47

Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid

Zenker
Helly
Bouin
Zamboni

Question 48

Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate,
and mercuric chloride?

Zenker
Helly
Carnoy
Orth

Question 49

Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

4% formaldehyde
10% formaldehyde
37% to 40% formaldehyde
98% to 100% formaldehyde

Answer

A

37% to 40% formaldehyde

Question 50

Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

Running water
Alcoholic iodine
Alcoholic picric acid
Potassium permanganate

Answer

A

Alcoholic picric acid

Question 51

Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

Decreases the tissue autolysis
Decreases the fixative penetration
Increases the speed of fixation
Increases the volume of fixative needed

Answer

A

Increases the speed of fixation

Question 52

Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?

Methyl alcohol
Formic acid
Paraformaldehyde
Sodium phosphate

Answer

A

Methyl alcohol

Question 53

Q

All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse
BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE
STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:

Saturated solution of iodine
Sodium thiosulfate
Distilled water
Saturated solution of picric acid

Answer

A

Saturated solution of iodine

Question 54

Q

All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT:

Bouin’s
Brasil’s
Carnoy’s
Gendre’s

Answer

A

Carnoy’s

Question 55

Q

An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a
saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely:

Melanin
Hemosiderin
Formalin pigment
Mercurial pigment

Answer

A

Formalin pigment

Question 56

Q

All of the following statements are true for Carnoy’s fluid, EXCEPT:

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative
It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide
Recommended for chromosome, lymph glands and urgent biopsies
It fixes and dehydrates at the same time

Answer

A

It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide

Question 57

Q

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:

Carnoy’s fluid
Helly’s solution
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

Answer

A

Carnoy’s fluid

Question 58

Q

Fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially the skin:

Moller’s fluid
Newcomer’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Heidenhain’s Susa solution

Answer

A

Heidenhain’s Susa solution

Question 59

Q

Fixative recommended for the study of early degenerative processes and
tissue necrosis/ demonstrate Rickettsiae and other bacteria:

Acetone
Orth’s fluid
Ethyl alcohol
Bouin’s solution

Answer

A

Orth’s fluid

Question 60

Q

Fixative used in preserving brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies:

Methyl alcohol
Acetone
Osmic acid
Flemming’s solution without acetic acid

Question 61

Q

Neutral formalin may be prepared from 40% formaldehyde by adding:

10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 30 mL water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 39 parts water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

Answer

A

1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

Question 62

Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

Answer

A

Incomplete fixation

Question 63

Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

Answer

A

Incomplete dehydration

Question 64

Q

Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of
alcohol.

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

Answer

A

Insufficient clearing

Answer 55

A

Incomplete impregnation

Answer 56

A

Amyloidosis

The histologic diagnosis of amyloid is based solely on its special staining characteristics. It stains pink with the routine hematoxylin and eosin stain, but, with Congo red stain, amyloid stains dark red and has an apple-green birefringence when viewed under polarized light.

Answer 57

A

Nitric acid

Answer 58

A

Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water

Answer 59

A

X-ray or radiological test

Answer 60

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

Answer 61

A

Sliding microtome

Answer 62

A

Sliding microtome

Answer 63

A

Belgium yellow

Answer 64

A

Stropping

Answer 65

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

Answer 66

A

Ester wax

Answer 67

A

Tissue mat

Answer 68

A

Tissue transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from
container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process
chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

Answer 69

A

Fluid transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from
container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process
chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

Answer 70

A

Histological wax

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable histological wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.

Answer 71

A

Incomplete fixation

Answer 72

A

Incomplete dehydration

Answer 73

A

Incomplete impregnation

Answer 74

A

Non-acidified hematoxylin

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the NUCLEUS with a NON-ACIDIFIED HEMATOXYLIN such as Harris’s.

Answer 75

A

Indirect staining

Answer 76

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

Answer 77

A

Regressive staining

Answer 78

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

Answer 79

A

Change reagents and reprocess tissue

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows uneven nuclear staining and
“blue blobs” lacking distinct chromatin patterns
POSSIBLE CAUSE: If tissue was fixed properly, then sample was improperly dehydrated
and infiltrated with paraffin
CORRECTION: Change reagents and reprocess tissue on proper processing protocol

Answer 80

A

Janus green

Answer 81

A

Periodic acid Schiff

Answer 82

A

Masson trichrome

Answer 83

A

Muscle striations

Answer 84

A

Feulgen reaction

Answer 85

A

Mast cells

Answer 86

A

Sudan Black B

Answer 87

A

Luxol fast blue

Answer 88

A

Cajal’s

Cajal’s gold sublimate method for astrocytes
Mod. Holzer’s method for astrocytic process

Answer 89

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

Answer 90

A

Copper

Rhodanine stain is used in histology to identify copper deposits.

Answer 91

A

Acridine orange

Answer 92

A

Fluorescent microscope

Answer 93

A

Quality control

Quality Control (QC) is a system of routine technical activities to assess and maintain the
quality of the inventory as it is being compiled. It is performed by personnel compiling the
inventory. The
QC system is designed to:
1. Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and
completeness;
2. Identify and address errors and omissions;
3. Document and archive inventory material and record all QC activities.
QC activities include general methods such as accuracy checks on data acquisition and
calculations, and the use of approved standardized procedures for emission and removal
calculations, measurements, estimating uncertainties, archiving information and reporting.
QC activities also include technical reviews of categories, activity data, emission factors,
other estimation parameters, and methods.
Quality Assurance (QA) is a planned system of review procedures conducted by personnel
not directly involved in the inventory compilation/development process. Reviews,
preferably by independent third parties, are performed upon a completed inventory
following the implementation of QC procedures.

Answer 94

A

Epidemiological triad

EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD
REMEMBER “AHE” - Agent, Host and Environment
A number of models of disease causation have been proposed. Among the simplest of these is the EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD OR TRIANGLE, the traditional model for infectious disease.
The triad consists of an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the host and agent together. In this model, disease results from the interaction between the agent and the susceptible host in an environment that supports transmission of the agent from a source to that host.

Answer 95

A

2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol

Answer 96

A

Viral marker testing

Answer 97

A

All of the above

Answer 98

A

Identify employees in need of retraining

Answer 99

A

Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers”

Answer 100

A

All of the above

Answer 101

A

Written laboratory safety program

Answer 102

A

Personal protective equipment

Answer 103

A

Hand washing

Answer 104

A

Accident or injury occurs

Answer 105

A

Safety education

Answer 106

A

The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy
from the manager

Answer 107

A

Communication

Answer 108

A

All of the above

Answer 109

A

Establishing a service contract for key instruments

Answer 110

A

Cost per billable test

Answer 111

A

Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results

Answer 112

A

Matching the people presently working in the laboratory with current workload requirements

An effective manager will schedule the appropriate personnel to the workload requirements. Scheduling is an immediate and ongoing process versus workload management, which is a long- range planning process, and a free-for-all in a democratic
schedule can create gaps in a schedule. A balance of experienced personnel on all shifts is an appropriate scheduling process.

Answer 113

A

Evaluate applicant’s skills and personality

Answer 114

A

Physician who ordered the tests

Answer 115

A

Laboratory supervisor

LABORATORY SUPERVISORS
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services
LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS
Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital
investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management
LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST
Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently
Plan, organize, direct, and control job

Answer 116

A

Laboratory manager

LABORATORY SUPERVISORS
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services
LABORATORY DIRECTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS
Retain ultimate responsibility in achieving goals e.g. changes in technology, capital
investments, and services rendered are finalized by this level of laboratory management
LABORATORY MANAGERS OR CHIEF TECHNOLOGIST
Create and maintain an environment for laboratory professionals to function efficiently
Plan, organize, direct, and control job

Answer 117

A

Six sigma

Answer 118

A

Blue belts

Answer 119

A

Purple belts

Answer 120

A

Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling.
Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules.
Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training.
Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership.
Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.

Answer 121

A

Overtime pay

All costs that are specifically linked to a test (e.g., personnel, overtime, chemicals,
supplies) are direct costs.

Answer 122

A

Technologist labor

Labor accounts for 60%–70% of the direct cost per test in most laboratories.

Answer 123

A

Identify potential problems and correct them

The CQI team identifies problems by collecting data, analyzing it, and developing methods of correcting problems. By identifying potential problems and correcting existing problems, a high competency is achieved and potential law suits are avoided.

Answer 124

A

All of these options

LIS: LABORATORY INFORMATION SYSTEM
Each laboratory will have specific needs to determine the appropriate LIS. However,storage capacity, reliability, security, upgrade costs, instrument interface availability,
inventory management, and quality control functions are common parameters that must be considered.

Answer 125

A

Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside

Point-of-care testing saves time and is invaluable for patient care. When a device is used at the bedside of a patient to produce a laboratory result, it is considered a point-of-care instrument.

Answer 126

A

Capillary blood

CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently
in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT).

Answer 127

A

Organizational chart

The organizational chart shows the lines of supervision, relationships of various staff
members, and interrelationships of the various departments.

Answer 128

A

Prevention of boredom

Staff development that generally improves the capabilities of the laboratory worker,
improvement of laboratory functioning through in-service programs, and the meeting of
accreditation requirements are important goals of a continuing education program.
These goals may be accomplished by means of seminars, journal clubs, lectures,
workshops, and so forth.

Answer 129

A

Quality assurance

Quality assurance (QA) developed out of the limitations of the QC approach and defined
quality in healthcare institutions by the success of the total organization, not just
individual components of the system, in achieving the goals of patient care.

Answer 130

A

Blood specimens for alcohol level determination

Chain of custody:
When results of laboratory testing are to be used in a court of law, a specific chain of
documentation is required, whereby all steps of the testing are recorded, from specimen
collection to the issuing of the results report.

Answer 131

A

Specimen acceptability

Preanalytical (i.e. pre-examination) variables include all steps in the process prior to the
analytic phase of testing, starting with the physician’s order. Examples include accuracy of
transmission of physician’s orders, specimen transport and preparation, requisition
accuracy, quality of phlebotomy services, specimen acceptability rates, etc.

Answer 132

A

Fire hazard

HAZARDUS MATERIALS CLASSIFICATION
BLUE: Health hazard
RED: Fire hazard
WHITE: Specific hazard
YELLOW: Reactivity

Answer 133

A

Set short-term goals for the employee

Answer 134

A

Dealing with people

Answer 135

A

Discuss the incidents with the technologist’s immediate supervisor

The first step in progressive counseling is verbal counseling.

Answer 136

A

ISO 15189

THERE ARE TWO (2) ISO STANDARD THAT APPLY TO THE CLINICAL LABORATORY:
1. ISO 15189
MEDICAL LABORATORIES – PARTICULAR REQUIREMENT FOR QUALITY AND
COMPETENCE, 2007
2. ISO/IEC 17025 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALITY AND COMPETENCE OF
TESTING AND CALIBRATION LABORATORIES, 2005

Answer 137

A

Philippine Association of Medical Technologists

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR
1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

Answer 138

A

Organizing

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

Answer 139

A

Directing

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

Answer 140

A

Planning

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

Answer 141

A

Controlling

MANAGEMENT PROCESS
1. PLANNING: identifying goals, evaluate current situation, establish time frame, set
objectives, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback.
2. ORGANIZING: formal hierarchy, informal relationship.
3. DIRECTING: leadership, time allocation.
4. CONTROLLING: instructions, follow-up, modifications

Answer 142

A

Queuing theory

QUANTITATIVE TOOLS
1. Probability analysis
Measures risk by assigning a value, expressed in percentage to the likelihood of a specific
event occurring
2. Queuing theory
Provides recommendations for the number of staff (phlebotomists, clerks, technical
personnel, and so on) needed to handle an unpredictable workload
3. Linear programming
A tool for allocating limited resources among competing needs
4. Simulation
Designs models to imitate real-life conditions so the different intervention scenarios can
be compared

Answer 143

A

Immunology
Culture and sensitivity
Special chemistry
Special hematology including coagulation procedures

PRIMARY CATEGORY
1. Routine Hematology
2. Qualitative Platelet Determination
3. Routine Urinalysis
4. Routine Fecalysis
5. Blood Typing – for hospital-based

SECONDARY CATEGORY
1. Services of primary category laboratory
2. Routine Clinical Chemistry
3. Quantitative Platelet Determination
4. Cross-matching – for hospital-based
5. Gram staining – for hospital-based
6. KOH – for hospital-based

TERTIARY CATEGORY
1. Services of secondary category laboratory
2. Special Chemistry
3. Special Hematology, including coagulation procedures
4. Immunology
5. Microbiology – culture and sensitivity

Answer 144

A

Validation

A computer system includes three major components: hardware, software, and people.
Hardware components are the physical pieces of equipment.
Software is a set of instructions written in computer language that tells the computer how to operate and manipulate the data.
The people interface with the hardware to enter the data that are manipulated by the software. Just as there are many different kinds of people who enter data, so there are
many different kinds of hardware and software.

Answer 145

A

The transmission of patient information from the HIS into the blood bank system

Answer 146

A

Kept confidential

Answer 147

A

Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

While managing may involve all of the functions listed, the four core processes for all managers are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling.
Planning includes formulating of goals and objectives, organizing the tasks, and establishing schedules.
Organizing includes establishing effective communication, relationships, job descriptions, and training.
Directing involves oversight of the various steps and stages of the plan, including coordination and leadership.
Controlling involves evaluating resource utilization and outcomes, managing costs, and modifying the process to improve quality.

Answer 148

A

Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

According to the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Rule of 1992, gloves and lab coats are to be removed after disinfection of the work area.

Answer 149

A

All of these

The MSDS documents describe the chemical and physical characteristics, safe handling
and storage, and potential health hazards of reagents used in the laboratory. These
documents must be located in an easily accessible place so that all employees have
access to them. They should be reviewed at least once per year during safety in service
training.

Answer 150

A

To protect laboratory staff

Legislation on chemical hazard precautions, such as state “right-to-know” laws, and OSHA document 29 CFR 1910 set the standards for chemical hazard communication (HAZCOM)
and determine the types of documents that must be on file in a laboratory

Answer 151

A

All of these

Six sigma management is a method for measuring the efficiency of a process such as mass production, and it is applied in the clinical laboratory to reduce the frequency of test errors.
The process consists of five steps: define, measure, analyze, improve, and control.
The term “six sigma” denotes a process so precise that six times the standard deviation still results in a useful product (laboratory test result that is within acceptable limits for total allowable error).

Answer 152

A

Marital status

Answer 153

A

Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye thoroughly with water

When a chemical compound comes into contact with the skin or eyes, the first course of action is to dilute the chemical by flooding it with a large volume of water.

Answer 154

A

All of these

Answer 155

A

All of these

Answer 156

A

All of these

Answer 157

A

One year

ADDITIONAL DRUG TESTING MAY BE REQUIRED FOR JUST CAUSE AS IN ANY OF THE
FOLLOWING CASES:
After workplace-related accidents, including near miss;
1. Following treatment and rehabilitation to establish fitness for returning to work/resumption of job
2. In the light of clinical findings and/or upon recommendation of the assessment team.

Answer 158

A

One year

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

Answer 159

A

Three years

Beginning on January 1 of the first year of the validity period to December 31 of the third year of the validity period.

Answer 160

A

Thermorolerant (fecal) coliforms

THERMOTOLERANT (FECAL) COLIFORMS
Coliform organisms which grow at 44 or 44.5 C and ferment lactose to produce acid and gas

Answer 161

A

2

For the diagnostic evaluation of PTB, two (2) sputum specimens should be obtained for DSSM.
Same day (spot-spot) strategy using 2 consecutive specimens collected 1-hour apart is recommended for direct Ziehl-Neelsen microscopy.
AT LEAST 1 SPUTUM SMEAR POSITIVE IS CONSIDERED BACTERIOLOGICALLY CONFIRMED TB.

Answer 162

A

Three-man

PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora
PRC COMMISSIONERS: Jose Y. Cueto, Jr. & Erwin Enad

Answer 163

A

Non-maleficence

Answer 164

A

Manila Public Health Laboratory

Answer 165

A

26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

Answer 166

A

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment

In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment

BOARD OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza
Members: Marian Tantingco, Marilyn Atienza
1. Filipino citizen
2. Good moral character
3. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
4. In practice of laboratory medicine or medical technology for at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment
5. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two (2) years
prior to appointment or having any pecuniary interest direct or indirect in such institution
TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

Answer 167

A

3 years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed
and duly qualified

TERM OF OFFICE: Three (3) years after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

Answer 168

A

Atty. Charito Zamora

PRC is a THREE-MAN COMMISSION attached to the office of the President for general direction and coordination.
THE CHAIRPERSON OR COMMISSIONER SHALL BE:
1. At least forty (40) years of age
2. Holding a valid certificate of registration/professional license and a valid professional
identification card or a valid certificate of competency issued by the Commission or a valid professional license issued by any government agency
3. Familiar with the principles and methods of professional regulation and/or licensing
4. Had at least five (5) years of executive or management experience
5. Provided, that, one (1) of the Commissioners must be a past Chairperson/member of a Professional Regulatory Board

Answer 169

A

October to November

AO 2007-0027 (CLINICAL LABORATORIES): Renewal of LTO, FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER TO LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER; processed not later than 5 working days after expiration of its
license; announced licensure inspections at any reasonable time.

Answer 170

A

Students of secondary and tertiary schools

MANDATORY DRUG TEST
1. Applicants for driver’s license
2. Applicants for firearm’s license
3. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
4. Persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an
imposable penalty of imprisonment of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day
5. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local
government
6. Persons apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of the drug act

RANDOM DRUG TEST
1. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
2. Officers and employees of public and private offices whether domestic or overseas.

Answer 171

A

2 parallel screening tests + 1 supplemental confirmatory test

CURRENT NATIONAL HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM IN THE PHILIPPINES
Current HIV testing diagnostic algorithm in the Philippines include screening test from referring labs
*A reactive result from the screening test will be sent to SACCL for confirmatory testing,
where 2 parallel screening tests are performed
*A reactive result on either of these tests will then require Western blot and/or nucleic acid test as supplemental confirmatory tests.

PROPOSED RAPID HIV TESTING DIAGNOSTIC ALGORITHM (rHIVda) FOR THE PHILIPPINES
The Disease Prevention and Control Bureau (DPCB) of DOH, National Reference
Laboratory-San Lazaro Hospital/STD AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory (NRL SLH/SACCL), and the HIV National Reference Laboratory of Australia has conducted the research study to develop a rHIVda for the Philippines
*rHIVda, includes 2 immunoassay tests and 3 RDTs for local validation of sensitivity and specificity on general and key population in the country
*Key population includes men who are having sex with men, people in prisons and other closed settings, people who inject drugs, sex workers, and transgender men and women

Answer 172

A

Pre-test counselling

Answer 173

A

Post-test counselling

Answer 174

A

Boyfriend of the person who submitted herself to test

RA 8504
ALL RESULTS OF HIV/AIDS TESTING SHALL BE CONFIDENTIAL AND SHALL BE RELEASED
ONLY TO THE FOLLOWING PERSONS:
o Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
o Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
o Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
o Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program
o Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court (as provided under Subsection (c) of RA 8504 and on accordance with the provision of Section 16)

RA 11166
DISCLOSURE OF HIV-RELATED TEST RESULTS:
RESULT OF ANY TEST RELATED TO HIV SHALL BE DISCLOSED BY THE TRAINED SERVICE PROVIDER WHO CONDUCTS PRE-TEST AND POST-TEST COUNSELING TO:
1. Individual who submitted to the test
2. If the patient is <15 years old, an orphan or is mentally incapacitated, the result may be disclosed to either parent, legal guardian or a duly assigned licensed social worker or health worker, whichever is applicable.
3. If the patient is <15 years old and not suffering from any mental incapacity, has given
voluntary and informed consent to the procedure, the result of the test shall be disclosed to the child, provided that the child should be given age-appropriate counseling and access to health care and sufficient support services.
4. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the DOH Monitoring Body

Answer 175

A

San Lazaro Hospital

Answer 176

A

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

Answer 177

A

Lung Center of the Philippines

Answer 178

A

East Avenue Medical Center

Answer 179

A

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

Answer 180

A

THC, opiates, PCP, cocaine, and amphetamines

Answer 181

A

21 years old

Answer 182

A

Chain of custody

Answer 183

A

Turnaround time

Answer 184

A

Three months

On March 25, the President signed into law the Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469), which is valid for three months unless extended by Congress.

Answer 185

A

32 sections

Answer 186

A

Section 18

Answer 187

A

Clinical Microscopy

Answer 188

A

Third time

Answer 189

A

Unanimous vote (3/3)

Answer 190

A

Majority vote (2/3)

Answer 191

A

Potassium

Answer 192

A

Students of secondary and tertiary schools

Answer 193

A

Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

Answer 194

A

WHO

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR:
1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

Answer 195

A

Manila Public Health Laboratory

Answer 196

A

Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

Acceptable patient identifiers include the patient’s name, an identification number assigned by a health care facility such as the medical record number, or date of birth.

Answer 197

A

Three years

Administrative Order No. 2006-0024 known as the “Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis
Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 2 years and expires on the last day of December

DOH A.O. 2020-0031 (July 17, 2020)
Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis Laboratory for Drinking Water Analysis (LDWA)
DOH Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 3 years, effective from January 1 of the first year, and shall expire on the last day of December on the third year

Answer 198

A

Affidavit of undertaking

AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
Contains your specific promises to:
1. Undertake to comply with the required number of CPD credit units during the validity of your PRC ID; and to
2. Submit proof of compliance with the required number of CPD units during the next renewal of the PRC ID

Answer 199

A

Strive for excellence in professional practice

Answer 200

A

All of these

Quality assurance is the broader concept, encompassing preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical variables.

Answer 201

A

Dysplasia

Cellular adaptations:
1. Atrophy
2. Hypertrophy
3. Hyperplasia
4. Metaplasia
5. Dysplasia

Answer 202

A

Retard fixation

Answer 203

A

Glutaraldehyde

Answer 204

A

Nitric acid

Answer 205

A

70% ethyl alcohol

Answer 206

A

Fluid transfer

Answer 207

A

Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration

Answer 208

A

Diamond or glass knives

Answer 209

A

Sections are too thick

Surfaces and edges of the block are not parallel
Horizontal surface of the block is not parallel to the knife
Paraffin wax is too hard
Knife is tilted too much
Sections are too thick
Knife is dull

Answer 210

A

More rapid oxidizing process

pH will have effect on rate of oxidation.
1. Neutral aqueous solution of hematoxylin will form hematein in a few hours
2. Alkaline solutions - more rapid oxidizing process
3. Acid solutions - slower oxidizing process

Answer 211

A

Warthin-Starry

Answer 212

A

Faster for one or a few individual sections

Frozen sections are stained by hand, because this is faster for one or a few individual sections.

Answer 213

A

Antibody, antigen, visual marker

Answer 214

A

Induced vomiting

Answer 215

A

Body fluids

Answer 216

A

Sudan Black

Answer 217

A

Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians

Answer 218

A

Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

Answer 219

A

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment should be the primary objective in quality and safety control programs adopted by the histopathology laboratories.

Answer 220

A

10 to 20 times

Answer 221

A

37 to 40% formaldehyde

Important:
Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde
As fixing fluid: 10% formalin

Answer 222

A

Alcoholic picric acid

Answer 223

A

900 mL

Important: 1:10 dilution
1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV = 10

Answer 224

A

Chloroform

Answer 225

A

Increases the speed of fixation

Answer 226

A

Prolonged fixation

Answer 227

A

Methyl alcohol

Answer 228

A

Dehydrant and paraffin

Answer 229

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

Answer 230

A

Dehydration

Answer 231

A

Water-soluble wax

Answer 232

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

Answer 233

A

400

Important:
Total magnification (TM)
= magnification of objective x magnification of ocular
= 10 x 40
= 400

Answer 234

A

Nonionizing radiation

Answer 235

A

Oxidation

Answer 236

A

Differentiation in acid-alcohol

Answer 237

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

Answer 238

A

Form hematein

Answer 239

A

Feulgen reaction

Answer 240

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

Answer 241

A

Weak acid

Answer 242

A

Acid alcohol

Answer 243

A

PAS with and without diastase

Answer 244

A

Congo red

Answer 245

A

Liposarcomas

Answer 246

A

Carbohydrates

Answer 247

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

Answer 248

A

Hemosiderin

Answer 249

A

Helicobacter

Answer 250

A

Nucleic acid

Answer 251

A

Metallic impregnation

Answer 252

A

Epithelium

Answer 253

A

Adipocytes

Answer 254

A

Urothelium

Answer 255

A

Intercalated discs

Answer 256

A

Reticular fibers

Answer 257

A

Fibroblasts

Answer 258

A

Rhodanine

Answer 259

A

Axon

Dendrites bring electrical signals to the cell body and axons take information away from the cell body.

Answer 260

A

Endogenous pigments

Answer 261

A

Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)

Answer 262

A

Improving the index of refraction

Answer 263

A

Hemochromatosis

Answer 264

A

October 1

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

Answer 265

A

Special hematology

Answer 266

A

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.