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MT review > EASY > Flashcards

EASY Flashcards

1
Q

Single-cell prokaryotic microorganisms

A

BACTERIA

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2
Q

Single-cell or multicellular eukaryotic organisms

A

FUNGI, PARASITES

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3
Q

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms

A

YEASTS

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4
Q

Dependent on host cells for survival and therefore are not considered cellular organisms but rather INFECTIOUS AGENTS

A

VIRUSES

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5
Q

Most common method of treating infectious waste; SAFEST METHOD to ensure that no infective materials remain in samples or containers when disposed

A

INCINERATION

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6
Q

MOST IMPORTANT PART OF HAND WASHING:

A

Mechanical action of rubbing the hands together and soaping under the fingernails

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7
Q

bacteria that is sensitive to temperature changes

A

N. meningitidis

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8
Q

bacteria that is sensitive to changes in pH

A

Shigella spp.

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9
Q

Determination of inducible-clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci

A

D-ZONE TEST

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10
Q

Gray, translucent, smooth, glistening; may have dry, CLAYLIKE CONSISTENCY

A

Neisseria elongata

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11
Q

Friable “hockey puck” consistency

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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12
Q

NORMAL FLORA of the human conjunctiva, skin and nasopharynx

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

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13
Q

0.5% sodium deoxycholate lyses Vibrio cells; used to differentiate Vibrio spp. (positive) from Aeromonas spp. and P. shigelloides (negative)

A

STRING TEST

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14
Q

Chancroid, soft chancre, School of fish arrangement, railroad track appearance

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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15
Q

Large; boxcar shape

A

C. perfringens

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16
Q

TRUE GERM TUBE:

A

C. albicans, C. dubliniensis

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17
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) caused by

A

MEASLES VIRUS

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18
Q

LOEFFLER’S SYNDROME (transient pulmonary infiltration; day-to-day clearing in 3 to 14 days; associated with marked peripheral eosinophilia) caused by

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

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19
Q

Swollen belly syndrome

A

Strongyloides fuelleborni

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20
Q

abdominal angiostrongyliasis: Patient may experience lower right quadrant; ABDOMINAL PAIN SIMILAR TO THAT MANIFESTED IN APPENDICITIS
It’s causative agent is

A

Parastrongylus costaricensis

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21
Q

is an INTEGRAL PART of the transmission of nerve impulses.

A

Potassium

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22
Q

is the major intracellular cation in the body. Functions in the body include regulation of neuromuscular excitability, contraction of the heart, ICF volume, and H+ concentration.

A

POTASSIUM (K+)

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23
Q

is the most abundant cation in the ECF, representing 90% of all extracellular cations, and largely determines the osmolality of the plasma.

A

SODIUM (Na+)

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24
Q

is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality. In most processes, Cl− shifts secondarily to a movement of Na+ or HCO3−

A

CHLORIDE (Cl-)

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25
Q

is involved in blood coagulation, enzyme activity, excitability of skeletal and cardiac muscle and maintenance of blood pressure. It is essential for myocardial contraction

A

CALCIUM (Ca2+)

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26
Q

Three hormones regulate serum CALCIUM:

A

PARATHYROID HORMONE, VITAMIN D, AND CALCITONIN

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27
Q

is inversely related to calcium. Phosphate is essential for the insulin mediated entry of glucose into cells by a process involving phosphorylation and co-entry of potassium

A

PHOSPHORUS

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28
Q

is the fourth most abundant cation in the body and second most abundant intracellular ion. It is an essential cofactor of more than 300 enzymes, including those important in glycolysis; transcellular ion transport; neuromuscular transmission; synthesis of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids; and the release of and response to certain hormones

A

MAGNESIUM (Mg2+)

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29
Q

Fever will decrease pO2 by

A

7%

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30
Q

Fever will increase pCO2 by

A

3 %

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31
Q

Forward reaction for CK (creatine to creatine phosphate):

A

Tanzer-Gilvarg

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32
Q

Reverse reaction for CK (creatine phosphate to creatine):

A

Oliver-Rosalki

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33
Q

Forward reaction for LD (lactate to pyruvate):

A

Wacker

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34
Q

Reverse reaction for LD (pyruvate to lactate):

A

Wroblewski LaDue

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35
Q

Most potent of the estrogens:

A

Estradiol (E2)

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36
Q

Confirmatory test for acromegaly:

A

Glucose suppression test - OGTT

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37
Q

Cholesterol and triglycerides in hypothyroidism:

A

Increased

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38
Q

Cholesterol and triglycerides in hyperthyroidism:

A

Decreased

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39
Q

Metabolite of cocaine:

A

Benzoylecgonine

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40
Q

BMI of obese:

A

≥ 30 kg/m2

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41
Q

Relies on piston for suction to draw sample into disposable tip; the piston does not come in contact with the liquid

A

Air displacement pipette

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42
Q

Operates by moving the piston in the pipet tip or barrel, much like a hypodermic syringe; it does not require a different tip for each use

A

Positive displacement pipette

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43
Q

Horizontal position in the centrifuge when spinning and a vertical position when the head is not moving

A

Horizontal centrifuge/swinging bucket centrifuge

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44
Q

Control that continue to either increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days:

A

Trend

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45
Q

Six or more consecutive daily values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of mean:

A

Shift

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46
Q

The smaller the CV: ___ is the precision

A

Greater

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47
Q

Measurement of the diameters of all circles at a set time after initiation of the diffusion process, measurements are made 24 hours (or 18 hours) after addition of samples to the plate, preferable since results are available much sooner

A

Fahey RID technique

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48
Q

Measurements of the diameters after diffusion has ceased, often requires 2 to 3 days before results are available; provide a more reliable estimation of low levels of antigen

A

Mancini RID technique

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49
Q

stain for demonstration of spores

A

Shaeffer-Fulton stain

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50
Q

stain for demonstration of nucleic acids

A

Acridine orange

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51
Q

Fungal elements with acridine orange:

A

fluoresce green (APOLLON)

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52
Q

Thioglycollate broth boiled for 10 minutes:

A

To drive off oxygen

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53
Q

Selection and enrichment for Streptococcus agalactiae in female genital specimens

A

Todd-Hewitt broth

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54
Q

Culture media sterilization:

A

Autoclave sterilization, membrane filtration

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55
Q

Grade __ milk: Bacterial count 75,000 per mL when raw; not to exceed 15,000 bacteria per mL once pasteurized

A

Grade A milk

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56
Q

Positive malonate test:

A

Blue

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57
Q

Negative malonate test:

A

Green, yellow

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58
Q

Most common pathogen in throat cultures:

A

Group A Streptococcus

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59
Q

Storage of viral specimens:

A

4C

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60
Q

Transport of viral specimens:

A

-70C

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61
Q

Difference of enterovirus from rhinovirus: based on acid sensitivity

A

Enterovirus is acid resistant; Rhinovirus is acid sensitive

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62
Q

Non-operculated egg with small lateral spine:

A

S. japonicum

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63
Q

Non-operculated egg with lateral spine:

A

S. mansoni

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64
Q

Non-operculated egg with terminal spine:

A

S. haematobium

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65
Q

Schistosomal egg recovered in rectal biopsy:

A

S. mansoni, S. japonicum

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66
Q

Schsitosomule:

A

Cercaria minus tail

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67
Q

Gay bowel syndrome:

A

G. lamblia

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68
Q

Unholy 3 (triad of infection):

A

Hookworm, Ascaris, Trichuris

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69
Q

Nematode parasite with ❤️ to lung migration:

A

Ascaris, Strongyloides, Hookworms

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70
Q

First intermediate host of D. latum:

A

Copepods

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71
Q

Second intermediate host of D. latum:

A

Fresh water fish

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72
Q

15 to 20 tree-like, dichotomous uterine branches:

A

Taenia saginata

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73
Q

7 to 12 finger-like or dendritic branches:

A

Taenia solium

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74
Q

Iodine destroys:
troph, cysts or both

A

trophozoites

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75
Q

Granulomatous encephalitis (GAE):

A

Acanthamoeba

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76
Q

Synchronized rupture of RBCs every 72 hours:

A

Plasmodium malariae

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77
Q

Time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report.

A

Turnaround time (TAT)

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78
Q

Step by step documentation of handling and testing of legal specimens. It begins with patient identification and continues until testing is completed and results reported.

A

Chain of custody (chain of evidence)

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79
Q

Impermeable to water: loop of Henle

A

Ascending loop of Henle

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80
Q

Highly permeable to water but poorly permeable to solutes: loop of Henle

A

Descending loop of Henle

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81
Q

11th pad in the reagent strip:

A

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

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82
Q

Differentiates hemoglobin from myoglobin:

A

Blondheim’s test (ammonium sulfate ppt. hemoglobin)

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83
Q

Cabbage odor urine:

A

Methionine malabsorption

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84
Q

Bence Jones protein precipitates/coagulates at

A

40 to 60C

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85
Q

Bence Jones protein dissolved at

A

100C

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86
Q

Significant value of albumin excretion rate (AER):

A

20 to 200 µg/min

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87
Q

RBCs in hypotonic urine:

A

ghost cells

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88
Q

WBCs in hypotonic urine:

A

glitter cells

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89
Q

Lipid-containing RTE cells:

A

oval fat bodies (in lipiduria – nephrotic syndrome)

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90
Q

RTE cells with nonlipid-containing vacuoles:

A

bubble cells (in acute tubular necrosis)

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91
Q

Lemon-shaped crystal:

A

Uric acid

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92
Q

crystals in Ethylene glycol poisoning:

A

Monohydrate calcium oxalate (oval or dumbbell)

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93
Q

Apatite:

A

Calcium phosphate

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94
Q

Weddelite:

A

Dihydrate calcium oxalate, envelope or pyramidal

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95
Q

Whewellite:

A

Monohydrate calcium oxalate, oval, dumbbell

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96
Q

Struvite :

A

Triple phosphate (magnesium ammonium phosphate)

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97
Q

Renal calculi may form in the

A

calyces and pelvis of the kidney, ureters and bladder

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98
Q

Size of acrosomal cap:

A

1/2 of the head and covers 2/3 of the nucleus

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99
Q

Most common cause of male infertility:

A

Varicocele (hardening of the veins that drain the testes)

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100
Q

Undiluted seminal fluid, sperms immobilized by heat:

A

Makler counting chamber

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101
Q

(for choline) - Iodine, potassium iodide (+) Dark brown rhombic crystals

A

Florence test

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102
Q

(for spermine) - Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid (+) Yellow leaf-shaped crystals

A

Barbiero’s test

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103
Q

Tuberculous pleuritic:

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) 40 U/L or greater

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104
Q

Dark green amniotic fluid:

A

Meconium

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105
Q

Dark red brown amniotic fluid:

A

Fetal death

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106
Q

Inserted through the nose:

A

Levin tube

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107
Q

Inserted through the mouth:

A

Rehfuss tube

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108
Q

Normal stool pH:

A

pH 7 to 8

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109
Q

Stool pH in carbohydrate disorders:

A

pH to below 5.5

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110
Q

Calibration of centrifuge:

A

Every 3 months

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111
Q

Disinfection of centrifuge:

A

Weekly basis

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112
Q

In vivo and in vitro anticoagulant (natural anticoagulant)-

A

Heparin

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113
Q

marker for hematopoietic stem cells

A

CD 34

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114
Q

Hemoglobin synthesis:

A

Polychromatophilic normoblast to reticulocyte

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115
Q

Generates ATP:

A

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

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116
Q

Generates 2,3-DPG:

A

Rapoport-Leubering pathway

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117
Q

Study of antibody structure:

A

Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter

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118
Q

Antibody diversity:

A

Susumu Tonegawa

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119
Q

Papain fragmentation (3 fragments) =

A

2Fab + Fc

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120
Q

Pepsin fragmentation (2 fragments) =

A

F(ab)2 + Fc’

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121
Q

Natural killer cells:

A

CD 16 and CD56 (NK cells are part of the innate immunity)

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122
Q

Cook carrier of typhoid:

A

Mary Mallon

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123
Q

Most common congenital immunodeficiency:

A

selective IgA deficiency

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124
Q

Diluted household bleach prepared daily inactivates HBV:

A

10 minutes

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125
Q

Diluted household bleach prepared daily inactivates HIV:

A

2 minutes

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126
Q

Anti-A1 lectin:

A

Dolichos biflorus

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127
Q

Anti-H lectin:

A

Ulex europaeus

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128
Q

Lewis antigens are adsorbed from

A

plasma onto the RBC membrane

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129
Q

Kidd system antibody reactivity is enhanced with

A

enzymes, LISS, and PEG

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130
Q

Used to dilute blood components:

A

Isotonic (0.9%) saline or 5% albumin

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131
Q

Preparation of leukopoor RBCs:

A

Centrifugation, filtration, saline-washing

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132
Q

Primary advantage of gel technology:

A

Standardization

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133
Q

Removal of nicks:

A

Honing (heel to toe direction)

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134
Q

Removal of burrs:

A

Stropping (toe to heel direction)

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135
Q

Newcomer’s fixative:

A

Nuclear and histochemical fixative

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136
Q

Fixative for tissue photography:

A

Mercurial fixatives

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137
Q

Fixative for small tissue fragments:

A

Picric acid (yellow color to locate tissues easier)

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138
Q

Air-filled lungs may float on fixative:

A

Organ may be covered with several gauze to maintain it under surface

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139
Q

Fixation of hollow organs (stomach, intestines):

A

Packed with cotton soaked in fixative or completely opened before being immersed in adequate fixing solution

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140
Q

Decalcification:

A

Done after fixation and before impregnation

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141
Q

Optimum temp for decalcification:

A

Room temperature range 18 to 30C

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142
Q

Decalcifying agent that contains HCl:

A

von Ebner’s (HCl, NaCl, distilled water)

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143
Q

Embedding medium for electron microscopy:

A

Plastic medium

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144
Q

Double embedding (ICEP):

A

Infiltrated with celloidin then embedded with paraffin

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145
Q

Barr bodies, XX chromosomes:

A

Most of the nuclei of females exhibit conglomeration of chromatin, demonstrated in the smears from buccal or vaginal mucosa

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146
Q

Administrative investigation:

A

Done by at least 2 members of the board and 1 legal officer

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147
Q

Revocation:

A

Unanimous vote (3 of 3)

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148
Q

Suspension:

A

Majority vote (2 of 3)

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149
Q

STAT, STATIM:

A

Immediately

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150
Q

ASAP:

A

As soon as possible (Henry)

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151
Q

HEMATOMA:

A

NEVER PERFORM VENIPUNCTURE through a hematoma. If there is no alternative site, PERFORM THE VENIPUNCTURE DISTAL TO THE HEMATOMA to ensure the collection of free-flowing blood.

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152
Q

Calibrated to deliver accurately a fixed volume of a DILUTE AQUEOUS SOLUTION, bulb near the center of the pipette

A

VOLUMETRIC PIPETTE

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153
Q

Used for accurate measurement of VISCOUS FLUIDS, such as blood or serum; similar to volumetric pipettes but have the bulb closer to the delivery tip

A

OSTWALD-FOLIN PIPETTES

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154
Q

Calibrated between two marks on the stem

A

MOHR PIPETTE

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155
Q

Graduated marks down to the tip

A

SEROLOGIC PIPETTE

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156
Q

When a solute is dissolved in a solvent, these COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES change in a predictable manner for each osmole of substance present:

A
  • FREEZING POINT IS LOWERED by −1.86°C
  • VAPOR PRESSURE IS LOWERED by 0.3 mm Hg or torr
  • OSMOTIC PRESSURE IS INCREASED by a factor of 1.7 × 104 mm Hg or torr
  • BOILING POINT IS RAISED by 0.52°C
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157
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS (DMAIC)

A

DEFINE project goal or other deliverable that is critical to quality.
MEASURE baseline performance and related variables.
ANALYZE data using statistics and graphs to identify and quantify root cause.
IMPROVE performance by developing and implementing a solution.
CONTROL factors related to the improvement, verify impact, validate benefits, and monitor over time.

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158
Q

Best indication of overall glucose homeostasis

A

FASTING BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL

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159
Q

Over activity of the thyroid gland: Hyperthyroidism causing

A

THYROTOXICOSIS

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160
Q

Underactivity of the thyroid gland: Hypothyroidism causing

A

MYXEDEMA

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161
Q

Highest elevations of ALP:

A

Paget disease

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162
Q

Increased production of cortisol:

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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163
Q

Increased production of aldosterone:

A

Conn’s syndrome

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164
Q

Diagnostic tool for HEART FAILURE

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

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165
Q

PUMPING FIST DURING VENIPUNCTURE:

A

↑ K+, lactic acid, Ca2+, phosphorus; ↓ pH

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166
Q

TOURNIQUET > 1 MINUTE:

A

↑ K+, total protein, lactic acid

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167
Q

HEMOLYSIS:

A

↑ K+, Mg2+, phosphorus, LD, AST, iron, ammonia

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168
Q

Of all the urine sediment elements, RBCs are the most difficult for students to recognize: Reasons for this include

A

RBCs’ lack of characteristic structures, variations in size, and close resemblance to other urine sediment constituents. RBCs are frequently confused with yeast cells, oil droplets, and air bubbles

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169
Q

RBC CASTS ARE EASILY DETECTED:

A

UNDER LPO BY THEIR ORANGE-RED COLOR

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170
Q

Crystals are formed by the PRECIPITATION OF URINE SOLUTES, including inorganic salts, organic compounds, and medications (iatrogenic compounds):

A

Precipitation is subject to changes in temperature (solutes precipitate more readily at low temperatures), solute concentration, and pH, which affect solubility

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171
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID NORMAL CELL COUNT:

A

Red blood cell count <2,000 μL;
white blood cell count <200 μL

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172
Q

Most frequently used in the identification of Gardnerella vaginalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Campylobacter jejuni, and Listeria monocytogenes

A

HIPPURATE HYDROLYSIS TEST

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173
Q

Detects the presence of this CLINDAMYCIN-INDUCIBLE RESISTANCE

A

D-ZONE TEST

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174
Q

M PROTEIN BINDS ______, a regulatory protein of the alternate complement pathway involved in the degradation of C3b; it also binds to fibrinogen blocking complement alternate pathway activation

A

BETA GLOBULIN FACTOR H

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175
Q

Produces a toxin similar to Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae; SHIGA-LIKE TOXIN

A

EHEC/VTEC/STEC

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176
Q

Differentiates Alcaligenes faecalis from Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

UREASE (RAPID)
Alcaligenes faecalis (urease negative) Bordetella bronchiseptica (urease positive)

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177
Q

CLOSTRIDIAL ENDOSPORES may be resistant to ethanol, and after ethyl alcohol treatment, the spores will germinate upon inoculation and proper incubation on anaerobic blood agar in anaerobic conditions

A

ETHANOL SHOCK TECHNIQUE

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178
Q

Diagnostic for an infection with ACTINOMYCES

A

SULFUR GRANULES

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179
Q

SUBACUTE SCLEROSING PANENCEPHALITIS:

A

MEASLES

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180
Q

Tapeworm specialized structure for attachment:
Region for growth, regenerative region

A

SCOLEX; NECK

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181
Q

LIFESPAN OF TAPEWORMS
H. NANA:
H. DIMINUTA, D. CANINUM:
D. LATUM, T. SAGINATA, T. SOLIUM:

A

H. NANA: Perhaps many years as a result of autoinfection
H. DIMINUTA, D. CANINUM: Usually less than 1 year
D. LATUM, T. SAGINATA, T. SOLIUM: UP TO 25 YEARS

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182
Q

Organism is found most commonly in the crypts in the duodenum; associated with steatorrhea and malabsorption syndrome

A

G. LAMBLIA

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183
Q

MODIFIED AFB:

A

WEAKER DECOLORIZER, DECOLORIZER in modified acid-fast stains is usually 1% sulfuric acid (weak acid) rather than the stronger acid alcohol used in the routine AFB stains.

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184
Q

MICROFILARIA
Sheathed, nuclei absent in tail:
Sheathed, tail with 2 separate nuclei:
Sheathed, nuclei continuous up to the tip of the tail:
Unsheathed, nuclei absent in tail:
Unsheathed, nuclei continuous up to the tip of the tail:
Unsheathed, nuclei absent in tail:

A

Wuchereria bancrofti: Sheathed, nuclei absent in tail
Brugia malayi: Sheathed, tail with 2 separate nuclei
Loa loa: Sheathed, nuclei continuous up to the tip of the tail
Onchocerca volvulus: Unsheathed, nuclei absent in tail
Dipetalonema perstans: Unsheathed, nuclei continuous up to the tip of the tail
Mansonella ozzardi: Unsheathed, nuclei absent in tail

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185
Q

SITUATION AND APPROPRIATE COURSE OF ACTION
- Intravenous (IV) fluid:
- FISTULA:
- INDWELLING LINES AND CATHETERS, HEPARIN LOCKS:
- SCLEROSED VEINS:
- HEMATOMA:
- EDEMA:
- SCARS, BURNS, TATTOOS:
- MASTECTOMY:
- UNIDENTIFIED PATIENT:

A

Intravenous (IV) fluid: Use opposite arm or perform fingerstick, if possible; otherwise, have nurse turn off IV for 2 minutes, apply tourniquet below IV, use different vein (if possible). Document location of IV and venipuncture, type of fluid.
- FISTULA: Draw from opposite arm.
- INDWELLING LINES AND CATHETERS, HEPARIN LOCKS:Usually not drawn by lab. FIRST 5 mL DRAWN SHOULD BE DISCARDED. Lab may draw below heparin lock if nothing is being infused.
- SCLEROSED VEINS: Select another site.
- HEMATOMA: Draw below.
- EDEMA: Select another site.
- SCARS, BURNS, TATTOOS: Select another site.
- MASTECTOMY: Draw from opposite arm.
- UNIDENTIFIED PATIENT: Ask nurse to ID before drawing.

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186
Q

Includes enumeration of cellular elements, quantitation of hemoglobin, and statistical analyses that provide a snapshot of cell appearances

A

COMPELETE BLOOD COUNT (CBC) or HEMOGRAM

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187
Q

Hormone produced by hepatocytes to REGULATE BODY IRON LEVELS, particularly absorption of iron in the intestine and release of iron from macrophages

A

HEPCIDIN

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188
Q

Detects myelocytic cells by staining cytoplasmic granular contents

A

MYELOPEROXIDASE (MPO)

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189
Q

Detects myelocytic cells by staining cytoplasmic granular contents

A

SUDAN BLACK B (SBB)

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190
Q

Detects lymphocytic cells and certain abnormal erythrocytic cells by staining of cytoplasmic glycogen

A

PERIODIC ACID–SCHIFF (PAS)

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191
Q

Distinguish myelocytic from monocytic maturation stages (several esterase substrates)

A

ESTERASES

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192
Q

Detects tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase granules in hairy cell leukemia

A

TARTRATE-RESISTANT ACID PHOSPHATASE

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193
Q

Most potent phagocytic cell, most effective at antigen presentation

A

DENDRITIC CELLS

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194
Q

DEATH resulting from disease

A

MORTALITY

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195
Q

State of disease and its associated effects on the host

A

MORBIDITY

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196
Q

ENDOGENOUS PIGMENTS: Produced within the tissue

A
  • HEMATOGENOUS (blood-derived): Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, bile pigment and porphyrin
  • NON-HEMATOGENOUS: melanin, lipofuscin and chromaffin
  • ENDOGENOUS MINERALS: calcium, iron and copper
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197
Q

EXOGENOUS PIGMENTS

A
  • Tattoos, asbestos, carbon, silica, iron and silver
  • CARBON is the most common exogenous pigment (chronic smokers)
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198
Q

ARTEFACT PIGMENTS
- dark brown or black crystal-like precipitates especially in postmortem and blood-containing tissues; removed by saturated alcoholic picric acid
- black, brown or grayish black granules or clumps in tissue; removed with alcoholic iodine solution
- black deposits on tissues which have not been properly washed out; removed by bleaching
- fine brown or black granules; removed with the use of acid alcohol

A
  • FORMALIN: dark brown or black crystal-like precipitates especially in postmortem and blood-containing tissues; removed by saturated alcoholic picric acid
  • MERCURY: black, brown or grayish black granules or clumps in tissue; removed with alcoholic iodine solution
  • OSMIC ACID: black deposits on tissues which have not been properly washed out; removed by bleaching
  • CHROME DEPOSITS: fine brown or black granules; removed with the use of acid alcohol
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199
Q

FIRST CLINICAL LABORATORY IN THE PHILIPPINES:

A

MANILA PUBLIC HEALTH LABORATORY at Quiricada Street, Sta. Cruz, Manila

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200
Q

Formally organized the Manila Public Health Laboratory:

A

Dr, Pio de Roda, Dr. Mariano Icasiano

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201
Q

Total cholesterol (mg/dL)

A

<200 Desirable
200–239 Borderline high
≥240 High

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202
Q

Triglyceride (mg/dL)

A

<150 Normal
150–199 Borderline high
200–499 High
≥500 Very high

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203
Q

HDL (mg/dL)

A

<40 Low; MAJOR RISK FOR HEART DISEASE
≥60 High; PROTECTION AGAINST HEART DISEASE

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204
Q

LDL (mg/dL)

A

<100 Optimal
100–129 Near optimal/above optimal
130–159 Borderline high
160–189 High
≥190 Very high

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205
Q

CELL DEATH
1st manifestation is shrinkage, inflammatory response NOT elicited:

1st manifestation is swelling, inflammatory response accompanies necrosis:

A
  • APOPTOSIS (PHYSIOLOGIC) 1st manifestation is shrinkage, inflammatory response NOT elicited
  • NECROSIS (PATHOLOGIC) 1st manifestation is swelling, inflammatory response accompanies necrosis
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206
Q

is a self-inflicted cell death originating from the activation signals within the cell itself.
- The morphologic manifestation is shrinkage of the cell.
- The nucleus condenses and undergoes systematic fragmentation due to cleavage of the DNA between nucleosome subunits (multiples of 180 to 200 base pairs).
- Cellular products are not released into the extracellular space and an inflammatory response is not elicited

A

APOPTOSIS

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207
Q

is a PATHOLOGIC process caused by direct external injury to cells—for example, from burns, radiation, or toxins
- The first morphologic manifestation is a swelling of the cell.
- More severe damage, however, disrupts organelles and membranes; enzymes leak out of lysosomes that denature and digest DNA, RNA, and intracellular proteins; and ultimately the cell lyses.
- Usually accompanied by an inflammatory response due to the release of cell contents into the extracellular space.

A

NECROSIS

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208
Q

Family Coronaviridae includes the genera:

A

Torovirus and Coronavirus (CoV) and contains many species of both human and animal origin

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209
Q

Coronaviruses are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, medium-sized, enveloped RNA viruses.

A
  • Prefix corona- results from the viral structure and the crown-like surface projections on the external surface of the virus that can be seen with electron microscopy.
  • Human respiratory coronaviruses cause colds and occasionally pneumonia in adults.
  • Together the rhinoviruses and coronaviruses cause more than 55% of the “common colds” in the human populations.
  • Viral transmission is person to person via contaminated respiratory secretions or aerosols.
  • Virus is present in the highest concentration in the nasal passages, where it infects the nasal epithelial cells.
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210
Q

In November, 2002, SARS (SARS CoV-1) was identified as the cause of a worldwide outbreak. It first emerged in the Guangdong province in China.

A
  • Because of its sensitivity and specificity, molecular testing by RT-PCR remains the recommended method for laboratory diagnosis.
  • Although nucleic acid testing by RT-PCR is the most useful diagnostic test available, the virus is capable of growth in cell culture using the Vero-E6 cell line.
  • The characteristic viral CPE appears as a rapid cell rounding, refractivity and detachment.
  • BSL 3 or higher is required for propagation and manipulation of cell cultures containing this virus. (Bailey)
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211
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is the etiologic agent of the current rapidly growing outbreak of coronavirus disease (COVID-19), originating from the city of Wuhan, Hubei Province, China.

A
  • Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) is caused by a new coronavirus first identified in Wuhan, China, in December 2019.
  • Although most people who have COVID-19 have mild symptoms, COVID-19 can also cause severe illness and even death.
  • Some groups, including older adults and people who have certain underlying medical conditions, are at increased risk of severe illness.
  • On February 11, 2020, the World Health Organization announced an official name for the disease that is causing the 2019 novel coronavirus outbreak. The new name of this disease is coronavirus disease 2019, abbreviated as COVID-19. In COVID-19, ‘CO’ stands for ‘corona,’ ‘VI’ for ‘virus,’ and ‘D’ for disease. Formerly, this disease was referred to as “2019 novel coronavirus” or “2019-nCoV.”
  • Microbiology and pathology laboratories performing diagnostic tests on stool or respiratory specimens should handle potential SARS-CoV specimens using standard Biosafety Level (BSL)-2 work practices in a Class II biological safety cabinet.
  • CDC recommends virus isolation in cell culture, and initial characterization of viral agents recovered in cultures of novel SARS-CoV-2 should be conducted in a Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) laboratory using BSL-3 practices.
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212
Q

SYMPTOMS OF COVID-19 (WHO)

A

The most common symptoms of COVID-19 are
- Fever
- Dry cough
- Fatigue

Other symptoms that are less common and may affect some patients include:
- Loss of taste or smell
- Nasal congestion
- Conjunctivitis (also known as red eyes)
- Sore throat
- Headache
- Muscle or joint pain
- Different types of skin rash
- Nausea or vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Chills or dizziness

Symptoms of severe COVID‐19 disease include:
- Shortness of breath
- Loss of appetite
- Confusion
- Persistent pain or pressure in the chest
- High temperature (above 38 °C)
- Other less common symptoms are:
- Irritability
- Confusion
- Reduced consciousness (sometimes associated with seizures)
- Anxiety
- Depression
- Sleep disorders
- More severe and rare neurological complications such as strokes, brain inflammation, delirium and nerve damage.

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213
Q

The time from exposure to COVID-19 to the moment when symptoms begin is,

A

on average, 5-6 days and can range from 1-14 days. This is why people who have been exposed to the virus are advised to remain at home and stay away from others, for 14 days, in order to prevent the spread of the virus, especially where testing is not easily available.

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214
Q

Both isolation and quarantine are methods of preventing the spread of COVID-19.

A
  • Quarantine is used for anyone who is a contact of someone infected with the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which causes COVID-19, whether the infected person has symptoms or not. Quarantine means that you remain separated from others because you have been exposed to the virus and you may be infected and can take place in a designated facility or at home. For COVID-19, this means staying in the facility or at home for 14 days.
  • Isolation is used for people with COVID-19 symptoms or who have tested positive for the virus. Being in isolation means being separated from other people, ideally in a medically facility where you can receive clinical care. If isolation in a medical facility is not possible and you are not in a high risk group of developing severe disease, isolation can take place at home. If you have symptoms, you should remain in isolation for at least 10 days plus an additional 3 days without symptoms. If you are infected and do not develop symptoms, you should remain in isolation for 10 days from the time you test positive.
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215
Q

MASTER GLAND

A

PITUITARY GLAND

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216
Q

DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system

A

CARBON DIOXIDE

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217
Q

Measured by potentiometry

A

pH, pCO2

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218
Q

Measured by amperometry

A

pO2

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219
Q

integral part of nerve impulse transmission; movement across the nerve tissue membrane permits the neural signal to move down the nerve fiber

A

POTASSIUM

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220
Q

YELLOW FLAME

A

sodium

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221
Q

VIOLET FLAME

A

potassium

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222
Q

RED FLAME

A

lithium and rubidium

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223
Q

BLUE FLAME

A

magnesium

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224
Q

Beer’s law states that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of radiant energy absorbed: A = abc or ebc; where

A

a (or e) is molar absorptivity (a constant for a given molecule);
b is the length of the path traveled by the light;
c is the concentration of absorbing molecules

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225
Q

Majority of cases of laboratory-related infections

A

INFECTIOUS AEROSOLS

226
Q

Lean Six sigma

A

DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control) methodology

227
Q

CODEINE

A

Antitussive drug

228
Q

most common abused drug

A

Ethanol (grain alcohol)

229
Q

substance associated with blindness

A

Methanol (wood alcohol)

230
Q

“Odor of bitter almonds”

A

CYANIDE

231
Q

“Odor of garlic”; “metallic taste”; affinity to keratin

A

ARSENIC

232
Q

SPECIMEN REQUIREMENTS FOR BLOOD GAS ANALYSIS

A
  • Arterial blood is collected in a glass or plastic syringe. Capillary specimens can also be used (blood must be “arterialized”).
  • Lyophilized or liquid heparin is the preferred anticoagulant.
  • No air bubbles should exist in the sample because they lower the pCO2 value.
  • The specimen must be placed on ice and transported to the laboratory in 15 minutes at 4◦C and tested immediately. Otherwise, pH values decrease, and pCO2 values increase.
  • Blood clots are unacceptable.
233
Q

Floating B lipoprotein:

A

Β-VLDL

234
Q

Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein:

A

Lp (a)

235
Q

Drug associated with rhabdomyolysis: side effect in certain patients taking the

A

cholesterol-lowering STATIN medications; example: Flavostatins

236
Q

Rotting fish odor of urine:

A

TRIMETHYLAMINURIA

237
Q

Renal stones may form in:

A

RENAL PELVIS AND CALYCES, URETER and BLADDER

238
Q

RENAL CALCULI
- yellow to brown-red and are moderately hard
- pale and friable
- very hard and have a rough surface
- Yellow-brown, resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy

A

Uric acid and urate stones - yellow to brown-red and are moderately hard
Phosphate stones - pale and friable
Calcium oxalate stones - very hard and have a rough surface
Cystine stones - Yellow-brown, resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy

239
Q

Person submitting urine for drug test:

A

DONOR /CLIENT

240
Q

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA):

A

WEGENER’S GRANULOMATOSIS

241
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody:

A

GOODPASTURE’S SYNDROME

242
Q

Compare results with those of its peers:

A

BENCHMARKING

243
Q

Hepatocellular damage:

A

ALT and AST

244
Q

Hepatobiliary damage:

A

ALP and GGT

245
Q

Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:

A

SERUM ALP

246
Q

Cholesterol and triglyceride in hypothyroidism:

A

INCREASED

247
Q

Cholesterol and triglyceride in hyperthyroidism:

A

DECREASED

248
Q

Long term glucose monitoring:

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HBA1C)

249
Q

Short-term glucose monitoring:

A

FRUCTOSAMINE

250
Q

caused by reduced blood flow, poor perfusion of the kidneys resulting to decrease GFR

A

Pre-renal azotemia

251
Q

produced by kidney failure, damage to the filtering structures of the kidneys

A

Renal azotemia

252
Q

caused by an obstruction anywhere in the renal system

A

Post-renal azotemia

253
Q

detects for cell-bound coagulase or clumping factor

A

SLIDE COAGULASE

254
Q

detects for free coagulase

A

TUBE COAGULASE

255
Q

binds to chitin in the walls of fungal cells and fluoresces white or apple green

A

Calcoflour white

256
Q

Molar tooth colonies:

A

ACTINOMYCES ISRAELII

257
Q

Autofluorescence:

A

CYCLOSPORA CAYATENENSIS

258
Q

Presence of Philadelphia chromosome in CML:

A

BETTER PROGNOSIS

259
Q

Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in CML:

A

POOR PROGNOSIS

260
Q

Darkly staining mass of sex chromosome attached to the end of the nucleus of somatic cells:

A

BARR BODIES

261
Q

Manual WBC count: routine dilution of
Above 30 x 10 9th/L WBCs: dilution of
WBCs 100 to 300 x 10 9th/L: dilution of
WBCs below 3 x 10 9th/L: dilution of

A

Manual WBC count: routine dilution of 1:20
Above 30 x 10 9th/L WBCs: dilution of 1:100
WBCs 100 to 300 x 10 9th/L: dilution of 1:200
WBCs below 3 x 10 9th/L: dilution of 1:10

262
Q

Marker for hematopoeitic stem cells:

A

CD34

263
Q

Corrected WBC count

A

Adult ≥5 NRBCs/100 WBC differential
Neonate ≥10 NRBCs/100 WBC differential

264
Q

Poor man’s platelet aggregation:

A

EXAMINATION OF FILM OF FRESH CAPILLARY BLOOD

265
Q

SPUN HEMATOCRIT
First layer of spun hematocrit:
Second layer:
Third layer:
Bottom layer:

A

First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER (barely visible unless lipemic)
Second layer: PLASMA
Third layer: BUFFY COAT (1 mm = 10,000 WBCs/cu.mm)
Bottom layer: PACKED CELLS

266
Q

Differentiates acute myelogenous and MONOCYTIC leukemias from acute lymphocytic leukemia:

A

PEROXIDASE

267
Q

Differentiates acute myelogenous and MYELOMONOCYTIC leukemias from acute lymphocytic leukemia:

A

SUDAN BLACK B

268
Q

BASOPHILIC STIPPLING/PUNCTATE BASOPHILIA:

A

Precipitation of RIBOSOMES and RNA

269
Q

remnant of microtubules of mitotic spindle

A

CABOT RINGS

270
Q

arterial blood, bright red color

A

OXYHEMOGLOBIN (HbO2)

271
Q

venous blood, purplish red color

A

DEOXYHEMOGLOBIN (HbCO2)

272
Q

cherry red color, formation is reversible

A

CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN (HbCO)

273
Q

chocolate brown color, formation is reversible

A

METHEMOGLOBIN/HEMIGLOBIN (Hi)

274
Q

mauve lavender, formation is IRREVERSIBLE

A

SULFHEMOGLOBIN

275
Q

Major advantage of gel technology:

A

STANDARDIZATION

276
Q

Connection between two blood vessels:

A

ANASTOMOSIS

277
Q

hallmark rash of measles infection; bluish white spots with a red halo located on the buccal or labial mucosa

A

KOPLIK’S SPOTS (IN MEASLES)

278
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA):

A

CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS

279
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA):

A

PRIMARY BILIARY CIRRHOSIS

280
Q

Antigenic determinant:

A

EPITOPE

281
Q

Part of the antibody that binds to the antigen:

A

PARATOPE

282
Q

RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST):

A

measures total IgE

283
Q

RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST):

A

measures allergen-specific IgE

284
Q

most common congenital immunodeficiency

A

SELECTIVE IgA DEFICIENCY

285
Q

Removal of gross nicks:

A

HONING (heel to toe direction)

286
Q

Removal of burrs, final polishing:

A

STROPPING (toe to heel direction)

287
Q

Fastest embedding method:

A

VACUUM EMBEDDING

288
Q

appear in compensation for thrombocytopenia.

A

RETICULATED PLATELETS, sometimes known as STRESS PLATELETS
Reticulated platelets are markedly larger than ordinary mature circulating platelets; their diameter in peripheral blood films exceeds 6 mm, and their MPV reaches 12 to 14 fL.

289
Q

The PERIPHERAL FILM EVALUATION IS THE CAPSTONE of a panel of tests called the

A

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT (CBC) or HEMOGRAM

290
Q

HEPATITIS B VIRUS VACCINATION:

A

Laboratory employees should receive the HBV vaccination series at no cost before or within 10 days after beginning work in the laboratory.

291
Q

Heel punctures are used for infants less than 1 year old;

A

the puncture must be less than 2 mm deep to avoid injury to the bone.

292
Q

The rule of three specifies that the value of the hematocrit should be three times the value of the hemoglobin plus or minus 3 (%) or 0.03 (L/L).

A

A value discrepant with this rule may indicate abnormal red blood cells or it may be the first indication of error.

293
Q

which is used to assess the ERYTHROPOIETIC ACTIVITY OF THE BONE MARROW, is accomplished through the use of supravital stains (e.g., new methylene blue) or by flow cytometric methods.

A

RETICULOCYTE COUNT

294
Q

is defined conventionally as a DECREASE IN RBCS, HEMOGLOBIN, and HEMATOCRIT below the reference interval for healthy individuals of the same age, sex, and race, under similar environmental conditions.

A

ANEMIA

295
Q

Diagnosis of anemia is based on

A

history, physical examination, symptoms, and laboratory test results

296
Q

Laboratory procedures helpful in the INITIAL DIAGNOSIS OF ANEMIA include the

A

complete blood count (CBC) with RBC indices and the red blood cell distribution width (RDW), reticulocyte count, and examination of the peripheral blood film with emphasis on RBC morphology

297
Q

is a manifestation of the mucopolysaccharidosis characterized by metachromatic granules in leukocytes, which can be confused with toxic granulation.

A

ALDER-REILLY ANOMALY

298
Q

is an inherited lethal disorder characterized by giant lysosomes in granular cells and dysfunctional leukocytes.

A

CHEDIAK-HIGASHI SYNDROME

299
Q

is characterized by thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and Döhle body–like inclusions in leukocytes.

A

MAY-HEGGLIN ANOMALY

300
Q

is an inherited disorder of the NADPH oxidase system resulting in neutrophils that are incapable of killing many microorganisms due to a failure in the respiratory burst, which is necessary to produce antibacterial agents.

A

CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE

301
Q

stains primary granules and is useful in differentiating granulocytic from lymphoid cells.

A

MYELOPEROXIDASE (MPO)

302
Q

stains lipids and results PARALLEL those with the MPO stain.

A

SUDAN BLACK B (SBB)

303
Q

help differentiate granulocytes and their precursors from cells of monocytic origin.
Butyrate esterase testing gives positive results in monocytes but not in granulocyte precursors
Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase stains granulocyte precursors.

A

ESTERASES

304
Q

is caused by the lack of expression of GP Ib/IX/V complexes on the platelet surface. This receptor complex is responsible for platelet adhesion and its absence results in a severe bleeding disorder.

A

BERNARD-SOULIER SYNDROME

305
Q

is caused by the lack of expression of GP IIb/IIIa complexes on the platelet surface. This complex is known as the platelet aggregation receptor, and its absence is associated with a severe bleeding disorder.

A

GLANZMANN THROMBASTHENIA

306
Q

Evacuated tube storage temp relationship to blood draw volume:

A

If evacuated tubes are stored at low temperature, the pressure of the gas inside the tube will decrease. This would lead to an increase in draw volume for the evacuated tube. Conversely, higher temperatures could cause reductions in draw volume.
Low temperature – increase in draw volume
High temperature – decrease in draw volume

307
Q

Shelf life of an evacuated tube is defined by the

A

STABILITY OF THE ADDITIVE, as well as VACUUM RETENTION. Most evacuated tubes on the market have AT LEAST A 12-MONTH SHELF LIFE.

308
Q

A collection of clinical findings indicating adverse glomerular changes.
It is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria, and generalized edema.
A nonspecific disorder associated with renal as well as systemic diseases.

A

NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

309
Q

A group of clinical findings indicative of glomerular damage that include hematuria, proteinuria, azotemia, edema, hypertension, and oliguria.
Severity and combinations of features vary with the glomerular disease

A

NEPHRITIC SYNDROME

310
Q

FACTORS THAT INTERFERE WITH THE VALIDITY OF CLOT-BASED TEST RESULTS

BLOOD COLLECTION VOLUME LESS THAN SPECIFIED MINIMUM

A

PT falsely prolonged; recollect specimen.

311
Q

HEMATOCRIT ≥55%

A

Adjust anticoagulant volume using formula and recollect specimen using new anticoagulant volume.

312
Q

CLOT IN SPECIMEN

A

All results are affected unpredictably; recollect specimen.

313
Q

VISIBLE HEMOLYSIS

A

PT falsely shortened; recollect specimen.

314
Q

ICTERUS OR LIPEMIA

A

Measure PT using a mechanical coagulometer.

315
Q

HEPARIN THERAPY

A

Use reagent known to be insensitive to heparin or one that includes a heparin neutralizer such as polybrene.

316
Q

LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT

A

PT result is invalid; use chromogenic factor X assay instead of PT.

317
Q

INCORRECT CALIBRATION, INCORRECT DILUTION OF REAGENTS

A

Correct analytical error and repeat test.

318
Q
  • Chickenpox and shingles
  • Vaccine important in controlling outbreaks
  • Tzanck stain: Giant cells
A

Varicella-Zoster Virus

319
Q
  • Isolated from blood, urine, throat
  • In adults: Syndrome similar to mononucleosis, may infect kidney (shed in urine)
  • In immunocompromised: Kidney, eye, lung, often fatal
A

Cytomegalovirus

320
Q
  • Heterophile-positive infectious mononucleosis (85%)
  • Can produce tumors
  • Not isolated in culture

Serologic diagnosis
* Early antigen
* Viral capsid antigen: IgM and IgG
* Nuclear antigen

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

321
Q
  • Human parvovirus B-19 - erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
  • Infects bone marrow cells (erythrocyte) - Causes aplastic crisis
A

Parvoviruses

322
Q
  • Oocysts in stool are diagnostic, modified acid-fast stain
  • Linked to water-borne and food-borne illness
  • Mild GI symptoms
A

Cyclospora cayetanensis - AUTOFLUORESCENCE

323
Q

Lice

A
  • Lice occur worldwide and in all socioeconomic classes
  • Vector for typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii), trench fever (Bartonella quintana), and relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis)
  • Spread from human to human
  • Body lice usually on the body and head
  • Crab lice usually in pubic region, spread to the armpits, facial hair, eyebrows, and eyelashes
324
Q

Mites

A
  • Sarcoptes scabei is the cause of scabies worldwide
  • Transmitted by contact
  • Organisms burrow into the skin on the webbing side of fingers, later spreading to the wrists, elbows and beyond
325
Q

Bedbugs

A
  • Cimex lectularius
  • Preferential feeding host is human
  • Nocturnal blood meals
  • Symptoms occur days after bite
326
Q
  • Rare acquired disorder resulting from stem cell mutation in the PIGA gene
  • Cells lack glycoslyphosphatidlyinositol-anchored proteins, including CD55 and CD59
  • RBCs are susceptible to complement lysis, because CD55 and CD59 inhibit complement and are absent, cells may lyse spontaneously
A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

327
Q
  • Characterized by increased platelets and megakaryopoiesis; however, platelets may not function normally
A

Essential Thrombocythemia

328
Q
  • Mature B-cell disorder with an indolent course
  • CBC shows elevated WBC counts with a predominance of small lymphoid cells, usually with dense, hypermature nuclei and little cytoplasm, and smudge cell are frequently seen
A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)/Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma

329
Q
  • Chronic B-cell neoplasm with lymphocytes showing threadlike or “hairy” projections
  • Flow cytometry is positive for CD19, CD20, CD22, CD11c, CD25, CD103
  • Positive for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain ○ Hairy lymphocytes may be seen
  • Annexin A1 is the most specific marker for HCL, in addition to being positive for DBA-44
A

Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL)

330
Q

ACUTE CORONARY SYNDROME (ACS) with frank necrosis of any amount of myocardium is known as

A

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION (MI)

331
Q

The major clinical use of SERUM AND URINE PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS is to screen for

A

MONOCLONAL GAMMOPATHIES

332
Q

ENZYMES LOWER THE ACTIVATION ENERGIES of the chemical reactions that they catalyze, so as to cause greatly enhanced rates of reaction.

A
333
Q

Skin at a pH of approximately 5.6:

A

this acid pH keeps most microorganisms from growing.

334
Q

B lymphocytes are stimulated to produce antibodies to HIV, which can usually be detected in the host’s serum by

A

SIX (6) WEEKS after primary infection.

335
Q

The most commonly used disinfectant is a 1:10 dilution of SODIUM HYPOCHLORITE (HOUSEHOLD BLEACH) prepared weekly and stored in a plastic, not a glass, bottle.

A
336
Q

should be considered a cause of diarrhea in patients on antibiotic therapy or hospitalized for more than 3 days.

A

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE

337
Q

cause GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE IN ANIMALS and have been associated with soft tissue infection in humans following animal bites.

A

ACTINOBACILLUS SPP.

338
Q

are short to very short gram-negative bacilli. They occur singly, in pairs, and in chains, and they tend to exhibit bipolar staining. This staining morphology gives the overall appearance of the DOTS AND DASHES OF MORSE CODE.

A

ACTINOBACILLUS SPP

339
Q

Oocysts survive in the environment for several months to more than 1 year and are resistant to disinfectants, freezing, and drying. However, they are killed by heating to 70° C for 10 minutes.

A

TOXOPLASMA GONDII

340
Q

Disease caused by Naegleria fowleri can be severe and life-threatening (PRIMARY AMEBIC MENINGOENCEPHALITIS[PAM])

A
341
Q

can be caused by Acanthamoeba spp. and Balamuthia mandrillaris; keratitis is also caused by these organisms, and infection can be linked to blindness or severe corneal damage

A

Chronic GRANULOMATOUS AMEBIC ENCEPHALITIS(GAE)

342
Q

BASKET NUCLEUS:

A

Iodamoeba bütschlii

343
Q

is the comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known physical constant.

A

CALIBRATION

344
Q

BLOOD ALCOHOL (% w/v)

no obvious impairment, some changes observable on performance testing

A

0.01 to 0.05

345
Q

mild euphoria, decreased inhibitions, some impairment of motor skills

A

0.03 to 0.12

346
Q

decreased inhibitions, loss of critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished reaction time

A

0.09 to 0.25

347
Q

mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech)

A

0.18 to 0.30

348
Q

unable to stand or walk, vomiting, impaired consciousness

A

0.27 to 0.40

349
Q

coma and possible death

A

0.35 to 0.50

350
Q

Gastric juice is obtained by insertion of gastric tube into the stomach. What insertion is through the mouth?

A

REHFUSS TUBE

351
Q

Gastric juice is obtained by insertion of gastric tube into the stomach. What insertion is through the nose?

A

LEVIN TUBE

352
Q

anti-TSH receptor antibodies (anti-TSHR)

A

GRAVES’ DISEASE (HYPER)

353
Q

anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO, microsomal), anti-thyroglobulin

A

HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS (HYPO)

354
Q

Most laboratory errors occur in the:

A

preanalytic and postanalytic stages

355
Q

are tools that can be used to reduce laboratory errors and increase productivity.

A

Six Sigma and Lean

356
Q

Effective laboratory management requires leaders to provide direction and managers to get things done. Strategic planning, marketing, human resource management, and quality management are all key elements of a laboratory organization.

A
357
Q

describes how close a test result is to the true value.

A

ACCURACY

358
Q

describes how close the test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed.

A

PRECISION

359
Q

are highly purified substances of a known composition.

A

STANDARDS

360
Q

represents a specimen with a known value that is similar in composition, for example, to the patient’s blood.

A

CONTROL (noun)

361
Q

is a process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens.

A

QUALITY CONTROL

362
Q

is the comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

A

CALIBRATION

363
Q

Any brightfield microscope may be CONVERTED TO A DARKFIELD MICROSCOPE by use of a SPECIAL DARKFIELD CONDENSER in place of the usual condenser.

A
364
Q

The PHASE-CONTRAST MICROSCOPE is basically a brightfield microscope with changes in the

A

OBJECTIVE and the CONDENSER.

365
Q

To convert a brightfield microscope to a POLARIZING one requires

A

TWO FILTERS.

366
Q

The most sensitive method for detecting C. TRACHOMATIS is

A

NUCLEIC ACID AMPLIFICATION.

367
Q

which involves separation and identification of compounds in the gas phase from their mass/charge ratios and fragmentation patterns, is the “gold standard” for detection and quantitation of drugs in body fluids.

A

GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY–MASS SPECTROSCOPY

368
Q

TOXEMIA OF PREGNANCY, OR PREECLAMPSIA, is characterized by HYPERTENSION and PROTEINURIA, and consequently can be monitored by urine protein measurements.

A
369
Q

SPECIFIC GRAVITY AND OSMOLALITY MEASUREMENTS REFLECT THE CONCENTRATING ABILITY OF THE KIDNEYS. After a period of dehydration, the osmolality should be three to four times that of plasma.

A
370
Q

is the CENTRAL CONVERGENCE POINT for all complement activation pathways.

A

COMPLEMENT COMPONENT C3

371
Q

HBV may be stable in dried blood and blood products at 25°C for up to 7 days.

A
372
Q

HIV retains infectivity for more than 3 days in dried specimens at room temperature and for more than 1 week in an aqueous environment at room temperature.

A
373
Q

Two main functions of the serologic crossmatch test can be cited:

A
  1. It is a final check of ABO compatibility between donor and patient.
  2. It may detect the presence of an antibody in the patient’s serum that will react with antigens on the donor RBCs but that was not detected in antibody screening because the corresponding antigen was lacking from the screening cells.
374
Q

are designed to stop the spread of microorganisms via direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact and indirect contact, which is usually the result of a person making contact with a contaminated inanimate object.

A

CONTACT PRECAUTIONS

375
Q

are designed to provide protection from extremely tiny airborne bacteria or dust particles, which may be suspended in the air for an extended period.

A

AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS

376
Q

protect health care workers, visitors, and other patients from droplets, which may be expelled during coughing, sneezing, or talking

A

DROPLET PRECAUTIONS

377
Q

DEGREE OF HAZARD:

A

4: extreme hazard
3: serious hazard
2: moderate hazard
1: slight hazard
0: no or minimal hazard

378
Q

When a solute is dissolved in a solvent, these COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES change in a predictable manner for each osmole of substance present:

A
  • FREEZING POINT IS LOWERED by −1.86°C
  • VAPOR PRESSURE IS LOWERED by 0.3 mm Hg or torr
  • OSMOTIC PRESSURE IS INCREASED by a factor of 1.7 × 104 mm Hg or torr
  • BOILING POINT IS RAISED by 0.52°C
379
Q

error that is INCONSISTENT and whose source cannot be definitely identified

A

RANDOM ERROR

380
Q

error that is introduced into a test system and is not a random occurrence

A

SYSTEMATIC ERROR

381
Q

Increased production of cortisol:

A

CUSHING’S SYNDROME

382
Q

Increased production of aldosterone:

A

CONN’S SYNDROME

383
Q

Diagnostic tool for HEART FAILURE:

A

B-TYPE NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE (BNP)

384
Q

UROBILINOGEN (COLORLESS):

A

less than 1 mg/dL or Ehrlich unit is normally found in the urine

385
Q

most frequently used in the identification of Gardnerella vaginalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Campylobacter jejuni, and Listeria monocytogenes:

A

HIPPURATE HYDROLYSIS TEST

386
Q

Detects the presence of this CLINDAMYCIN-INDUCIBLE RESISTANCE

A

D-ZONE TEST

387
Q

Organism is found most commonly in the crypts in the duodenum; associated with steatorrhea and malabsorption syndrome

A

GIARDIA LAMBLIA

388
Q

Hormone produced by hepatocytes to REGULATE BODY IRON LEVELS, particularly absorption of iron in the intestine and release of iron from macrophages

A

HEPCIDIN

389
Q

UNIQUE AMINO ACID SEQUENCE that is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given species

A

ISOTYPE

390
Q

minor variation of sequences that are present in some individuals but not others

A

ALLOTYPE

391
Q

variable portions of each chain unique to a specific antibody molecule

A

IDIOTYPE

392
Q

only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation

A

ABO

393
Q

BLOOD BANK STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES (SOP) REVIEWED AT LEAST ANNUALLY and updated on a regular basis to reflect changes in operations and implementation of new regulations.

A
394
Q

DEATH resulting from disease

A

MORTALITY

395
Q

State of disease and its associated effects on the host

A

MORBIDITY

396
Q

best taken from the UPPER LATERAL THIRD OF THE VAGINAL WALL

A

VAGINAL SMEAR

397
Q

Some evidence of a disease that is experienced or perceived by the patient - something that is subjective. Examples are ache or pain, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), blurred vision, nausea, dizziness, itching, and chills.

A

SYMPTOM

398
Q

Some type of objective evidence of a disease. For example, while palpating a patient, a physician might discover a lump or an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) or spleen (splenomegaly). Other signs of disease include abnormal heart or breath sounds, blood pressure, pulse rate, and laboratory results as well as abnormalities that appear on radiographs, ultrasound studies, or computed tomography scans.

A

SIGN

399
Q

JAUNDICE OR ICTERUS IS A PHYSICAL SIGN characterized by a yellow appearance of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera caused by bilirubin deposition

Usually apparent clinically when the plasma bilirubin concentration reaches 2 to 3 mg/dL

A
400
Q

indication of RELATIVE CONCENTRATION

A

Dilution

401
Q

amount of something in proportion to an amount of something else; always describes a relative amount

A

Ratio

402
Q

amount of solute in a given volume of solution

A

Concentration

403
Q

number of osmoles of solute per liter of solution

A

Osmolarity

404
Q

gram-molecular mass or weight of a compound per liter of solution

A

Molarity

405
Q

number of equivalent weights per liter of solution

A

Normality

406
Q

MOST BASIC PIPET:

A

GLASS PIPETTE

407
Q

Most routinely used pipette:

A

AUTOMATIC PIPETTE

408
Q

Cleaning of glassware:

A

SULFURIC ACID-DICHROMATE MIXTURE

409
Q

CRITERIA FOR A GOOD STANDARD CURVE

A

Line is straight
Line connects all points
Line goes through the origin, or intersect, of the two axes

410
Q

to determine whether the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation to the hand after the radial artery puncture.

A

MODIFIED ALLEN TEST

411
Q

MOST COMMON CONGENITAL FORM OF GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE; associated with hyperlipidemia

A

VON GIERKE DISEASE or Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency type 1 (1a)

412
Q

Circulating C-peptide provides reliable indicators for pancreatic and insulin secretions (β-cell function).
TYPE 1 DM: very low, undetectable C-peptide
TYPE 2 DM: detectable, measurable C-peptide

A
413
Q

chronic process involving damage to the endothelium and the buildup of CHOLESTEROL-RICH lesions that threaten to occlude the vasculature

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS

414
Q

Cholesterol: 60-70% is transported by LDL, 20-35% by HDL and 5-12% by VLDL

A
415
Q

Triglycerides: transported in plasma mostly in the form of CHYLOMICRONS AND VLDL

A
416
Q

Phospholipids: constitute about 25% of LDL mass and 30% of HDL mass

A
417
Q

transport of exogenous/dietary triglyceride

A

CHYLOMICRONS

418
Q

transport of endogenous/liver synthesized triglyceride

A

VLDL

419
Q

cholesterol transport

A

LDL

420
Q

reverse cholesterol transport

A

HDL

421
Q

is the FIRST metabolite to elevate in kidney diseases.

A

UREA

422
Q

UREA is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE IS DECREASED BY AT LEAST 50%.

A
423
Q

chief extracellular anions are chloride and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL relationship between them: a decrease in the amount of one produces an increase in the amount of the other.

A

CHLORIDE AND BICARBONATE

424
Q

DERANGEMENTS OF BILIRUBIN METABOLISM

HEMOLYSIS: Hemolytic anemias
TRANSPORT DEFICIT: Gilbert’s syndrome
CONJUGATION DEFICIT: Crigler-Najjar syndrome
EXCRETION DEFICIT: Dubin-Johnson (IEM), Rotor syndrome (viral origin), biliary obstruction

A
425
Q

Reference method for ALP, substrate is p-nitrophenylphosphate

A

Bowers-McComb

426
Q

CONTRIBUTOR TO SERUM OSMOLALITY:
92% sodium, chloride and bicarbonate
8% other ECF electrolytes, serum proteins, glucose and urea

A
427
Q

INCREASED ADH:

A

Fluid retention, low serum sodium

428
Q

DECREASED ADH:

A

Fluid loss, high serum sodium

429
Q

INCREASED ALDOSTERONE:

A

Hypertension, low serum potassium

430
Q

DECREASED ALDOSTERONE:

A

Low serum sodium, high serum potassium

431
Q

INCREASED RENIN:

A

Hypertension

432
Q

Thyroid status is best assessed biochemically by measurement of plasma TSH and free T4, with free T3 being measured in addition if hyperthyroidism is suspected

A
433
Q

KEY PROCESSES INVOLVED IN DRUG DISPOSITION

LIBERATION: Release of the dug
ABSORPTION: Transport of the drug from the site of administration to the blood
DISTRIBUTION: Delivery of the drug to the tissues
METABOLISM: Chemical modification of the drug by cells
EXCRETION: Drugs and its metabolites are excreted from the body

A
434
Q

Route of drug administration is associated with 100% bioavailability:

A

INTRAVENOUS

435
Q

Establishing a reference interval: require from 120 to as many as ≈700 study

A
436
Q

Verifying a reference interval: require as few as 20 study individuals

A
437
Q

RANDOM ERROR: Error that does not recur in regular pattern; no trend or means of predicting it
-Mislabeling a sample
-Pipetting errors
-Improper mixing of sample and reagent
-Voltage fluctuations not compensated for by instrument circuitry, and temperature fluctuations

A
438
Q

SYSTEMATIC ERROR: Recurring error inherent in test procedure; seen as a trend in the data
-Improper calibration
-Deterioration of reagents
-Sample instability
-Instrument drift
-Changes in standard materials

A
439
Q

THE ACCEPTED “BIOHAZARD” LABEL:

A

FLUORESCENT ORANGE

440
Q

ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT MUST BE GROUNDED WITH THREE-PRONGED PLUGS.

A
441
Q

NOT VISIBLY SOILED HANDS: hand antisepsis with an alcohol-based hand rub

VISIBLY SOILED HANDS: hands should be washed with soap and water, dry with paper towel

A
442
Q

ORGANIC COMPONENTS OF URINE:

A

urea, creatinine, uric acid

443
Q

INORGANIC COMPONENTS OF URINE:

A

chloride, sodium, potassium

444
Q

GESTATIONAL DIABETES: hormones secreted by the placenta block the action of insulin, resulting in insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.

A
445
Q

DYSMORPHIC RED BLOOD CELLS: indicative of

A

GLOMERULAR BLEEDING

446
Q

VALUES OF pH CAN BE ASSOCIATED WITH CALCULI FORMATION
-pH < 5.5: uric acid, cystine, or xanthine calculi
-pH 5.5 to 6: calcium oxalate and apatite calculi
-pH > 7: magnesium ammonium phosphate or calcium phosphate calculi

A
447
Q

DIMORPHIC ANEMIA:
-The presence of hypochromic cells and normochromic cells in the same film is called anisochromia or, sometimes, a dimorphic anemia

-This is characteristic of SIDEROBLASTIC ANEMIAS but also is found some weeks after IRON THERAPY FOR IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, or in a hypochromic anemia AFTER TRANSFUSION with normal cells

A
448
Q

MACROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA:
-Caused by traumatic cardiac hemolysis (RBC fragmentation from damaged or prosthetic cardiac valves) or exercise-induced hemolysis (mechanical trauma from forceful impact on feet or hands or strenuous exercise)

A
449
Q

MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA:
-Characterized by the shearing of RBCs as they pass through small blood vessels partially blocked by microthrombi

-Fragmented RBCs (called schistocytes) are formed, and the premature RBC destruction results in hemolytic anemia. Ischemic injury to the brain, kidney, and other organs also occurs.

A
450
Q

distinctive lesions occur in the heart, RHEUMATIC FEVER

A

ASCHOFF BODIES

451
Q

Decrease in ionized calcium: MAY RESULT IN TETANY

A
452
Q

WILSON’S DISEASE (HEPATOLENTICULAR DEGENERATION)
-Deficiency of ceruloplasmin
-Disordered copper metabolism, in which hepatic excretion of copper into the bile is impaired, leading to toxic deposition of copper in tissues.

A
453
Q

CHOLINESTERASE: DECREASED VALUE IS SIGNIFICANT

A
454
Q

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE (GGT)
-SZASZ assay
-Detection of alcoholism and monitoring of alcohol consumption by these patients during treatment

A
455
Q

ETHOSUXIMIDE
-Drug of choice for absence (petit mal) seizures unaccompanied by other types of seizures

-It is preferred over valproic acid, at least initially, because hepatotoxicity is a rare but serious side effect of valproic acid (HENRY)

A
456
Q

Normal blood pH:

A

pH 7.35 to 7.45 (pH 7.40; H+ 40 nmol/L)

457
Q

ACIDEMIA:

A

pH < 7.35; H+ >45 nmoles/L

458
Q

ALKALEMIA:

A

pH > 7.45; H+ <35 nmoles/L

459
Q

VINEGAR:

A

natural disinfectant; bleach alternative for some applications

460
Q

Oxygen labile (destroyed by oxygen)
Antigenic
Subsurface hemolysis

A

STREPTOLYSIN O

461
Q

Oxygen stable
Non-antigenic
Surface hemolysis

A

STREPTOLYSIN S

462
Q

Urine volume for drug testing (COC):

A

30 to 45 mL urine; 60-mL container capacity

463
Q

Urine volume for routine urinalysis:

A

10 to 15 mL urine; 50-mL container capacity

464
Q

Afternoon specimen (2 pm to 4 pm):

A

urobilinogen determination

465
Q

Renal threshold for glucose:

A

160 to 180 mg/dL

466
Q

Squamous epithelial cell:

A

Largest cell in the urine sediment

467
Q

Renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cell:

A

most significant epithelial cell, originate from the nephron

468
Q

Yellow to brownish red, moderately hard:

A

URIC ACID AND URATE STONES

469
Q

Pale and friable:

A

PHOSPHATE STONES

470
Q

Very hard, dark color, rough surface:

A

CALCIUM OXALATE STONES

471
Q

Yellow-brown resembling an old soap, somewhat greasy:

A

CYSTINE STONES

472
Q

formed from the granules of disintegrating EOSINOPHILS; found in sputum in asthma patients and feces in dysentery patients

A

CHARCOT-LEYDEN CRYSTALS

473
Q

Calibration of the centrifuge:

A

EVERY THREE (3) MONTHS

474
Q

Disinfection of the centrifuge:

A

WEEKLY

475
Q

Time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report

A

TURNAROUND TIME (TAT)

476
Q

Marker for hematopoietic stem cells:

A

CD 34

477
Q

Most serious of the complement deficiencies
Associated with sever and recurrent infections, glomerulonephritis

A

C3 DEFICIENCY

478
Q

Most common of the complement deficiencies
Associated with autoimmune diseases (LE-like), atherosclerosis

A

C2 DEFICIENCY

479
Q

Anaphylaxis, hay fever, asthma, food allergy

A

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY (ANAPHYLACTIC)

480
Q

Transfusion reactions, HDN, thrombocytopenia

A

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY (CYTOTOXIC)

481
Q

Arthus reaction, serum sickness

A

TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY (IMMUNE COMPLEX)

482
Q

Contact dermatitis, tuberculin test ex. Mantoux

A

TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY (DELAYED OR CELL-MEDIATED)

483
Q

predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils)

A

ACUTE INFLAMMATION

484
Q

predominantly mononuclear cell infiltration (macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells)

A

CHRONIC INFLAMMATION

485
Q

Recommended fixative for nervous tissue (CNS) preservation:

A

FORMALDEHYDE (FORMALIN)

486
Q

Fix sputum since it coagulates mucus:

A

ALCOHOLIC FORMALIN (GENDRE’S) FIXATIVE

487
Q

Fixative for electron microscopy:

A

GLUTARALDEHYDE FOLLOWED BY SECONDARY FIXATION IN OSMIUM TETROXIDE

488
Q

Most common metallic fixative:

A

MERCURIC CHLORIDE

489
Q

Fixative of choice for tissue photography:

A

MERCURIC CHLORIDE

490
Q

Removal of black mercurial deposits:

A

SATURATED IODINE SOLUTION IN 96% ALCOHOL

491
Q

Recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially of the skin:

A

HEIDENHAIN’S SUSA SOLUTION

492
Q

Recommended for study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis:

A

ORTH’S FLUID

493
Q

Demonstrates Rickettsiae and other bacteria:

A

ORTH’S FLUID

494
Q

Excellent fixative for glycogen demonstration:

A

PICRIC ACID

495
Q

Yellow stain taken in by tissues prevents small fragments from being overlooked:

A

PICRIC ACID

496
Q

Glacial acetic acid solidifies at what temperature:

A

17C

497
Q

Effect of glacial acetic acid:

A

CAUSES THE TISSUES TO SWELL

498
Q

Considered to be as the most rapid fixative; fixes and dehydrates at the same time:

A

CARNOY’S FLUID

499
Q

Decalcification should be done:

A

AFTER FIXATION AND BEFORE IMPREGNATION

500
Q

Most common and fastest decalcifying agent used:

A

NITRIC ACID

501
Q

Decalcified and softens tissue at the same time:

A

PERENYI’S FLUID

502
Q

Decalcifying agent that contains hydrochloric acid:

A

VON EBNER’S FLUID

503
Q

Most commonly used clearing agent in histology laboratories:

A

XYLENE (XYLOL)

504
Q

Fastest embedding:

A

VACUUM EMBEDDING

505
Q

Highly purified paraffin and synthetic plastic polymers:

A

PARAPLAST

506
Q

Semisynthetic wax recommended for embedding eyes:

A

BIOLOID

507
Q

Product of paraffin containing rubber:

A

TISSUE MAT

508
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:

A

INCOMPLETE FIXATION

509
Q

Clearing agent turns milky:

A

INCOMPLETE DEHYDRATION

510
Q

Air holes found on tissue during trimming:

A

INCOMPLETE IMPREGNATION

511
Q

Serves as a link between the tissue and the dye:

A

MORDANT

512
Q

Accelerates or hastens the speed of the staining reaction:

A

ACCENTUATOR

513
Q

Probably the best vital dye:

A

NEUTRAL RED

514
Q

Vital dye recommended for mitochondria:

A

JANUS GREEN

515
Q

Ripening of hematoxylin:

A

OXIDATION

516
Q

recommended for progressive staining but can also be used for regressive staining

A

ALUM HEMATOXYLIN

517
Q

used only for differential or regressive staining

A

IRON HEMATOXYLIN

518
Q

study of spermatogenesis

A

COPPER HEMATOXYLIN

519
Q

Stain for reticulin fibers:

A

GOMORI’S SILVER IMPREGNATION STAIN

520
Q

Stain for basement membrane:

A

PAS, AZOCARMINE

521
Q

Stain for muscle striations:

A

MALLORY’S PHOSPHOTUNGSTIC ACID HEMATOXYLIN (PTAH)

522
Q

Stain for melanin and argentaffin granules:

A

MASSON-FONTANA

523
Q

Stain for calcium:

A

VON KOSSA

524
Q

To avoid distortion of the image, the REFRACTIVE INDEX OF THE MOUNTANT should be as near as possible to that of the glass which is 1.518

A
525
Q

Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology:

A

STILL THE ORIGINAL PAPANICOLAU (PAP’S)

526
Q

benign tumors arising from glands

A

ADENOMAS

527
Q

benign tumors from epithelial surfaces

A

POLYPS OR PAPILLOMAS

528
Q

malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL ORIGIN

A

CARCINOMA

529
Q

malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE (MESENCHYMAL) ORIGIN

A

SARCOMA

530
Q

REPORTING FOR DIAGNOSIS OF CANCER (PAP’S)

CLASS I: Absence atypical or abnormal cells
CLASS II: Atypical cytological picture but no evidence of malignancy
CLASS III: Cytologic picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy
CLASS IV: Cytologic picture strongly suggestive of malignancy
CLASS V: Cytologic picture conclusive of malignancy

A
531
Q

incomplete or defective development of a tissue or organ, represented only by a mass of fatty or fibrous tissue

A

APLASIA

532
Q

failure of an organ to reach or achieve its full mature or adult side due to incomplete development

A

HYPOPLASIA

533
Q

complete non-appearance of an organ

A

AGENESIA

534
Q

failure of an organ to form an opening

A

ATRESIA

535
Q

acquired decrease in size of a normally developed or mature tissue or organ resulting from reduction in cell size or decrease in total number of cells or both

A

ATROPHY

536
Q

It is most commonly encountered when the arterial supply is cut off producing ANEMIC or ISCHEMIC INFARCTION

A

COAGULATION NECROSIS

537
Q

Rapid total enzymatic dissolution of cells with complete destruction of the entire cell; most commonly encountered in the brain; also in all tissues in bacterial infections which lead to the formation of pus

A

LIQUEFACTION NECROSIS (COLLIQUATIVE)

538
Q

Peculiar destruction of adipose tissue, particularly found in pancreatic degenerations

A

FAT NECROSIS

539
Q

Special form of cell death by the Tubercle Bacillus, the destroyed cells are converted into a granular, friable mass made up of a mixture of coagulated protein and fat, with total loss of cell detail. Caseous necrosis because in the gross state, the necrotic tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.

A

CASEOUS NECROSIS

540
Q

Massive death or necrosis of tissue, caused by combination of ischemia and superimposed bacterial infection (necrosis plus putrefaction).

A

GANGRENOUS NECROSIS

541
Q

PRIMARY CHANGES OR SIGNS OF DEATH
CIRCULATORY FAILURE
RESPIRATORY FAILURE
NERVOUS FAILURE

A
542
Q

SECONDARY SIGNS OF DEATH:

-ALGOR MORTIS – first demonstrable change, cooling of the body, occurring at definite rate of about 7F per hour
-RIGOR MORTIS – rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring about 6 to 12 hours after death and persisting for 3 to 4 days
-LIVOR MORTIS – purplish discoloration of the body
-POSTMORTEM CLOTTING – immediately after death, rubbery consistency (must differentiate from antemortem clot – before death, friable)
-DESICCATION – drying and wrinkling of the cornea and anterior chamber of eye due to absorption of the aqueous humor
-PUTREFACTION – production of foul-smelling gases due to invasion of the tissue by saprophytic organism
-AUTOLYSIS – self-digestion of cells

A
543
Q

Conversion factor, thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L):

A

12.9

544
Q

Conversion factor, immunoglobulin (mg/dL to g/L):

A

0.01

545
Q

Conversion factor, immunoglobulin (mg/dL to mg/L):

A

10

546
Q

Without error, closeness to the true value:

A

ACCURACY

547
Q

The closeness of repeated results; quantitatively expressed as standard deviation or coefficient of variation:

A

PRECISION

548
Q

Point where most values lie:

A

MODE

549
Q

Figure for which 50% of the values are higher and 50% of the values are lower:

A

MEDIAN

550
Q

Ability of an analytical method to measure the smallest concentration of the analyte of interest:

A

ANALYTICAL SENSITIVITY

551
Q

Ability of an analytical method to measure only the analyte of interest:

A

ANALYTICAL SPECIFICITY

552
Q

Values for the control that continue to either increase or decrease over a period of six consecutive days:

A

TREND

553
Q

Six or more consecutive daily values that distribute themselves on one side of the mean value line, but maintain a constant level:

A

SHIFT

554
Q

System or process that encompasses (in the laboratory) PRE-ANALYTIC, ANALYTIC, AND POST-ANALYTIC FACTORS. Quality control is part of a quality-assurance system:

A

QUALITY ASSURANCE (QUALITY ASSESSMENT)

555
Q

System for recognizing and minimizing (analytic) errors. The purpose of the quality-control system is to monitor analytic processes, detect analytic errors during analysis, and prevent the reporting of incorrect patient values. Quality control is one component of the quality-assurance system:

A

QUALITY CONTROL

556
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

SUSCEPTIBLE

A

HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc negative
Anti-HBs negative

557
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

IMMUNE DUE TO NATURAL INFECTION

A

HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc positive*
Anti-HBs positive*

558
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

IMMUNE DUE TO HEPATITIS B VACCINE

A

HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc negative
Anti-HBs positive*

559
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

ACUTELY INFECTED

A

HBsAg positive*
Anti-HBc positive*
Anti-HBc IgM positive*
Anti-HBs negative

560
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

CHRONICALLY INFECTED (Larson)

A

Anti-HBs is not produced during chronic HBV infection, in which immunity fails to develop.
HBsAg positive*
Anti-HBc positive*
Anti-HBc IgM negative
Anti-HBs negative

561
Q

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

Four possibilities: (1) resolved infection (most common), (2) false positive anti-HBc thus susceptible, (3) low-level chronic infection, and (4) resolving acute infection:

A

HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc positive*
Anti-HBs negative

MT review (26 decks)

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