L1 CM Flashcards
Black belts dedicate ____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
D. 100%
Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
B. 20%
Black belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
B. Project coaches or leaders
Green belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
C. Project team members
Blue belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
A. Project sponsors or champions
IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR) software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
C. 12
Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?
A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
A. Columnar or convoluted
RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
C. Round or oval
RTE cells from the collecting duct:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
B. Cuboidal
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Ascending loop of Henle
Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:
A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate
C. Cystine
Yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard stone:
A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Phosphate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
D. 1.015
SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy
C. Varicocele
Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B. Failure to ovulate
C. Orchitis
D. Menopause
B. Failure to ovulate
LARSON page 436: Failure to ovulate is the most common female infertility problem.
Initial magnification:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat
B. Objective
Further magnification:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat
A. Ocular
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as:
A. Cannabis
B. Shabu
C. Meth
D. Ecstasy
D. Ecstasy
Component(s) of the chain of infection:
A. Susceptible host
B. Entry portal
C. Transmission of the pathogen
D. All of these
D. All of these
Biodegradable wastes like leftover food, used cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
C. Green
Non-biodegradable wastes like paper or paper products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles (glass and plastics), and packaging materials (Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans):
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
D. Black
Radioactive wastes or medical equipment contaminated or exposed in radioactivity:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
A. Orange
Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
B. Yellow with black band
Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp, used plaster, used masks:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
A. Yellow
Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion
B. Sodium
Refractive index compares the velocity of light in urine to the velocity of light in:
A. Air
B. Oil
C. Saline
D. Water
A. Air
The principle of refractive index is to compare:
A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
B. Lead poisoning
A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:
A. Gantrisin (Pyridium)
B. Phenolsulfonphthalein
C. Rifampin
D. Melanin
D. Melanin
Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:
A. Lead poisoning
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Hemolytic anemia
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin
B. Protein
Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?
A. Protein
B. Salt
C. Urea
D. Glucose
A. Protein
Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Renal tubular failure
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Addison’s disease
C. Diabetes insipidus
In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet
B. Consistently alkaline
AAA is detected in urine by reaction with:
A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. o-Toluidine
C. m-Dinitrobenzene
D. m-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
A. Sodium nitroprusside
Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?
A. p-Dinitrobenzene
B. p-Aminosalicylate
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
D. p-Dichloroaniline
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin
D. Methylene blue and safranin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
Oval fat bodies are often seen in:
A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute tubular nephrosis
D. Renal failure of any cause
B. Nephrotic syndrome
The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:
A. Bence–Jones protein
B. β-Microglobulin
C. Tamm–Horsfall protein
D. Arginine-rich glycoprotein
C. Tamm–Horsfall protein
A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Lower urinary tract obstruction
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
Oval fat bodies are derived from:
A. Renal tubular epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Degenerated WBCs
D. Mucoprotein matrix
A. Renal tubular epithelium
Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:
A. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium oxalate
Stones may become large, forming casts of the kidney pelvis and showing STAGHORNS:
A. Calcium phosphate (apatite)
B. Monohydrate calcium oxalate (whewellite)
C. Dihydrate calcium oxalate (weddelite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)
Significance of white foam in urine:
A. Ammonia
B. Bilirubin
C. Protein
D. Urobilinogen
C. Protein
Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of:
A. Alkaptone
B. Phenylalanine
C. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
D. Homogentisic acid
D. Homogentisic acid
Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?
A. Eosin Y
B. Hematoxylin
C. Papanicolaou
D. Methylene blue
A. Eosin Y
Which condition is most often associated with gastric ulcers
A. Cancer of the stomach
B. H. pylori infection
C. Zollinger–Ellison (Z–E) syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia
B. H. pylori infection
Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?
A. Colon cancer
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancreatitis
A. Colon cancer
Which of the following semen analysis results is ABNORMAL?
A. Volume 1.0 mL
B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
C. pH 7.6
D. Motility 50% progressive movement
A. Volume 1.0 mL
CSF GLUTAMINE
Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?
A. Ammonia
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate
A. Ammonia
The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.
A. 400 to 800 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL
D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
A maximum of _ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.
A. 10 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL
C. 30 mL
Which pair does NOT match with respect to amniotic fluid?
A. Colorless – normal
B. Dark red-brown – fetal death
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Blood-streaked – traumatic tap
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion?
A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
B. Fluid WBC count
C. Fluid total protein
D. Fluid to serum LD ratio
A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?
A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Cancer of the stomach
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?
A. Human placental lactogen
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estriol
B. L/S ratio
Which test best correlates with the severity of HDN?
A. Rh antibody titer of the mother
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estradiol
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
Calcium pyrophosphate (pseudogout) in synovial fluid:
1. Needles
2. Rhomboid square, rods
3. Negative birefringence under compensated polarized light
4. Positive birefringence under compensated polarized light
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis
B. Malignancy
Immunologic analysis has shown that ____ is a major constituent of mucus.
A. Bence-Jones protein
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
D. Uromodulin
D. Uromodulin
When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:
A. Spectrophotometry.
B. Reflectance photometry.
C. Fluorescence photometry.
D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart.
B. Reflectance photometry.
The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is called:
A. An abscess.
B. An effusion.
C. Pleocytosis.
D. Paracentesis.
B. An effusion.
Thoracentesis refers specifically to the removal of fluid from the:
A. Abdominal cavity.
B. Pericardial cavity.
C. Peritoneal cavity.
D. Pleural cavity.
D. Pleural cavity.
Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate?
A. Color and clarity
B. Leukocyte and differential counts
C. Total protein and specific gravity measurements
D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio
D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio
Chylous and pseudochylous effusions are differentiated by their:
A. Physical examinations.
B. Cholesterol concentrations.
C. Triglyceride concentrations.
D. Leukocyte and differential counts.
C. Triglyceride concentrations.
Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
C. Chylous effusion
Which of the following conditions is most often associated with the formation of a transudate?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Surgical procedures
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Metastatic neoplasm
C. Congestive heart failure
Which of the following proteins in the CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?
A. Albumin
B. Transthyretin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G
A. Albumin
An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by determining the:
A. Lactate concentration.
B. Albumin concentration.
C. Presence of oligoclonal banding on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.
Which of the following is not a test to evaluate the surfactants present in the fetal pulmonary system?
A. ΔA450
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. Phosphatidylglycerol detection
D. Foam stability index
A. ΔA450
A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III indicates that the fetus is experiencing:
A. No hemolysis.
B. Mild hemolysis.
C. Moderate hemolysis.
D. Severe hemolysis.
D. Severe hemolysis.
The concentration of which of the following substances can be used to positively identify a fluid as seminal fluid?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Citric acid
C. Fructose
D. Zinc
A. Acid phosphatase
Which of the following substances is responsible for the characteristic color of normal feces?
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen
C. Urobilin
Which of the following substances is not a component of normal feces?
A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water
B. Blood
Positive result in the Ictotest:
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red
C. Purple
All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A. DNA
Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry
B. Small particle histogram
Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A. Unstained, bluish-white
Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
D. Red on a purple background
URINE REAGENT PADS
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
CSF VDRL test:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 2
C. Tube 3
D. Any of these tubes
A. Tube 1
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C. Frozen
Benedict’s test 1+:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
B. Green
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
Dense crystalline concretions in sputum:
A. Asthma
B. Broncholithiasis
C. Fungal pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
B. Broncholithiasis
Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these
A. Malabsorption
QUALITATIVE FECAL FATS
⬆ 1st slide (neutral fats) Maldigestion
⬆ 2nd slide (fatty acids) Malabsorption
—–
An increased amount of total fat on the second slide with normal fat content on the first slide is an indication of malabsorption, whereas maldigestion is indicated by increased neutral fat on the first slide.
Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
B. Secretory diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae
D. Vibrio cholerae
Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
A. Osmotic diarrhea
Positive lactoferrin agglutination test in patient stool:
A. Fecal fats - steatorrhea
B. Fecal occult blood - colorectal cancer
C. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Vibrio
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these
A. Methylene blue
Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies
A. Low sperm concentration
Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or ____ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature
B. Frozen
Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an ____color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
D. Orange
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
D. 1.015
Refractometer results are valid up to ____; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035
D. 1.035
Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
C. 5% NaCl
Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
D. 9% sucrose
Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
B. 3% NaCl
Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B. Glucose
Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
A. Protein
Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B. Glucose
Positive result for the guaiac test for fecal occult blood:
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Purple
See more
B. Blue
Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
The most abundant amino acid in the body, being involved in more metabolic processes than any other amino acid:
A. Alanine
B. Asparagine
C. Cysteine
D. Glutamine
D. Glutamine
Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
Precursor for serotonin and melatonin:
A. Glutamine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards.
A. Oral administration
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Sublingual administration
C. Intravenous injection
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C. A possible rape
Barbiero’s test:
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
Florence test:
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:
A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
C. Heparin
PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight:
A. Cephalic phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Intestinal phase
D. None of these
A. Cephalic phase
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
A. Achlorhydria
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
B. Hypochlorhydria
Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
C. Anacidity
The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?
A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding
D. Glomerular bleeding
GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
Most common type of microscopy performed in the urinalysis laboratory:
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope
A. Bright-field microscopy
Enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts, mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, and Trichomonas:
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is:
A. Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
B. Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and aseptically collect urine from the terminal end ofthe catheter
C. Aseptically collect urine directly from the drainage bag
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include:
A. Result accuracy
B. Report delivery to the ordering physician
C. Test turnaround time
D. Specimen acceptability
D. Specimen acceptability
The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample
Stras
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
Stras
C. Ascending loop of Henle
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is:
A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen
Stras
B. Sodium
The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
Stras
C. Chloride
Employers are required to provide free immunization for:
A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV
Stras
C. HBV
The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is:
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Stras
A. Class A
The testing of sample from an outside agency and the comparison of results with participating laboratories is called:
A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing
Stras
D. Proficiency testing
Proficiency Testing (External Quality Assessment)
External QA (not External QC)
PT or EQA is the testing of unknown samples received from an outside agency, and provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results. The laboratory accuracy is evaluated and compared with other laboratories using the same method of analysis.
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards
Stras
B. Biohazards
The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:
A. Rescue persons in danger
B. Activate the alarm system
C. Close doors to other areas
D. Extinguish the fire if possible
Stras
A. Rescue persons in danger
Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant
Stras
D. Pregnant
Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination
Stras
C. Aerosols
All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes
Stras
A. Urine specimen containers
The best way to break the chain of infection is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination
Stras
A. Hand sanitizing
In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste
Stras
C. Specimens
Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender
Stras
B. Weight
A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:
A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
B. Taking vitamin B pills
C. Eating fresh carrots
D. Taking antidepressants
Stras
A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
All of the following are variables included in the Cockroft and Gault formula EXCEPT:
A. Age and sex
B. Serum creatinine
C. Urine creatinine
D. Body weight in kilograms
C. Urine creatinine
The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?
A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:
A. Yellow-brown
B. Green
C. Orange
D. Port wine
Stras
D. Port wine
The principle of refractive index is to compare:
A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity insolids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution
Stras
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:
A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. Glucose
Stras
C. Leukocyte esterase
The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:
A. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant.
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.
C. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin.
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine.
Stras
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.
The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading
Stras
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Specific gravity
Stras
A. Glucose
An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:
A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Hemolytic disease
C. Hepatitis
D. Biliary obstruction
Stras
D. Biliary obstruction
All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils
Stras
C. Lymphocytes
Which of the following should be used to reduce lightintensity in bright-field microscopy?
A. Centering screws
B. Aperture diaphragm
C. Rheostat
D. Condenser aperture diaphragm
Stras
C. Rheostat
Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. Both B and C
Stras
D. Both B and C
Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline
Stras
B. Hypersthenuric
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
Stras
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
A. Glomerular bleeding
B. Renal calculi
C. Traumatic injury
D. Coagulation disorders
Stras
A. Glomerular bleeding
Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin granules
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Myoglobin
Stras
B. Hemosiderin granules
The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
A. Histiocyte
B. Urothelial cell
C. Monocyte
D. Renal tubular cell
Stras
D. Renal tubular cell
The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein
Stras
C. Uromodulin
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
Stras
C. Goodpasture syndrome
Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Wegener granulomatosis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome
Stras
B. Wegener granulomatosis
The only protein produced by the kidney is:
A. Albumin
B. Uromodulin
C. Uroprotein
D. Globulin
Stras
B. Uromodulin
The most common composition of renal calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid
Stras
A. Calcium oxalate
The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:
A. Timed urine specimen
B. Blood specimen
C. First morning urine specimen
D. Fecal specimen
Stras
B. Blood specimen
Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:
A. Porphyrins
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Tryptophan
Stras
C. Mucopolysaccharides
A bright-field microscope is easily adapted for dark-field microscopy by replacing the:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Polarizing filters
C. Condenser
Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
B. BSC Class II, A1
Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
C. BSC Class II, B1
No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
D. BSC Class II, B2
All of the following are soluble in ether, except:
A. Amorphous urates
B. Chyle
C. Lipids
D. Lymphatic fluid
A. Amorphous urates
The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?
A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL
A. 25 mIU/mL
The presence of ____ increases the OD of the amniotic fluid. Specimens are centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes and examined using a wavelength of 650 nm.
A. Bilirubin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Lamellar bodies
D. None of these
C. Lamellar bodies
The traditional diluent of choice for quantifying spermatozoa in seminal fluid contains:
A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin
B. Methylene blue
C. Dilute acetic acid
D. Normal saline
A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin
Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A. Unstained, bluish-white
Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
D. Red on a purple background
Stains used for evaluation of sperm morphology, EXCEPT:
A. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s
C. Giemsa
D. Shorr
E. Eosin-nigrosin
E. Eosin-nigrosin
As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of ____ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge.
A. 10% formalin
B. 40% formalin
C. 10% albumin
D. 30% albumin
D. 30% albumin
A DAILY CONTROL SLIDE FOR BACTERIA IN CSF:
A. 95% ethanol
B. 30% albumin
C. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 95% ethanol
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin
For post-vasectomy semen analysis, specimens are routinely tested at monthly intervals, beginning at ____ months post-vasectomy and continuing until ____ consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
A. 2 months, 2 months
B. 2 months, 3 months
C. 3 months, 2 months
D. 3 months, 3 months
A. 2 months, 2 months
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C. A possible rape
Reasons for analyzing amniotic fluid include the following EXCEPT:
A. To diagnose genetic and congenital neural tube disorders
B. To assess fetal liver maturity
C. To assess fetal lung maturity
D. To detect fetal distress from hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. To assess fetal liver maturity
Bilirubin is detected spectrophotometrically in amniotic fluid at:
A. 365 nm
B. 550 nm
C. 410 nm
D. 450 nm
D. 450 nm
All of these phospholipids have a role in fetal lung maturity EXCEPT:
A. Lecithin
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidylglycerol
D. Lamellar bodies
B. Sphingomyelin
The role of sphingomyelin is not established. It only serve as a control on which to base the rise in lecithin.
Fetal lung surfactants are produced by fetal type II pneumocytes of the fetal lung and are stored as lamellar bodies after about 20 weeks of gestation.
A ΔA450 value that falls into zone I indicates:
A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
B. Moderate hemolysis
C. Severe hemolysis
D. High fetal risk
A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
Bright red blood and mucus in feces are most often seen with:
A. Malabsorption
B. Dysentery
C. Creatorrhea
D. Upper GI tract bleeding
B. Dysentery
Over half the volume of semen is produced in the:
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Vasa deferentia
C. Seminal vesicles
Fructose is contained in the portion of semen produced by the:
A. Bulbourethral glands
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland
D. Seminal vesicles
D. Seminal vesicles
The process of spermatozoa formation is under control of all of these hormones EXCEPT:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Testosterone
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
PLEASE ALSO INDICATE NORMAL VOLUME
Which semen volume is within normal limits?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.5 mL
C. 4.0 mL
D. 6.0 mL
C. 4.0 mL
2-5 mL
Meningitis results in:
A. Decreased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
C. Increased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
D. Increased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
The protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 1, 2
If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?
A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology
D. Microbiology
How will erythrocytes appear in hypertonic urine?
A. Biconcave discs
B. Crenated
C. Lysed
D. Swollen
B. Crenated
Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:
A. Strenuous exercise
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic renal failure
D. Chronic renal failure
In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
SALICYLATE POISONING
Initial is RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS followed by METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
The L-pyrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?
A. Groups A and B
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and group C
C. Group A and Enterococcus
D. Group A and Streptococcus bovis
C. Group A and Enterococcus
All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluid except:
A. Crystal clear
B. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL
C. IgG index of 0.70 or less
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL
In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal
D. Increased, normal
Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate?
A. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 1000/uL
B. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.4, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
D. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.45, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.40, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
Which of the following pairings of crystals and causes is not correct?
A. Calcium oxalate crystals and antifreeze ingestion
B. Uric acid crystals and patients receivingchemotherapy
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
D. Amorphous phosphate crystals and not clinically significant
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Bacterial infection
D. Yeast infection
C. Bacterial infection
Which of the following collection methods would yield the most sterile urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
C. Suprapubic aspiration
The clarity of a urine sample should be determined after:
A. The sample has been centrifuged
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
C. The addition of 3% sulfosalicylic acid
D. The specimen is heated to body temperature
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
Following a severe crush injury, a patient is transported to the emergency room where a blood sample and a urine sample are collected. The patient’s urine sample appears reddish-brown, which may be due to the presence of:
A. Stercobilin
B. Porphyrins
C. Myoglobin
D. Fresh blood
C. Myoglobin
AFTER A MEAL, WHAT IS THE URINE PH?
A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the sample’s turbidity is the presence of:
A. Bacteria
B. White blood cells
C. Amorphous urates
D. Amorphous phosphates
D. Amorphous phosphates
(alkaline tide -> alkaline urine -> phosphates)
AMBULATORY - NOT CONFINED IN BED, ABLE TO WALK
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
D. Clean-catch midstream
Which of the following collection methods would account for diurnal variation when quantitatively measuring urinary analytes?
A. Random
B. First morning
C. 24-hour timed
D. Two-hour timed
C. 24-hour timed
A urine sample collected from a 5-day-old baby has a noticeably sweet odor reminiscent of caramel or burnt sugar. This odor is most commonly associated with:
A. Cystinuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Maple syrup urine disease
After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:
A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume
D. Measure and record the total volume
Patients that take high doses of vitamin C may have a false-negative result for which of the following urine reagent test strip analytes?
A. pH
B. Ketones
C. Bilirubin
D. Specific gravity
C. Bilirubin
Which of the following substances would most likely be found in the urine of a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A. Protein
B. Ketones
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin
B. Ketones
Anorexia nervosa is a psychiatric disease in which patients restrict their food intake relative to their energy requirements through eating less, exercising more, and/or purging food through laxatives and vomiting.
A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen concentration but a negative bilirubin result may indicate the patient has:
A. Gallstones
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Liver cirrhosis
C. Hemolytic anemia
Which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination?
A. White blood cells
B. Renal epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?
A. Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals
D. Starch crystals
A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of:
A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Meconium
D. Hemoglobin
C. Meconium
Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin
A. Albumin
Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen
CSF TUBE 1
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator
C. In a freezer
The only biological waste that does not have to be discarded in a container with a biohazard symbol is:
A. Urine.
B. Serum.
C. Feces.
D. Serum tubes.
A. Urine.
When combining acid and water:
A. Acid is added to water.
B. Water is added to acid.
C. Water is slowly added to acid.
D. Both solutions are combined simultaneously.
A. Acid is added to water.
Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H. pylori infections?
A. DNase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Urease
D. Peptidase
C. Urease
Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120
B. gp160
C. gp41
D. p24
D. p24
The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a:
A. Live, attenuated virus.
B. Inactivated virus.
C. Cryptic antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.
Factors needed in the computation using COCKROFT - GAULT formula, EXCEPT:
a. Age
b. Plasma Creatinine
c. 24-hour urine volume
d. Body weight
c. 24-hour urine volume
Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:
a. Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
b. peritibular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
d. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
Should be:
Afferent arteriole, Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
a. Proximal convulated tubule
b. Descending loop of Henle
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Distal convulated tubule
c. Ascending loop of Henle
Glucose will appear in the urine when the:
a. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl
b. Tm for glucose is reached
c. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
a. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
b. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
d. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia
c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:
a. Not filtered by the glomerulus
b. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convulated tubule
c. Secreted in the distal convulated tubule
d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules
d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules
Osmolality is a measure of:
a. Dissolved particles, including ions
b. Undissolved molecules only
c. Total salt concentration
d. Molecule size
a. Dissolved particles, including ions
Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution test to assess renal tubular function?
a. Urea, nitrogen, creatinine
b. Osmolality and SG
c. Sodium and Chloride
d. Sodium and osmolality
b. Osmolality and SG
It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing Vasodilation of afferent arterioles and Constriction of the efferent arterioles, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the PCT, and triggering the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hormone by the hypothalamus.
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin I
c. Angiotensin II
d. Aldosterone
c. Angiotensin II
An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with a request to determine whether the fluid is urine or another body fluid. Using routine laboratory tests, what tests would determine that the fluid is most probably urine?
a. Glucose and ketones
b. Urea and creatinine
c. Uric acid and amino acids
d. Protein and amino acids
b. Urea and creatinine
A cloudy specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
a. Boric acid
b. Chloroform
c. Refrigeration
d. Formalin
c. Refrigeration
For general screening the most frequently collected specimen is a:
a. Random one
b. First morning
c. Midstream clean-catch
d. Timed
a. Random one
If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen, the:
a. Specimen must be recollected
b. Results will be falsely elevated
c. Results will be falsely decreased
d. Both A and B
d. Both A and B
The primary cause of unsatisfactory results in an unpreserved routine specimen not tested for 8 hours is:
a. Bacterial growth
b. Glycolysis
c. Decreased pH
d. Chemical oxidation
a. Bacterial growth
Urine specimen collection for drug testing requires the collector to do all of the following except:
a. Inspect the specimen color
b. Perform reagent strip testing
c. Read the specimen temperature
d. Fill out a chain-of-custody form
b. Perform reagent strip testing
After receiving a 24-hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technologist must first:
a. Subculture urine for bacteria
b. Add the appropriate preservative
c. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
d. Measure the total volume
d. Measure the total volume
A clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should:
a. Be centrifuged, and the supernatant cultured
b. Be rejected due to time delay
c. Not be cultured if no bacteria seen
d. Be processed for culture only if nitrate is positive
b. Be rejected due to time delay
Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion
B. Sodium
Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?
A. Melanuria
B. Tyrosyluria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Alkaptonuria
Which of the following is the urine specimen of choice for cytology studies?
a. First morning specimen
b. Random specimen
c. Midstream “clean catch” collection
d. Timed collection
b. Random specimen
Formed elements in sputum are best studied by which cytological techniques?
a. Gram stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Wright’s stain
d. Pap’s stain
d. Pap’s stain
Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:
a. When malignancy is suspected
b. To classify transudates and exudates
c. To determine the type of serous fluid
d. When a traumatic tap has occurred
b. To classify transudates and exudates
The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the:
a. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
c. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
d. absolute neutrophil count
b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?
a. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 ml of 6 N HCl
b. 2 hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
d. Random urine preserved with formalin
c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
iQ 200 preclassifies (autoclassified by the analyzer) the following urine particles except:
a. Nonsquamous epithelial cells
b. Unclassified casts
c. Bacteria
d. Uric acid crystals
d. Uric acid crystals
Which of the following urine sediment particles cannot be autovalidated but will be flagged and must be reviewed by laboratory personnel?
a. RBC’s
b. WBC’s
c. RTEs
d. Squamous epithelial cells
c. RTEs
Sensitivity of the Multistix protein reagent pad:
A. 1 to 5 mg/dL albumin
B. 10 to 15 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 30 to 45 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad:
A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
C. 4 to 8 mg/dL
D. 8 to 16 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
A. DIDNTB
Moderate hemolysis and require careful monitoring anticipating an early delivery or exchange transfusion upon delivery:
A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
Amniotic fluid bilirubin is measured by:
A. Turbidimetric method
B. Dye-binding method
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
D. Fluorometric analysis
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla
D. Renal medulla
Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these
A. Renal artery
The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:
A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
D. Clean-catch midstream
Refractive index is a comparison of light:
A. Velocity in solutions to light velocity in solids
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
C. Scattering by air to light scattering by solutions
D. Scattering by particles in solution
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:
A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume
D. Measure and record the total volume
Urine reagent test strips should be stored in a tightly-sealed container in/on the:
A. Freezer (-20°C)
B. Refrigerator (5°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
D. Incubator (37°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast
A. Hyaline cast
Examination for casts should be performed:
A. After adding glacial acetic acid to the sediment
B. Under high dry power (40x obj.) with bright light
C. After adding Sternheimer-Malbin stain to the supernatant
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification
Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze), which of the following crystals may be found in the urine?
A. Yellow-brown spherules
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
C. Colorless, rosettes/rhomboids
D. Flat plates with notched corners
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?
A.Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals
D. Starch crystals
BE CAREFUL IN ANSWERING
Which of the following must exhibit rapid motility in order to be identified in a urine sediment?
A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Spermatozoa
D. Trichomonas
D. Trichomonas
A 21-year-old patient had glucose in their urine and a low fasting blood glucose. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal glycosuria
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Renal glycosuria
Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin
A. Albumin
Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen
Increased presence of fetal fibronection (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions from a 24-year-old female at 35 weeks’ gestation indicates an increased risk for:
A. Preterm delivery
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A. Preterm delivery
PLS INDICATE CSF TUBE #
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator
C. In a freezer
Tube 1
The dimensions of a standard Neubauer hemacytometer chamber are:
A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
B. 2.0 mmx 2.0 mm x 0.1 mm
C. 1.0 mm x 1.0 mm x 0.1 mm
D. 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm
A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
Synovial fluid is typically collected using a sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for a manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
d. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
A. Liquid EDTA
What substance gives feces its normal color?
A. Uroerythrin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen
C. Urobilin
Which of the following calculations may be useful in determining if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
A. CSF lgG index
B. Total protein ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
D. Lactate dehydrogenase ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Traumatic lumbar puncture
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
NEGATIVE FOR ERYTHROPHAGES IN TRAUMATIC TAP
When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool?
A. One part fixative to one part stool
B. Two parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
D. Four parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
The reduviid bug is the vector for transmitting which of the following parasites?
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Leishmania tropica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
The infective stage of the Plasmodium parasite and the Babesia parasite for humans is the:
A. Merozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite
D. Sporozoite
Ziemann’s dots, band form trophozoites, and 72-hour periodicity of paroxysms is indicative of infection with which Plasmodium species?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium malariae
These two nematodes are similar in that they are both suspected of being transport hosts of Dientamoeba fragilis.
A. Trichinella and Dracunculus
B. Necator and Trichuris
C. Strongyloides and Ancylostoma
D. Ascaris and Enterobius
D. Ascaris and Enterobius
Which of these parasites are contracted via skin penetration?
A. Enterobius, Necator, Dracunculus
B. Ascaris, Trichinella, Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris, Strongyloides, Enterobius
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator
All of the following microfilariae lack a sheath except:
A. Mansonella ozzardi
B. Mansonella perstans
C. Onchocera volvulus
D. Brugia malayi
D. Brugia malayi
Which of the following filarial nematodes is transmitted by the Chrysops fly?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Mansonella ozzardi
C. Loa loa
D. Brugia malayi
C. Loa loa
Which of the following filarial nematode infections is diagnosed by using skin snips rather than a peripheral blood smear?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella perstans
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
A. Onchocerca volvulus
Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Heterophyes heterophyes
D. Paragonimus westermani
B. Fasciola hepatica
The infective form of Schistosoma mansoni is which of the following?
A. Cercaria swimming in water
B. Metacercaria on or in fish
C. Metacercaria encysted on waterchestnuts or vegetables
D. Cercaria on water chestnuts, bambooshoots, or vegetables
A. Cercaria swimming in water
Pinworm disease may be diagnosed by which procedure?
A. Direct fecal smear
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Fecal concentration methods
D. Egg-count technique
B. Cellophane tape test
The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is a:
A. Flea
B. Human
C. Mosquito
D. Fish
C. Mosquito
Xenodiagnosis is used for which parasite?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Loa loa
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
Each of the following microfilaria has a sheath EXCEPT:
A. Brugia malayi
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella ozzardi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Mansonella ozzardi
Visceral larval migrans is caused by:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Dirofilaria spp.
D. Toxocara canis
D. Toxocara canis
In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste
C. Specimens
All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes
A. Urine specimen containers
Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination
C. Aerosols
An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm should immediately:
A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the MSDSs
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency department
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant
D. Pregnant
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards
B. Biohazards
The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
C. Chloride
Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite
C. Protein
The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline
B. Hypersthenuric
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:
A. Protein concentration
B. pH
C. Solute concentration
D. Temperature
A. Protein concentration
Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
B. Presence of interfering substances in sample
C. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
D. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
