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Exotics > Small Mammal > Flashcards

Small Mammal Flashcards

SM01-08

1
Q

name the rodent suborder

mice, rats, gerbils, hamsters, voles, lemmings

A

myomorphs

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2
Q

name the rodent suborder

guinea pigs, chinchilla, degu

A

hystricomorph

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3
Q

name the rodent suborder

beavers, kangaroo rats

A

castrimorpha

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4
Q

name the rodent suborder

anomalures, springhares, zenkerella

A

anomaluromorph

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5
Q

name the rodent suborder

squirrel

A

sciuromorph

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6
Q

name the sub-order of Myomorphs

mice and rats

A

Muridae

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7
Q

name the sub-order of Myomorphs

hamsters and gerbils

A

Cricetidae

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8
Q

what is the diet of mice and gerbils?

A

omnivorous

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9
Q

how to sex a rodent?

A

anogenital distance and number of openings

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10
Q

name the rodent sex

two ‘openings’
greater ano-genital distance

A

male

(usually very obvious testicles)

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11
Q

name the rodent sex

three ‘openings’
shorter ano-genital distance

A

female

(separate vaginal and urethral opening)

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12
Q

name 2 specific anatomy considerations for male rodents

A
  1. open inguinal canals
  2. os penis
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13
Q

name the 5 key parts of a rodent clinical exam

A
  1. demeanour
  2. HR and RR
  3. Nose to tail
  4. ventrum
  5. weight and BCS
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14
Q

what is remy?

A

a RRRRRRAT

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15
Q

what are the 2 main non-infectious cause of diarrhoea in mice

A
  1. sudden diet change
  2. engorgement of food
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16
Q

name 2 viral causes of diarrhoea in rodents

A
  1. mouse hepatitis virus (Coronavirus)
  2. epizootic diarrhoea virus of infant mice (Rotavirus)
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17
Q

name 6 bacterial causes of diarrhoea in mice

A
  1. Tyzzer’s disease (Clostridium piliforme)
  2. C. perfringens and C. difficile
  3. E. coli
  4. Lawsonia intracellularis
  5. Corynebacterium kutscheri
  6. Helicobacter
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18
Q

name 3 endoparasites that cause diarrhoea in mice

A
  1. pinworms (Syphacia obvelata)
  2. Cryptosporidium
  3. Giardia
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19
Q

name 4 clinical signs of heavy infestations of pinworms (Synphacia obvelata) in mice

A
  1. diarrhoea
  2. straining leading to rectal prolapse
  3. unkept fur coat
  4. anal pruritis
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20
Q

what is the treatment for pinworms (Synphacia obvelata) in mice

A

Fenbendazole

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21
Q

name 6 aspects of supportive care that can be given to mice with diarrhoea

A
  1. fluid therapy
  2. probiotics
  3. kaolin
  4. bismuth subsalicylate
  5. warmth
  6. analgesia (not NSAIDs)
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22
Q

name 3 antibiotics that can be used to treat bacterial diarrhoea in mice (and all myomorph species)

A
  1. trimethoprim sulphate
  2. enrofloxacin
  3. oxytetracycline (Tyzzer’s)
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23
Q

what is the average lifespan of mice?

A

1-2.5y

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24
Q

when do mice reach sexual maturity

A

6-8wks
(2mo)

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25
Q

what is the gestation period of mice?

A

19-21d

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26
Q

what is the litter size for mice

A

5-12

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27
Q

name 4 predisposing factors of mammary gland neoplasia in mice

A
  1. stress
  2. hormones
  3. carcinogens
  4. retroviruses
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28
Q

this is a possible sequelae of ejaculatory plugs in male mice (normal finding) if obstructive to urine flow

(uncommon)

A

hydronephrosis

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29
Q

what is the most common cause of morbidity in laboratory mice?

A

respiratory disease

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30
Q

name 3 bacterial causes of respiratory disease in mice

A
  1. Mycoplasma pulmonis
  2. Crynebacterium kutscheri
  3. Pasteurella pneumotropica
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31
Q

name 2 viral causes of respiratory disease in mice

A
  1. Sendai virus
  2. PVM (pneumonia virus of mice)
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32
Q

name 3 fur mites affecting mice

A
  1. Myobia mudculi
  2. Mycoptes musculinus
  3. Radfordia affinis
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33
Q

name the fur mite affecting mice

23d lifecycle;
varying severity;
alopecia, self trauma, greasy coat;
head, neck, flank, lateral thorax

A

Myobia musculi

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34
Q

name the fur mite affecting mice

8-14d lifecycle;
back and ventrum

A

Mycoptes musculinis

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35
Q

what is the treatment for fur mites in mice?

A

two doses Ivermectin 10-14d apart

(200-400 IU/kg)

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36
Q

name the skin disease in mice

intense pruritis;
head and thorax;
significant self trauma;
dermal ulceration, necrosis and fibrosis;
cause: vasculitis - immune complex deposits on dermal vessels

A

idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis

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37
Q

name the skin disease in mice

annular constriction of the tail;
pups more likely to be affected than adults;
low environmental humidity;
oedema, necrosis and sloughing;
Tx: amputation

A

Ringtail

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38
Q

this is a normal finding in rodent urinalysis

A

proteinuria

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39
Q

name 5 possible urinary tract diseases in mice

A
  1. amyloidosis
  2. interstitial nephritis
  3. chronic glomerulonephritis
  4. leptospirosis
  5. obstructive uropathies
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40
Q

name the unique anatomy of gerbils

used for territory marking;
rubbing abdomen;
sebaceous gland;
larger and more prominent in sexually mature males

A

ventral scent gland with orange secretion

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41
Q

why should gerbil NEVER be restrained by the tail

A

high risk of de-gloving injury

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42
Q

name 2 common conditions of gerbils that can be identified on clinical exam

A
  1. masses of ears and scent glands
  2. cystic ovarian disease in females
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43
Q

what is the average lifespan of gerbils

A

2-4y

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44
Q

when do gerbils reach sexual maturity

A

6-8wks

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45
Q

what is the gestation period of gerbils

A

23-26d

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46
Q

what is the litter size of gerbils

A

3-8

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47
Q

what is the weaning age of gerbils

A

20-30d

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48
Q

name the cause of diarrhoea in gerbils

most commonly reported fatal infectious disease in gerbils;
sub-optimal husbandry, weaning and immunosuppression;
oral route of infection;
diarrhoea, anorexia, dehydration and death;
bacterial spores survive for 1y+ at room temp

A

Tyzzer’s disease
(Clostridium piliforme)

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49
Q

what neurological disease are gerbils predisposed to due to deficiency of cerebral glutamine synthesis

A

Epilepsy

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50
Q

name the cause of head tilt in gerbils

common in aging rodents;
keratinising epithelial mass;
bone destruction;
secondary otitis media/interna

A

aural neoplasia - cholesteatoma

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51
Q

how common is cystic ovarian disease in gerbils?

A

50% females over 400d old

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52
Q

how to treat cystic ovarian disease in gerbils?

A

ovariohysterectomy

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53
Q

this is the most common tumour of pet gerbils, and most frequently reported neoplasia in lab gerbils;
more common in older animals;
metastasise in the abdomen;
incidence higher in non-breeding females

A

ovarian granulosa cell tumours

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54
Q

name the gland

located in the retrobulbar space;
plays an important role in tehrmoregulation;
lipids insulate from cold and wet;
lipids and protoporphyrin pigments get mixed with salive and groomed on the coat

A

Harderian gland

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55
Q

this should be available to rodents to promote normal skin and fur coat health

A

sand bath

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56
Q

name 3 conditions in rodents that deprivation of sand baths can lead to

A
  1. nasal dermatitis
  2. behavioural issues
  3. unkept fur coat
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57
Q

name 4 causes of Barbering (skin disease) in gerbils

A
  1. stress
  2. overcrowding
  3. dominant behaviour
  4. weight loss from competition of food resources
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58
Q

how much urine does a gerbil pass each day?

A

2-4 drops per day

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59
Q

name 5 clinical signs of chronic renal disease in gerbils

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. weight loss
  3. anorexia
  4. lethargy
  5. secondary signs of infection
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60
Q

start of SM02

what colour of myomorph (hamsters, etc) incisors

A

yellow

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61
Q

will the upper or lower incisors of myomorphs (hamsters etc) be longer?

A

lower

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62
Q

name the part of the hamster

highly distensible invaginations of the buccal mucosa;
cover the masseter muscles, lateral neck and shoulder muscles

A

cheek pouches

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63
Q

name the 2 parts of a hamster stomach

A
  1. non-glandular forestomach
  2. glandular stomach
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64
Q

name 2 types of bacteria found in the caecum of a hamster

A
  1. bacteroides
  2. lactobacillus
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65
Q

where is the sebaceous scent gland located in dwarf hamsters?

A

ventral

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66
Q

where is the sebaceous scent gland located in Syrian hamsters?

A

flank

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67
Q

name 3 underlying causes of cheek pouch impaction in hamsters

A
  1. inappropriate food material
  2. bedding
  3. incisor malloclusion
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68
Q

name 4 causes of diarrhoea in hamsters

A
  1. sudden dietary change
  2. bacterial
  3. parasitic
  4. iatrogenic
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69
Q

name the GIT disease in hamsters

watery foul-smelling diarrhoea, dehydration, death within 3-8wks;
rectal prolapse and intussusception common;
palpably thickened bowel

A

‘wet tail’
(Lawsonia intracellularis)

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70
Q

name 2 PM signs at the terminal ileum to definitively diagnose ‘wet tail’ in hamsters

A
  1. hyperplasia of mucosa
  2. musle hypertrophy
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71
Q

what is the prognosis for ‘wet tail’ in hamsters

A

Tx often unsuccessful;
death in 24-48h

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72
Q

name the GIT disease in hamsters, guinea pigs and chinchillas

usually iatrogenic - inappropraite abx (penicillins, clindamycin, lincomycin, eryhtromycin);
dysbiosis leads to overgrowth of C. spiriforme and C. difficile;
Tx: fluids, warmth, Cholestryamine, metronidazole, probiotics

A

clostridial enterotoxaemia

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73
Q

what is the most common endocrine disease in hamsters?

A

hyperadrenocorticism

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74
Q

name the 3 variations of hyperadrenocorticism in hamsters

A
  1. pituitary dependent
  2. adrenal dependent
  3. iatrogenic
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75
Q

name 6 clinical signs of hyperadrenocorticism in hamsters

A
  1. bilateral alopecia of the flank/thigh
  2. skin thinning
  3. hyperpigmentation of the skin
  4. hepatomegaly
  5. polydipsia/polyuria
  6. behavioural changes
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76
Q

what is the normal plasma cortisol levels of hamsters

A

13.8-27.6 nmol/L

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77
Q

what is the normal alkaline phosphatase on biochemsitry for hamsters

A

8-18 IU/L

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78
Q

name 2 medical treatments for hyperadrenocorticism in hamsters

A
  1. Metapyrone (8mg/kg PO q24h for 30d)
  2. Mitotane (5mg PO q24h for 30d) - poor results
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79
Q

which hamster breed is predisposed to Diabetes Mellitus;
autosomal recessive, polygenic

A

Chinese hamster

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80
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Diabetes Mellitus in hamsters

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. weight loss
  3. glucosuria
  4. polyphagia
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81
Q

what is the normal glucose level for hamsters?

A

7 mmol/L

(diabetic over 16)

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82
Q

what is the average lifespan for hamsters

A

1.5-2y

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83
Q

when do male hamsters reach sexual maturity

A

2mo

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84
Q

when do female hamsters reach sexual maturity

A

1.5mo

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85
Q

what is the gestation period of Syrian hamsters

A

16-18d

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86
Q

what is the gestation period of Russian hamsters

A

18-21d

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87
Q

what is the gestation period of Chinese hamsters

A

21-23d

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88
Q

what is the gestation period of Roborovski hamsters

A

23-30d

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89
Q

what is the litter size for hamsters

A

3-10

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90
Q

how long is the oestrus cycle for hamsters

A

4 days

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91
Q

name the CV disease in hamsters

reported in lab hamsters ;
onset of disease is earlier in females than males;
gender incidence is the same though;
most common in left atrium, secondary to heart failure

A

atrial thrombosis

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92
Q

name 4 clinica signs of cardiomyopathy in hamsters

A
  1. tachypnoea
  2. lethargy
  3. anorexia
  4. cold extremities
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93
Q

how to diagnose cardiomyopathy in hamsters

A

thoracic radiographs under inhalation anaesthetic

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94
Q

name 2 mites affecting hamsters

A
  1. Demodex criceti (short and fat body)
  2. Demodex aurati (cigar shaped)
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95
Q

name 2 treatments for Demodex mites on hamsters

A
  1. subcutaneous ivermectin
  2. bathing with amitraz, benzoyl peroxide shampoo
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96
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Demodex mites in hamsters

A
  1. underlying disease causing immunosuppression
  2. moderate to severe alopecia
  3. scale
  4. erythema

(usually non-pruritic)

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97
Q

name 2 causes of Dermatophytosis (ringworm) in hamsters

A
  1. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
  2. Microsporum sp.
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98
Q

name 3 clinical signs of dermatophytosis (ringworm) in hamsters

A
  1. alopecia
  2. crust
  3. erythema

(asymptomatic carriers!)

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99
Q

what is the treatment for ringworm in hamsters

A

itraconazole, topical enilconazole

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100
Q

what are the most common neoplasia causing skin disease in hamsters?

A

melanomas and melanocytomas

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101
Q

what is the most common neoplasm in hamsters?

A

lymphoma

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102
Q

name 3 forms of lymphoma in hamsters

A
  1. multicentric
  2. cutaneous
  3. epizootic
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103
Q

name the 3 main organs affected by multicentric form of lymphoma in hamsters

A
  1. spleen
  2. lymph nodes
  3. liver
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104
Q

name 5 clinical signs of cutaneous lymphoma in hamsters

A
  1. alopecia
  2. pruritis
  3. flakey skin
  4. cutaneous plaques
  5. ulceration
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105
Q

name the cause of transmissible lymphoma and cutaneous epitheliomas in hamsters;
wart-like lesions around the eyes, mouth or perianal in 3-12mo old hamsters;
highly infectious, transmitted via urine;
long incubation period, very resistant in environment

A

hamster polyomavirus (HaPV)

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106
Q

start of SM03

how many teeth do rats have?

A

16

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107
Q

what is the dental formula of rats

A

2x (I 1/1, C 0/0, PM 0/0, M 3/3)

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108
Q

secretion of this from the Harderian glands of rats results in chromodacryorhea or ‘red tears’;
occur due to stress or disease

A

porphyrins

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109
Q

why is incisor overgrowth commonly misdiagnosed in rats?

A

lower incisors normally much longer than upper

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110
Q

name the GI disease in rats

‘mumps’
caused by a Coronavirus;
highly contagious between rats;
direct contact - aerosols;
affects cervical salivary glands leading to inflammation and oedema;
rhinitis and epithial necrosis

A

Sialodacryoadenitis virus - Parker’s

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111
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Sialodacryoadenitis virus in rats relating to the disruption of lacrimal system

A
  1. conjunctivitis
  2. corneal ulceration
  3. keratitis
  4. synechiae
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112
Q

name 3 diagnostics for Sialodacryoadenitis virus in rats

A
  1. phenol red thread test
  2. fluorescein dye
  3. tonometery (IOPs)
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113
Q

name the musculoskeletal disease of rats

causes avascular necrosis of the femoral head;
predisposing factors: young rats, standing up on hind limbs for long periods of time;
Tx as in canines

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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114
Q

name the musculoskeletal disease of rats

degenerative myelopathy;
old rat;
owners notice altered gait;
progressive loss of function: loss of tail control, urinary incontinence, muscle wastage, weight loss, ultimately paresis and paralysis

A

radiculoneuropathy

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115
Q

what is the treatment for radiculoneuropathy in rats

A

anti-inflammatory medication

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116
Q

name 5 environmental changes that can be made for rats with radiculoneuropathy

A
  1. fleece bedding
  2. lower hammocks
  3. reduce height of food and water
  4. bottom baths to manage urine staining and prevent scald
  5. separate feeding time
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117
Q

name 4 causes of head tilt in rats

A
  1. otitis
  2. CNS infection
  3. CNS lesion
  4. aural foreign body
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118
Q

what is the average lifespan of rats

A

2-3.5y

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119
Q

when do rats reach sexual maturity

A

1mo

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120
Q

what is the oestrus cycle of rats

A

continupus polyoestrus

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121
Q

what is the gestation period of rats

A

21-23d

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122
Q

what is the litter size for rats

A

6-13

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123
Q

what is the weaning age of rats

A

21d

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124
Q

what type of tumours are the majority of mammary tumours in rats?

A

80% fibroadenoma
(benign)

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125
Q

name 4 consequences that could occur if mammary tumours are not removed from rats

A
  1. mechanical alopecia
  2. erosion and ulceration
  3. secondary infection
  4. pain and self trauma
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126
Q

name 2 ways to prevent mammary tumours in rats

A
  1. early neutering
  2. deslorelin hormonal implant
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127
Q

name the 3 main respiratory pathogens in rats

A
  1. Mycoplasma pulmonis
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Corynebacterium kutscheri
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128
Q

name the 2 main respiratory syndromes in rats

A
  1. CRD - Chronic Respiratory Disease
  2. Bacterial pneumonia
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129
Q

what is the major pathogen of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

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130
Q

name 6 clinical signs of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats

A
  1. nasal discharge
  2. ‘rattly-bubbly’ resp
  3. coughing/sneezing
  4. dyspnoea/abd effort
  5. red tears
  6. weight loss
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131
Q

what clinical sign of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats gives a poor prognosis

A

open mouth breathing

132
Q

name 3 consequences of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats

A
  1. subacute and chronic bronchitis
  2. chronic resp epithelial dysfunction
  3. secondary bacterial infections
133
Q

how to treat chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats

A

treat bronchitis (bronchodilators), reduce underlying inflammation, antibiosis

134
Q

name the main cause of bacterial pneumonia in rats;
always with other agents (major - Mycoplasma pulmonis, minor - Sendai virus or CAR bacillus)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

135
Q

name 4 clinical signs of bacterial pneumonia in rats

A
  1. dyspnoea
  2. abdominal effort to breathing
  3. weight loss
  4. purulent nasal discharge
136
Q

what is the treatment for bacterial pneumonia in rats

A

beta-lactamase resistant penicillins
(amoxicillin and clavulanic acid)

137
Q

name 2 antibiotics that can be used in the treatment of chronic respiratory disease (CRD) in rats

A
  1. doxycycline
  2. azithromycin
138
Q

name the ear mite affecting rats

A

Notoedres muris

139
Q

name the fur mite affecting rats

A

Radfordia ensifera

140
Q

how to treat fur mites (Radfordia ensifera) in rats

A

ivermectine SC daily/q10d

141
Q

name 2 treatments for ulcerative dermatitis in rats

A
  1. clipping claws
  2. topical antibacterial
142
Q

name the ectoparasite affecting rats, mice, hamsters, gerbils, APH

opportunistic parasite;
spends little time on host;
actively penetrates the skin for a blood meal;
large burdens = anaemia;
ZOONOTIC

A

tropical rat mite
(Ornithonyssus bacoti)

143
Q

name the 2-fold treatment for the tropical rat mite (Ornithonyssus bacoti)

A
  1. environmental - fipronil
  2. animal - selamectin
144
Q

name 4 clinical signs of chronic progressive nephrosis in rats

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. weight loss
  3. anorexia
  4. lethargy
145
Q

what is the kidney appearance in a rat with chronic progressive nephrosis

A

enlarged, pale, pitted

146
Q

what is the 3-part treatment for chronic progressive nephrosis in rats

A
  1. supportive
  2. low protein diet
  3. anabolic steroids
147
Q

start of SM04

what is the scientific name for African Pygmy Hedgehogs?

A

Atelerix albiventris

148
Q

what family and order are African Pygmy Hedgehogs part of

A

family: Erinaceidae
order: Insectivora

149
Q

what is the average weight of a female African Pygmy Hedgehog

A

250-400g

150
Q

what is the average weight of male African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

500-600g

151
Q

what is the muscular ring on the dorsum of African Pygmy Hedgehogs called?
contracts so iot can roll up into a ball as a defence mechanism

A

orbicularis muscle

152
Q

what is the behaviour where African Pygmy Hedgehogs put foamy saliva on quills called?

A

anointing behaviour

153
Q

what is the normal body temp of African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

36.1-37.2 C

154
Q

what is the normal resp rate of African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

25-50 bpm

155
Q

what is the normal HR of African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

180-280 bpm

156
Q

what is the average life expectancy of captive African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

5-7 y

157
Q

name 2 common zoonotic diseases carried by African Pygmy Hedgehogs that mean you should always wear gloves when handling

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. ringworm
158
Q

how to sex African Pygmy Hedgehogs?

A

greater ano-genital distance in male

159
Q

how many African Pygmy Hedgehogs should be kept together?

A

singly
or in same sex pairs raised together

160
Q

how much light should African Pygmy Hedgehogs be given per day?

A

10-14h per day

161
Q

what is the diet of African Pygmy Hedgehogs?

A

insectivore/omnivore

162
Q

when should African Pygmy Hedgehogs be fed?

A

at night, remove uneaten food in morning

163
Q

give an example of the diet that should be fed to African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

2-4 tsp dry cat food or insectivore diet
1tsp varied moist food (cat/dog, cooked eggs, cottage cheese)
3-5 insects as treats 3x a week

164
Q

when do African Pygmy Hedgehogs reach sexual maturity

A

2 mo

165
Q

at what age must African Pygmy Hedgehogs be bred?
before fusion of pubic symphysis!

A

6mo - 2y

166
Q

how long is the gestation of African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

34-37d
(up to 40d)

167
Q

when do African Pygmy Hedgehogs wean?

A

5-6wks

168
Q

when do the spines erupt on young African Pygmy Hedgehogs?

A

few hours after birth

169
Q

name 3 locations for blood samples from African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. cephalic vein
  2. femoral vein
  3. lateral saphenous vein
170
Q

what is the max volume of blood you can take from African Pygmy Hedgehogs for samples

A

1% of BW
(0.5% if debilitated)

171
Q

where should subcutaneous injections be given to African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

in flank at junction of furred and spined skin mid-body

172
Q

where should IM injections be given to African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

orbicularis muscle of mantle

173
Q

name 2 locations for IV cannulas in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. cephalic vein
  2. lateral saphenous vein
174
Q

what temp should weak/debilitated African Pygmy Hedgehogs be kept at while hospitalised

A

27-29 C

175
Q

name 3 common ocular diseases seen in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. corneal ulcers
  2. ocular proptosis
  3. cataracts
176
Q

why is ocular proptosis is common in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

shallow orbit and retrobulbar fat pad

177
Q

name 5 causes of pinnal dermatitis in African Pygmy Hedgehogs that can lead to secondary otitis external/media

A
  1. dermatophytosis
  2. mites (Caparinia tripilis, Notoedres cati, Otodectes cyanotis)
  3. bacterial
  4. yeast
  5. nutritional deficiencies
178
Q

name 3 common mites affecting African Pygmy Hedgehogs and causing pinnal dermatitis

A
  1. Caparinia tripilis
  2. Notoedres cati
  3. Otodectes cyanotis
179
Q

what is the treatment for mites in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

oral Fluralaner
(15mg/kg - one dose)

180
Q

which oral neoplasia is common in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

squamous cell carcinoma

181
Q

name 4 clinical signs of dental disease in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. decr appetite
  2. excess salivation
  3. halitosis
  4. pawing at the mouth
182
Q

name 3 bacterial causes of bronchopneumonia in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. Corynebacterium
  2. Pasteurella
  3. Bordetella
183
Q

name 5 clinical signs of bronchopneumonia in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. nasal discharge
  2. dyspnoea
  3. resp noise
  4. lethargy
  5. reduced appetite
184
Q

name 6 clinical signs of cardiomyopathy in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. dyspnoea
  2. weight loss
  3. reduced activity
  4. heart murmur
  5. ascites
  6. death
185
Q

name 5 signs of cardiomyopathy in African Pygmy Hedgehogs seen on radiographs

A
  1. cardiac enlargement
  2. pleural effusion
  3. pulmonary oedema
  4. ascites
  5. hepatic congestion
186
Q

name 3 treatments for cardiomyopathy in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. furosemide
  2. digoxin
  3. enalapril
187
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of enteritis in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

Salmonella

188
Q

name 4 clinical signs seen for urinary tract disease in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. reduced appetite
  2. weight loss
  3. stranguria
  4. pollakiuria
189
Q

what is the main differential for urinary tract disease in female African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

reproductive disease

190
Q

name the neuro disease of African Pygmy Hedgehogs

idiopathic neurodegenerative disease;
initially mild ataxia, loss of balance, stumbling/tripping up, muscle atrophy, tremors, exophthalmos, seizures;
hindlimbs first progressing to forelimbs;
CS progressively worsen over a few months;
death at 18-25mo from diagnosis usually

A

demyelinating paralysis
aka
Wobbly Hedgehog Syndrome

191
Q

name 3 differentials for demyelinating paralysis (Wobbly Hedgehog Syndrome) in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. IVDD
  2. brain tumour
  3. hepatic encephalopathy
192
Q

how to diagnose demyelinating paralysis (Wobbly Hedgehog Syndrome) in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

PM histology
(vacuoles in white matter of brain)

193
Q

name 2 ectoparasites causing skin disease in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A
  1. Caparinia triplis (psoroptid)
  2. Notoedres (sarcoptid)
194
Q

how to treat skin disease caused by ectoparasites in African Pygmy Hedgehogs

A

ivermectin PO or SQ q10-14d for 3-5 treatments

195
Q

how long should African Pygmy Hedgehogs be fasted prior to anaesthesia induction

A

4-6h

196
Q

start of SM05

what is the diet of chinchillas and degus

A

herbivores
(high fibre)

197
Q

how many teeth do chinchillas and degus have?

A

20

198
Q

what is the dental formula for chinchillas and degus (histricomorphs)

A

I 1/1, C 0/0, PM 1/1, M 3/3

199
Q

what colour are chinchillas and degus incisors?

A

yellow

200
Q

name the 6 steps of chinchillas and degus clinical exam

A
  1. demeanor
  2. TPR
  3. nose to tail exam
  4. ventrum
  5. weight and BCS
  6. otoscope exam of dentition
201
Q

how to sex chinchillas and degus?

A

males have greater anogenital distance

202
Q

what is the most common condition of histricomorph rodents (guinea pigs, chinchillas and degus)

A

dental disease

203
Q

what is the most common cause of dental disease in histricomorph rodents (guinea pigs, chinchillas and degus)

A

inadequate dietary fibre

204
Q

what type of environments are wild chinchillas and degus found?

A

South American mountainous regions

205
Q

name 2 differences in dentition between chinchillas and degus vs rabbits

A
  1. cheek teeth aligned at rest
  2. lower incisors behind and not in-contact with upper incisors at rest
206
Q

name 6 non-specific clinical signs of dental disease in chinchillas and degus

A
  1. GI stasis
  2. reduced activity leves
  3. altered behaviour
  4. faecal staining at perineum
  5. un-kempt fur coat
  6. weight loss
207
Q

name 3 ways to prevent dental disease in chinchillas and degus

A
  1. high fibre diet
  2. 6 monthly health checks with otoscopic exam of mouth
  3. owner education
208
Q

which small mammal is the most commonly affected by Diabetes mellitus

A

degus

209
Q

name the type of diabetes mellitus

high resting blood glucose;
low resting insulin levels;
failure to secrete insulin in the presence of hyperglycaemia;
patient DOES respond to insulin;
exogenous source

A

type 1 - insulin dependent

(dog)

210
Q

name the type of diabetes mellitus

high resting blood glucose;
normal/high resting insulin;
failure of insulin receptors to respond to insulin

A

type 2 - insulin resistant

211
Q

what product is co-secreted along with insulin?
deposited around islet cells, isolate beta cells

A

amyloid

212
Q

name 6 clinical signs of diabetes mellitus in degus

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. altered appetite
  3. weight loss
  4. depression
  5. cataract formation
  6. fertility problems
213
Q

what is the normal blood glucose value in degus?

A

8 mmol/L

214
Q

name 2 treatments for diabetes mellitus in degus
(along with diet correction and weight loss in obese animals)

A
  1. isulin therapy - low dose (type 1)
  2. oral hypoglycaemic drug - glipizide (for type 2)
215
Q

name 3 causes of dystocia in chinchillas and degus

A
  1. pup oversize
  2. uterine inertia
  3. underlying disease with debilitation
216
Q

how to treat uterine inertia in chinchillas and degus

A

calcium followed by oxytocin

217
Q

what is the prognosis for intussusception or rectal prolapse (secondary to diarrhoea or enteritis) in chinchillas

A

poor prognosis

218
Q

name 3 medical treatments for bloat in chinchillas

A
  1. analgesia
  2. fluid therapy
  3. gentle massage

(cannot pass orogastric tube conscious for gas/fluid drainage)

219
Q

name the endoparasite of chinchillas

infection can be harboured by healthy chinchillas;
carrier status;
CS: appetite loss, diarrhoea, reduced BCS, unkept fur coat - young more susceptible to signs

A

giardia

220
Q

name 2 treatments for giardia in chinchillas

A
  1. fenbendazole
  2. metronidazole
221
Q

name 2 treatment options for fractures in chinchillas

A
  1. splint
  2. surgical fixation (specialist equipment)
222
Q

name the condition affecting male chinchillas

hair accumulation around base of penis leading to strangulation injuries;
can be sign of reduced grooming;
reversible if discovered early

A

fur ring

223
Q

name 6 clinical signs of fur ring in male chinchillas

A
  1. paraphimosis
  2. penile discolouration
  3. agitation
  4. self trauma
  5. stranguria
  6. GI stasis
224
Q

name 3 things that can result in secondary conjunctivitis in chinchillas

A
  1. irritation from sand bath
  2. underlying tear duct infection
  3. poor ventilation
225
Q

what bacterial infection is a primary cause of conjunctivitis in chinchillas

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

226
Q

start of SM06

how long can guinea pigs live in captivity?

A

8y

227
Q

what is the average weight for male guinea pigs?

A

900-1200 g

228
Q

what is the average weight for female guinea pigs?

A

700-900g

229
Q

what is the diet of guinea pigs

A

herbivores

(mainly grasses)

230
Q

name 2 negative behaviours of guinea pigs

A
  1. bar chewing
  2. teeth chattering
231
Q

name 5 positive behaviours of guinea pigs

A
  1. ‘wheeking’
  2. lying on their side
  3. ‘popcorning’
  4. standing on hind legs
  5. gnawing
232
Q

what is the dentition of guinea pigs? ie what kind of teeth?

A

continuously erupting aradicular elodont dentition

233
Q

how much vitamin C to guinea pigs need

A

10 mg/kg/day

(2-3x this during pregnancy)

234
Q

what is the most popular grazing time for guinea pigs

A

late afternoon / evening

235
Q

what is the dental formula for guinea pigs

A

I 1/1, C 0/0, PM 1/1, M 3/3 x2

236
Q

these are glands found in male guinea pigs located intra-abdominally that are coiled and can be 10cm long

A

vesicular glands

237
Q

this is a gland found in older male guinea pigs

A

caudal gland
(or coccygeal gland)

238
Q

how to sex a guinea pig?

A

females have Y-shaped anogenital area;
males have round preputial orifice

239
Q

what is the normal HR for guinea pigs

A

200-300 bpm

240
Q

what is the normal RR for guinea pigs

A

40-120 bpm

241
Q

what is the normal rectal temp for guinea pigs

A

37.2-39.5 C

242
Q

what is unique about the oral anatomy of guinea pigs

A

soft palate is continuous with tongue base

243
Q

what is the occlusal angle for guinea pigs

A

oblique

244
Q

what is the most common cause of dental disease in guinea pigs

A

inadequate dietary fibre

245
Q

name 8 clinical signs of GI stasis in guinea pigs

A
  1. reduced droppings
  2. abdominal distension
  3. anorexia
  4. tooth grinding
  5. reduced gut sounds
  6. painful abdomen
  7. weight loss
  8. lethargy
246
Q

name 3 differentials for GI stasis in guinea pigs

A
  1. intestinal obstruction
  2. GDV
  3. omental torsion
247
Q

name 4 antibiotics that should be AVOIDED in guinea pigs

A
  1. oral penicillins
  2. cephalosporins
  3. lincosamides
  4. macrolides
248
Q

why are female guinea pigs thought to be more prone to ascending bacterial UTIs

A

urethral opening closer to the anus

249
Q

name 5 bacterial agents causing UTIs in guinea pigs

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Strep pyogenes
  3. Staph spp
  4. Chlamydophila caviae
  5. Corynebacterium renale
250
Q

name 5 possible blood sample sites for guinea pigs

A
  1. cranial vena cava
  2. lateral saphenous
  3. femoral
  4. jugular
  5. ear
251
Q

what is the 3-part treatment for cystitis in guinea pigs

A
  1. analgesia (buprenorphine/meloxicam)
  2. abx therapy (TMPS)
  3. flush bladder under GA

(also bladder support and fluids)

252
Q

what medication can be given to guinea pigs with stifle arthritis as long-term analgesia

A

tramadol
(5-10mg/kg PO q12-24h)

253
Q

what is the most common urolith found in guinea pigs urine

A

calcium carbonate

254
Q

name 3 predisposing factors for urolithiasis in guinea pigs

A
  1. diet high in calcium or oxalate
  2. reduced water intake
  3. the alkaline pH and normal high mineral content of urine
255
Q

what is the most commonly associated urine abnormality in guinea pigs with urolithiasis

A

haematuria

256
Q

name 3 types of hay that are low in calcium and good to feed to guinea pigs with urolith issues

A
  1. timothy hay
  2. meadow grass
  3. oat hay
257
Q

what type of hay should be avoided in guinea pigs with uroliths as it is high in calcium

A

alfalfa hay

258
Q

name 4 foods with high levels of oxalates that should be avoided in guinea pigs with urinary issues (uroliths)

A
  1. spinach
  2. kale
  3. parsley
  4. celery
259
Q

how much vitamin C should be fed to guinea pigs each day?

A

50 mg/kg per day

260
Q

name 5 clinical signs of kidney disease in guinea pigs

A
  1. weight loss
  2. PU/PD
  3. starey coat (dry/harsh)
  4. anorexia
  5. loose droppings
261
Q

how to diagnose kidney disease in guinea pigs

A

bloods
(elevated urea and creatinine, anaemia)

262
Q

start of SM07

name 3 types of cysts in guinea pig cystic ovarian disease

A
  1. cystic rete ovarii - serous
  2. follicular cyst
  3. paraovarian cysts
263
Q

name the type of ovarian cysts in guinea pigs

non-functional;
spontaneous;
mesonephric tubules;
serous

A

cystic rete ovarii

264
Q

name the type of ovarian cyst in guinea pigs

less common;
often functional - oestrogen;
irregular oestrus cycles

A

follicular cysts

265
Q

name 7 clinical signs of cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs

(initially asymptomatic)

A
  1. abdominal distension
  2. pain when being handled
  3. non-pruritic alopecia
  4. infertility
  5. vaginal bleeding
  6. GI stasis
  7. weight loss
266
Q

name 3 medical treatments for cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs

A
  1. suprelorin implant (deslorelin acetate)
  2. HCG (human gonadotrophin)
  3. leuprolide acetate
267
Q

what is the surgical treatment for cystic ovarian disease in guinea pigs

A

ovariohysterectomy

268
Q

name the two forms of pregnancy toxaemia that can occur in obese pregnant guinea pigs

A
  1. toxic form
  2. true metabolic form
269
Q

name the type of pregnancy toxaemia in guinea pigs

in obese pregnant animals where foetal displacement causes impaired uterine blood supply followed by ischaemia, foetal death and DIC

A

toxic form

270
Q

name the type of pregnancy toxaemia in guinea pigs

initiated by a stressor such as fasting or transport

A

true metabolic form

271
Q

name 7 clinical signs of pregnancy toxaemia in guinea pigs

A
  1. depression
  2. anorexia
  3. abortion
  4. salivation
  5. convulsions
  6. coma
  7. death
272
Q

what is are the 3 treatments for pregnancy toxaemia in guinea pigs

A
  1. glucose or dextrose-containing fluids
  2. corticosteroids (risk to foetuses)
  3. calcium gluconate
273
Q

name 4 causative agents of resp disease/pneumonia in guinea pigs

A
  1. Bordetella bronchiseptica
  2. Moraxella
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Streptococcus
274
Q

name the cause of resp disease in guinea pigs

can have symtomless carriers (20% of colony);
can develop immunity and eliminate the bacteria;
rabbits and dogs can pass it to guinea pigs;
transmitted by aerosol, direct contact, fomites;
overt disease usually stress-related

A

Bordetella

275
Q

name 5 treatments for respiratory disease in guinea pigs

A
  1. oxygen therapy
  2. appropriate antibiosis
  3. nebulisation
  4. NSAIDs
  5. supportive care
276
Q

name the CV disease in guinea pigs

older guinea pigs;
dyspnoea, anorexia, lethargy;
Dx: radiography, ecg, echocardiography;
Tx: enalapril, furosemide and pimobendan;
prognosis poor, survival rates 3-6mo

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

277
Q

why do guinea pigs require an exogenous source of vitamin C in their diet

A

absence of enzyme L-gluconolactone oxidase

(required to convert L-gluconolactone to L-abscorbic acid)

278
Q

name 7 possible clinical signs of hypovitaminosis C in guinea pigs;
unable to synthesise collagen at normal rate - range of clinical signs

A
  1. thin, unkempt, roughened hair coat
  2. scaling of pinnae
  3. lethargy, weakness
  4. anorexia
  5. haemorrhage in periarticular regions (unsteady gait)
  6. dental abnormalities
  7. diarrhoea
279
Q

these are crusy scabs around the philtrum that can be caused by oversupplementing vitamin C in guinea pigs

A

chelitis

280
Q

name 8 vitamin C rich food items

A
  1. leafy greens (spinach, kale, cabbage)
  2. fresh hay
  3. fresh herbs (parsley)
  4. garden weeds (dandelions)
  5. root veggies (beetroot, carrots)
  6. asparagus
  7. tomatoes
  8. peppers
281
Q

name 2 supplements that can be given to guinea pigs to prevent development of osteoarthritis

A
  1. glucosamine
  2. chondrotin sulfate
282
Q

what is the most common cause of otitis media/interna in guinea pigs

A

Streptococcus infection

283
Q

name 4 clinical signs of otitis media/interna in guinea pigs

A
  1. head tilt
  2. circling
  3. rolling
  4. nystagmus
284
Q

name the guinea pig ectoparasite

extreme pruritis;
highly reactive on handling;
distracted;
reduced appetite and weight loss;
self trauma;
seizures

A

Trixacarus caviae

285
Q

name the guinea pig ectoparasite

can be found in young or immunosuppressed guinea pigs;
scaly, crusting areas of alopecia on the feet, face and dorsum;
Trichophyton and Microsporum species;
Dx: cytology of lesions and culture;
treat all in-contacts;
ZOONOTIC

A

ringworm

286
Q

name the 3-part treatment for ringworm in guinea pigs

A
  1. oral itraconazole or terbafine
  2. topical antifungal sprays
  3. environmental decontamination
287
Q

name the skin neoplasia in guinea pigs

most common skin growth;
benign growht;
hair follicle;
can grow quite large;
complete incision is curative

A

Trichofolliculoma

288
Q

what sex of guinea pigs are mammary tumours more common in

A

male

289
Q

what percent of mammary tumours in male guinea pigs are malignant

A

75%

290
Q

name the ophthalmic condition in guinea pigs

deposit of lipid in bulbar conjunctiva;
diet related;
non-painful;
good opportunity to diet check;
no Tx needed

A

pea eye or fatty eye

291
Q

what is the most common endocrine disorder of guinea pigs

A

hyperthyroidism

292
Q

name 6 clinical signs of hyperthyroidism in guinea pigs

A
  1. hyperactivity
  2. weight loss
  3. reduced BCS
  4. PU/PD
  5. polyphagia
  6. soft droppings
293
Q

name 3 treatment options for hyperthyroidism in guinea pigs

A
  1. lifelong medical management with methimazole or carbimazole
  2. surgical removal of thyroid gland
  3. radioactive iodine
294
Q

start of SM08

should rabbits be fasted prior to anaesthesia?

A

NO

295
Q

should rodents be fasted prior to anaesthesia?

A

NO

296
Q

should ferrets be fasted prior to anaesthesia?

A

YES

(4-6h)

297
Q

should African Pygmy Hedghogs be fasted prior to anaesthesia?

A

YES

(4-6h)

298
Q

what is the dose of meloxicam for ferrets?

A

0.2 mg/kg

299
Q

what is the dose of meloxicam for guinea pigs and chinchillas?

A

0.4-0.6 mg/kg

300
Q

what is the dose of meloxicam for rats?

A

up to 1 mg/kg

301
Q

what is the dose of buprenorphine for small mammals?

A

0.02-0.05 mg/kg

(long action - 6-8h)

302
Q

what is the duration of action for lidocaine?

A

1-2h

303
Q

what is the toxic dose for lidocaine

A

3 mg/kg

304
Q

what is the toxic dose for bupivicaine

A

2 mg/kg

305
Q

name 5 aims of pre-medication for anaesthesia

A
  1. prevent panic
  2. muscle relaxation
  3. reduce consciousness
  4. analgesia
  5. reduce inhalation anaesthetic required for maintenance
306
Q

name 3 negative side effects possible with pre-medication for anaesthesia

A
  1. hypothermia
  2. resp depression
  3. CV depression
307
Q

name 3 common combinations used as pre-medication for anaesthesia

A
  1. midazolam and buprenorphine
  2. ‘triple’ (ketamine, dexmedetomidine and buprenorphine or butorphanol)
  3. hypnorm (fentanyl and fluanisone)
308
Q

name 3 small mammals where intubation is possible with an endoscope but not routinely done

A
  1. guinea pig
  2. degu
  3. chinchilla
309
Q

name 3 small mammals that are routinely intubated

A
  1. rats
  2. african pygmy hedgehogs
  3. ferrets
310
Q

name 2 drug options for IV induction in ferrets

A
  1. alfaxalone
  2. propofol
311
Q

what type of ventilation for a ferret under GA?

A

mechanical ventilation

312
Q

what is the flow rate for ferrets under GA?

A

1.5-2.5 L/min

313
Q

name 3 ‘Pros’ of using a face mask for maintenance anaesthesia

A
  1. simple use
  2. no laryngeal contact
  3. if unable to intubate
314
Q

name 6 ‘Cons’ of using a face mask for maintenance anaesthesia

A
  1. potentially incr dead space
  2. leakage of volatile agent
  3. IPPV difficult
  4. agents may cause nasal oedema and mucus production
  5. tongue can block pharynx
  6. no protection against upper airway or lower airway obstruction or aspiration
315
Q

name 4 mask options for maintenance anaesthesia

A
  1. malleable rubber masks
  2. diaphragm seal masks
  3. silicone low volume mask
  4. small mammal low dead space
316
Q

name 4 rules when using a face mask for maintenance anaesthesia

A
  1. don’t allow mask to rest on eyes
  2. don’t allow mask to obstruct the nostrils
  3. choose mask with minimal dead space and best possible seal
  4. use extractor fans
317
Q

what is the best location for IV fluids in APHs, ferrets, guinea pigs, and chinchillas?

A

cephalic vein

318
Q

what is the best location for IV fluids in rats?

A

lateral tail vein

319
Q

what type of suture should be used to close the muscle layer of small mammals

A

PDS (polydioxanone)

320
Q

what type of suture should be used for ligatures, SC and intradermal layers in small mammals

A

monocryl
(poliyglepcaprone 25)

321
Q

why are ferrets not routinely neutered?

A

adrenal gland disease post-neuter

322
Q

in an open castration for small mammals, what must always be closed?

A

the tunic

323
Q

when should an ovariohysterectomy be performed on rats?

A

before 6-8wks

(before sexual maturity)

324
Q

when should an ovariohysterectomy be performed on guinea pigs?

A

before 4-6wks

(before sexual maturity)

325
Q

what is the anatomical difference in guinea pigs and chinchillas that makes exteriorisation of the ovaries difficult

A

short mesovarium

326
Q

name 2 reproductive-related pathologies that rats are prone to and can be prevented with early ovariohysterectomy

A
  1. fibroadenomas
  2. pituitary tumours
327
Q

name the reproductive-related pathology that guinea pigs are prone to and can be prevented with early ovariohysterectomy

A

cystic ovarian disease

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