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Avian Flashcards

AV01-07

1
Q

start of AV01

name 4 problems that feeding seed-only diets to birds can lead to

A
  1. obesity
  2. hypovitaminosis A
  3. nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
  4. iodine deficiency
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2
Q

name 3 diseases that obesity predisposes a bird to

A
  1. pododermatitis
  2. arteriosclerosis
  3. fatty liver
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3
Q

how much Avian Convalescent Formulae should be tube fed to anorexic and sick parrots?

A

1% of bodyweight
increasing to 3% by third feed

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4
Q

the lack of what 3 things in the diet of a bird can lead to nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. calcium
  2. vitamin D
  3. UV light
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5
Q

name 3 consequences of vitamin D deficiencies in birds

A
  1. poor repro and egg shell quality
  2. osteodystrophy of juveniles
  3. clinical hypocalcaemia
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6
Q

what type of bird is at largest risk for iodine deficiency

A

small psittacines
(mainly budgies)

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7
Q

what does iodine deficiency present as in birds

A

hypothyroidism and goitre

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8
Q

in a bird with iodine deficieny:
as the thyroid enlarges and compresses the trachea, what will be the consequences?

A

squeaky voice and dyspnoea

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9
Q

name 4 disadvantages of a homemade diet for birds

A
  1. time consuming
  2. may contain bacteria or fungal growths
  3. need vitamin and mineral supplements
  4. unknown nutritional values
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10
Q

what is the advantage of homemade diets for birds?

A

balanced/good quality food

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11
Q

name 3 advantages of a pelleted diet for birds

A
  1. grinding of cereals + vitamins + minerals
  2. desired pellet shape
  3. not able to select feed
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12
Q

name 2 disadvantages of pelleted diets for birds

A
  1. does not guarantee sufficient environmental enrichment
  2. changing the diet is difficult
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13
Q

name 3 disadvantages of extruded diets for birds

A
  1. reduced stimulation of GIT (chopped more finely)
  2. significantly reduces brain stimulation
  3. not easily accepted
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14
Q

name the type of diet for birds

ground grains + vitamins + minerals;
higher temp and pressure to create a variety of shapes and colours;
mixture is chopped more finely

A

extruded diets

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15
Q

name the type of diet for birds

mix of pellets (+ amino acids, vitamins and minerals) mixed with hulled grains and seeds

A

foraging diets

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16
Q

name 4 advantages of foraging diets for birds

A
  1. balanced meal with variable shapes and textures
  2. good enrichment and normal foraging behaviour
  3. modifying feedings habits of parrot a bit easier
  4. GIT function promoted bc coarse food particles
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17
Q

what should vitamin C intake be for a bird in order to help prevent high iron intake

A

less than 500 mg/kg

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18
Q

name 8 unsafe foods for birds

A
  1. old seedds/nuts (aflatoxins)
  2. avocado
  3. chocolate
  4. caffeine
  5. onion and garlic
  6. indoor plants
  7. fruit pits/stones/seeds
  8. xylitol
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19
Q

what type of diet do budgerigars, cockatiels and small psittacines require?

A

granivore
(native grass and seeds)

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20
Q

what type of diet do grey parrots require?

A

Florivorous
(seeds, fruit, flowers and nuts)

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21
Q

what type of diet do amazon parrots require?

A

frugivore

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22
Q

what type of diet do cockatoos require?

A

omnivore
(seeds, plant roots and insects)

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23
Q

what type of diet do macaws require?

A

frugivore & granivore
(seeds, fruit, nuts, leaves, shoots and bark)

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24
Q

name the birds that should be fed this diet

formulated diet of good quality fresh seed mix with sprouted seeds, fruit and vegetables as supplements ;
do NOT feed ad lib due to problems with obesity;
avoid larger fatty seeds such as sunflower

A
  1. budgerigars
  2. cockatiels
  3. small psittacines
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25
Q

name the type of bird that should be fed this diet

formulated diet with limited vegetable supplementation;
provide UV-b light for adequate vitamin D3 metabolism or calcium supplement

A

grey parrot

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26
Q

name the type of bird that should be fed this diet

formulated diet or pulse mixture supplemented with fruit;
avoid seeds as very prone to obesity and fatty liver

A

amazon parrots

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27
Q

name the type of bird that should be fed this diet

formulated diet;
avoid fat seed diets

A

cockatoos

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28
Q

name the type of bird that should be fed this diet

formulated diets with 10% vegetable supplementation;
avoid excessive use of nuts as treats

A

macaws

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29
Q

name 5 risks to birds during transport (to the vet etc)

A
  1. injury
  2. loss of flight feathers
  3. soiled
  4. escape
  5. overheating
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30
Q

name 5 zoonotic disease that can be spread by parrots

A
  1. Chlamydia psittaci
  2. Mycobacterium genavense
  3. Salmonella typhimurium & enteriditis
  4. Campylobacter jejuni
  5. HPAIV
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31
Q

name 3 ways for an individual bird to be identified

A
  1. ring
  2. microchip
  3. feather/wing tag
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32
Q

name 5 things that should be done before touching the bird for clinical exam

A
  1. observe in carrier
  2. speak with owner
  3. observe breathing
  4. listen for resp noise and change in voice
  5. check carrier and look at droppings
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33
Q

name 5 things that should be done to prepare the consult room before taking the bird out

A
  1. doors locked
  2. windows closed
  3. turn fan off
  4. reduce lighting
  5. remove any clutter from the cage
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34
Q

name 4 pieces of equipment needed for clinical exam of a bird

A
  1. PPE
  2. towels
  3. gloves/gauntlets
  4. nets
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35
Q

how to restrain a parrot?

A
  1. hold head either side by thumb and first finger
  2. second hand to restrain wings and feet
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36
Q

how often should a bird be weighed while hospitalised

A

twice a day

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37
Q

how often should a bird be weighed at home

A

ideally daily
(every week is fine)

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38
Q

name the BCS of the bird

breast bone is very sharp to the touch;
loss of breast muscle and no fat cover

A

1
(very thin)

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39
Q

name the BCS of the bird

breast bone is easily felt and sharp;
loss of breast muscle and little or no fat cover

A

2
(thin)

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40
Q

name the BCS of the bird

breast bone easily felt but not sharp;
breast muscle rounded

A

3
(ideal)

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41
Q

name the BCS of the bird

pressure is needed to feel the breast bone;
well-rounded breast muscle and some fat cover;
may see some fat below where breast bone ends

A

4
(overweight)

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42
Q

name the BCS of the bird

very hard or not possible to feel the breast bone;
very rounded muscle and possible to feel or see fat moving under the skin;
fat also obvious below where the breast bone ends

A

5
(obese)

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43
Q

name 6 things to assess feathers and skin for

A
  1. presence/absence and pattern of loss
  2. condition
  3. stress lines
  4. molt
  5. ectoparasites
  6. blood feathers
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44
Q

name 3 things to assess the wings of birds for during clinical exam

A
  1. feather damage
  2. range of movement
  3. basillic vein volume and refill
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45
Q

name 4 things bird feet should be checked for during a clinical exam

A
  1. pododermatitis
  2. nail length and quality
  3. excess faecal build up
  4. feet grip with pen or finger
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46
Q

name 4 apparent mucous membranes that can be assessed in birds

A
  1. coelomic cavity
  2. uropygial gland
  3. pericloacal region
  4. cloacal mucosae
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47
Q

where should a microchip be placed for birds?
(usually under GA)

A

left pectoral muscle

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48
Q

what type of birds should NEVER have their wings clipped

A

psittacines

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49
Q

what feathers are clipped for wing clipping in birds?

A

5-7 primary flight feathers 1cm beyond the edge of the dorsal major primary coverts

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50
Q

name 5 reasons wing clipping should NOT be done in birds

A
  1. can cause irritation
  2. can increase fear and anxiety
  3. does NOT make parrots easier to train
  4. leads to feather plucking and keel wounds
  5. can cause crash landings and injury
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51
Q

AV02

name the ABC of emergenca triage

A
  1. Airways
  2. Breathing
  3. Cardiovascular
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52
Q

name 3 basic rules for critical care of birds

A
  1. minimise handling until more stable
  2. oxygen!
  3. supplemental heating! (25-30C for most birds; 21-26 for waterfowl and birds of prey)
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53
Q

what is the maintenance fluid requirement for birds?

A

50-100 mL/kg/day

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54
Q

any sick bird is assumed to be what percent dehydrated?

A

10% dehydrated
(and likely acidotic)

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55
Q

name 5 possible routes of fluid therapy for birds

A
  1. oral
  2. subcutaneous
  3. intracoelomic (risk of air sac puncture)
  4. intraosseous
  5. intravenous
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56
Q

what type of feeding tubes do parrots require?

A

metal

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57
Q

name the 4 steps of crop feeding a bird

A
  1. over base of tongue and glottis
  2. down oesophagus
  3. into crop or proventriculus
  4. deliver bolus of liquid
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58
Q

up to what percent of body weight of a bird can be in the crop at any time?

A

up to 1%

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59
Q

name 2 major risks of crop feeding too large a volume?

A
  1. regurgitation
  2. rupture/burn
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60
Q

where to give subcutaneous fluids to birds?

A

inguinal skin fold

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61
Q

name 2 reasons when subcutaneous fluids in birds should be avoided

A
  1. if operating on that side
  2. if performing coelioscopy
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62
Q

name 3 safe places to administer intraosseous fluids to birds

A
  1. proximal tibiotarsus
  2. distal ulna
  3. proximal ulna
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63
Q

name 2 bones where intraosseous fluids should NOT be given to birds;
will drown the bird bc pneumatised and involved in respiration

A
  1. humerus
  2. femur
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64
Q

how much of the fluid deficit should be replaced in the first 12-24h for birds?

A

50%

(rest over 24-48h)

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65
Q

what should the fill of the crop be before tube feeding a bird?

A

empty

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66
Q

what percent of body weight and how often should a juvenile bird be fed for supportive nutrition?

A

10% (10 mL/100g)
3-5 times a day

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67
Q

how much and how often should an adult bird be fed for supportive nutrition?

A

3mL per 100g BW
5 times a day

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68
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a budgie?

A

1-3 mL

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69
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a lovebird?

A

2-3 mL

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70
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a cockatiel?

A

3-6 mL

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71
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a small conure?

A

4-12 mL

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72
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a big conure?

A

12-25 mL

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73
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a parakeet?

A

15-35 mL

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74
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a cockatoo?

A

20-40 mL

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75
Q

what volume for supportive nutrition should be given to a macaw?

A

35-60 mL

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76
Q

why does butorphanol work well in birds for analgesia?

A

higher levels of kappa opioid receptors

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77
Q

how long will analgesia from butorphanol last in birds?

A

2-4h

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78
Q

what kind of opioid analgesia can be used for birds at home?

A

tramadol

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79
Q

what combo of local anaesthetics are used in birds?

A

lidocaine + bupivicaine

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80
Q

where are most IM injections given in birds?

A

pectoral muscle

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81
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

anorexia and can’t be tempted to eat;
ie weight loss

A

nutritional therapy

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82
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

respiratory effort or distress;
known respiratory disease;
initial assumption for any general sick bird appearance

A

oxygen therapy

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83
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

anorexia or regurgitation, collapse, diarrhoea, haemorrhage

A

fluid therapy

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84
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

sick birds showing any signs of respiratory disease

A

nebulisation

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85
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

all sick birds will likely need a full work-up (blood profile, radiographs, endoscopy)

A

diagnostics

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86
Q

name the critical care treatment for the sick bird

oiled or wet (soaked) feathers, post-anaesthesia or diagnostic procedures (endoscopy or ultrasound);
debilitated, weak, collapsed birds, inappetant birds

A

thermo-therapy

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87
Q

start of AV03

what is the most important sample you should always obtain and do an analysis on for birds?

A

faecal

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88
Q

name 5 analyses that should be done on a faecal sample from birds

A
  1. quality/quantity
  2. cytology
  3. parasitology
  4. culture
  5. PCR
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89
Q

how much of the bacteria present in psittacines faeces should be gram positive

A

more than 70%

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90
Q

name the type of bacteria that can be seen on cytology of avian faeces

appears as a very large, gram positive rod

A

Macrorhabdus

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91
Q

name 3 parasites affecting birds that can be found on a faecal analysis with a direct life cycle

A
  1. ascarids (smaller/Australian psittacines)
  2. coccidia (wild birds, raptors, game birds)
  3. flagellates (game birds)
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92
Q

name 2 parasites affecting birds that can be found on a faecal analysis with an indirect life cycle

A
  1. Syngamus spp (raptors, passerines and wild birds)
  2. Capillaria spp
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93
Q

name 2 avian diseases that can be detected with faecal PCR

A
  1. Chlamydia +++
  2. avian borna virus
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94
Q

name 4 diagnostic tests that can be done on feathers

A
  1. quality/quantity
  2. cytology
  3. parasitology
  4. PCR
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95
Q

how to perform cytology on feathers?

A

contents of quill squeezed onto microscope slide;
wet prep;
diff-quik stain for inflammatory cells, RBCs, yeasts and bacteria

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96
Q

name 3 reasons for doing PCR on a feather

A
  1. PBFD (psittacine beak-feather disease)
  2. Polyoma virus
  3. identify sex
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97
Q

name 4 things to assess bird skin for

A
  1. feather destructive behaviour (FDB)
  2. skin lesions
  3. bacteria
  4. ectoparasites
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98
Q

name the 3 most common bacteria found affecting bird skin

A
  1. staph
  2. strep
  3. Malessezia (secondary)
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99
Q

name the 2 most common ectoparasites found on birds

A
  1. red mite (Dermanyssus gallinae)
  2. Cnemodicoptes
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100
Q

name the ectoparasite

affects psittacines and passerines (budgies);
‘scaly face’;
hyperkeratosis of the legs

A

Cnemodicoptes

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101
Q

how to perform a crop flush in a bird?

A
  1. 1% of BW warmed saline into crop with sterile crop tube
  2. massage crop
  3. aspirate and look at immediately
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102
Q

name the avian pathogen that can be detected via crop flush

causes sour crop

A

Trichomonas gallinae

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103
Q

name the avian pathogen that can be detected via crop flush

avian gastric yeast;
common cause of weight loss, regurgitation and poor condition in small psittacines, notable budgies and passerines, notably canaries

A

Macrorhabdus ornithogaster

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104
Q

name the avian pathogen that can be detected via crop flush

very common in juvenile parrots leading to GI stasis

A

Candidiasis

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105
Q

name 5 things that should be given/monitored before bird anaesthesia

A
  1. supplemental heat
  2. monitor BW
  3. fluid therapy
  4. nutritional support
  5. analgesia (if required)
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106
Q

what should be used to induce birds for anaesthesia?

A

Sevoflurane
(gaseous induction)

107
Q

name 2 options for sedating birds

A
  1. butorphanol and/or midazolam (up to 3mg/kg for deeper sedation)
  2. intranasal midazolam (2mg/kg, lasts 10-60min)
108
Q

what can be used to reverse midazolam sedation in birds

A

intranasal flumazenil (0.05mg/kg)

109
Q

name 4 ways to reduce anaesthesia risks in birds

A
  1. be as short as possible
  2. quiet location
  3. equipment ready for use
  4. prevent hypothermia!
110
Q

name 4 ways to help prevent hypothermia during surgery on a bird

A
  1. warmed fluids
  2. hot hands
  3. heated water beds/heat mats
  4. radiant heat source (theatre lighting)
111
Q

what two medications should be used to help facilitate intubation in diving birds such as swans?

A
  1. medetomidine
  2. ketamine
112
Q

name 2 drugs that can be used to help induce diving birds such as swans for anaesthesia
(mask induction prolonged)

A
  1. propofol
  2. alfaxalone
113
Q

what is the highest cause of death for birds during anaesthesia

A

ventilatory failure

114
Q

what is the inspiratory time for a bird during anaesthesia for ventilation?

A

1-2 seconds

115
Q

how many breaths per minute should a bird have during anaesthesia (ventilation)

116
Q

what type of ventilation is indicated for all intubated birds and should be continued until extubation?

117
Q

this can be used to maintain anaesthesia in a bird if surgery of the head and neck is required or if there is a risk of stricture

A

air sac tube placement

118
Q

name 6 things that can be monitored during anaesthesia of a bird to assess depth

A
  1. eye in fixed position
  2. corneal reflex
  3. wing stretch
  4. cloacal tone
  5. jaw tone
  6. toe pinch
119
Q

what should the pulse of a bird be during anaesthesia

A

60-400 bpm

120
Q

start of AV04

name 5 advanced diagnostics that can be performed on birds

A
  1. blood samplings
  2. tracheal wash
  3. sinus flush
  4. daignostic imaging
  5. endoscopy
121
Q

how much blood can be sampled from a bird if healthy

A

10%
(0.5-1% of BW)

122
Q

name three locations for blood sampling in birds

A
  1. basilic vein (‘wing’ vein)
  2. medial metatarsal vein
  3. jugular vein
123
Q

what type of blood tube should be used for most bird species

A

Li Heparin

124
Q

how much blood from a bird is needed for a full profile at experienced labs

125
Q

how much circulating blood would a 1.5kg macaw have?

A

150mL

(10% BW)

126
Q

what is the lifespan of avian erythrocytes

A

35-45 days

127
Q

what are avian neutrophils called?

A

heterophils

128
Q

what haematological sign is caused by PBFD (psittacine beak-feather disease)?

A

marked leucopaenia

129
Q

what 4 things should a standard biochemistry profile include for birds?

A
  1. TP/albumin
  2. bile acids
  3. uric acid
  4. total calcium/ionised calcium
130
Q

what are the “4 P’s” of taking radiographs?

A
  1. preparation
  2. positioning
  3. projections
  4. protection
131
Q

do you want low or high MAs and KVP for avian radiographs?

132
Q

describe the 4 positioning requirements for a ventro dorsal projection radiograph of a bird

A
  1. wings level and stretched laterally
  2. femurs parallel
  3. keel superimposed over vertebral column
  4. foot placement a mirror image
133
Q

name 3 keys to positionign a bird for latero lateral projection radiograph

A
  1. femoral heads overlie
  2. wings stretched dorsally
  3. sternum parallel to cassette
134
Q

name 3 reasons for needing radiographs of birds

A
  1. trauma (Fx, luxations, osteomyelitis)
  2. foreign bodies (hooks)
  3. GIT (with contrast)
135
Q

how many projections should be taken when taking avian radiographs?

A

at least 2
(DV or VD and latero-lateral)

136
Q

how long should you wait after adding Barium sulphate to the crop for it to empty before taking radiographs?

137
Q

name 4 indications for ultrasound in birds

A
  1. ascites
  2. superficial masses
  3. tendons
  4. eyes
138
Q

name the 5 steps of surgical endoscopy in birds
(under GA)

A
  1. R lateral recumbency
  2. pluck small patch of feathers & surgical prep
  3. incise skin between last two ribs
  4. artery forceps to push through muscles and enter coelomic cavity
  5. suture muscle layer when finished with monocryl (single layer)

(same as placing air sac tube)

139
Q

start of AV05

name 6 common respiratory conditions in birds

A
  1. sinus infections
  2. rhinoliths
  3. parasites
  4. air sacculitis
  5. aspergillosis
  6. Chlamydia
140
Q

name 4 common skin conditions in birds

A
  1. PBFD
  2. polyoma virus
  3. pododermatitis
  4. FDB
141
Q

what vitamin deficiency can predispose birds to sinus infection

142
Q

name 4 clinical signs of sinus infections in birds

A
  1. facial swelling
  2. nasal discharge
  3. sneezing
  4. rubbing face
143
Q

name 3 treatments for sinus infections in birds

A
  1. sinus flushing
  2. sinus surgery
  3. nebulisation
144
Q

when is sinus surgery required for sinus infections in birds

A

if material is inspissated

145
Q

what bird species is predisposed to rhinoliths

A

African grey parrots

146
Q

what vitamin deficiency can predispose birds to rhinoliths

147
Q

how to treat rhinoliths in birds?

A

flush with abx diluted in sterile saline;
correct underlying predisposing factors

148
Q

name 2 common parasites affecting the respiratory system of wild birds, passerines and raptors

A
  1. gapeworm (Syngamus trachea)
  2. air sac mite (Sternostoma tracheacolum)
149
Q

name a common paraasite that can lead to respiratory issues in pet psittacines (budgies)

A

scaly leg/face mite (Cnemidocoptes spp.)

150
Q

name 3 broad aetiologies of air sacculitis in birds

A
  1. inflammation
  2. husbandry
  3. infectious
151
Q

name 4 inhalation irritants that can cause inflammation leading to air sacculitis in birds

A
  1. teflon/non-stick costings
  2. candles
  3. smoke
  4. fumes
152
Q

name 3 husbandry-related causes of air sacculitis

A
  1. immunosuppression
  2. hypovitaminosis A
  3. lack of UV
153
Q

name 3 infectious causes of air sacculitis

A
  1. aspergillus
  2. chlamydia
  3. mycoplasma
154
Q

what concurrent disease is usually associated with air sacculitis in birds

A

hepatosplenomegaly

155
Q

name 3 aspects of therapy for a bird with air sacculitis due to acute inhalation/exposure

A
  1. remove from source
  2. supportive care + nebulise
  3. Loxicom (0.1mg/kg PO q24h)
156
Q

name the respiratory disease affecting birds

environmental ubiquitous mould;
noncontagious - infection via inhalation of spores from environment;
damp litter, mouldy feed, poor ventilation, dust;
penguins, goshawks, gyr falcons, snowy owls, golden eagles, sea birds, waterfowl;
causes immunosuppression

A

Aspergillosis

157
Q

what can be seen on endoscopy to diagnose Aspergillis in birds

A

fungal plaques

158
Q

what can be seen on haematology to helo diagnose Aspergillis in birds

A

monocytosis and heterophilia

159
Q

name 2 topical treatments for birds with Aspergillosis

A
  1. nebulisation with dilute F10
  2. Amphotericin B
160
Q

name 3 systemic antifungal treatments for Aspergillosis in birds

A
  1. Terbinafine (10-30mg/kg PO q12-24h)
  2. Itraconazole (5-10mg/kg PO q12-24h)
  3. Voriconazole (10mg/kg PO q12h)
161
Q

name a systemic antifungal that is not tolerated well by African Grey Parrotss

A

Itraconazole

162
Q

name the respiratory disease affecting birds

gram negative bacteria;
obligate intracellular parasites;
survive for several weeks in environment;
elementary bodies shed in secretions during infective stage;
ZOONOTIC

A

Chlamydia psittaci

163
Q

name 7 clinical signs of Chlamydia in birds

A
  1. conjunctivitis
  2. nasal discharge
  3. ocular swelling
  4. sneezing
  5. respiratory distress
  6. green diarrhoea
  7. CNS signs
164
Q

how to diagnose Chlamydia in birds

A

faecal PCR (3-5d pooled sample)

165
Q

name 2 treatment options for Chlamydia in birds

A
  1. Tetracyclines (doxy)
  2. Fluoroquinolones (enro)

(supportive care)

166
Q

name the skin disease affecting birds

DNA Circovirus;
adults can be asymptomatic carriers, causes immunosuppression;
stable in environment for up to a year;
easy transmission via faeces/feather dust on contaminated fomites;
vertical transmission via egg;
typically affects birds <3y

A

Psittacine Beak and Feather Disease (PBFD)

167
Q

what 3 parts of the bird/cells are favoured by PBFD virus

A
  1. rapidly dividing cells
  2. GIT
  3. immune system
168
Q

name 5 clinical signs of PBFD in birds

A
  1. depression
  2. lethargy
  3. diarrhoea
  4. immunosuppression
  5. beak/feather abnormalities
169
Q

name 3 things seen on cytology to help diagnose PBFD in birds

A
  1. basophilic inclusions
  2. cytoplasm of follicular epithelium and in feather pulp
  3. macrophages, bursa of fabricus
170
Q

name 2 signs of PBFD seen on haematology of birds

A
  1. anaemia
  2. leukopenia
171
Q

what is the treatment for PBFD in birds?

A

NONE
infection control and quarantine new arrivals

172
Q

name the skin disease affecting birds

‘french moult’ in budgies;
vertical but horizontal transmission more significant;
lead to nestling death

A

Polyoma virus

173
Q

name 3 clinical signs of Polyoma disease in birds

A
  1. leucopaenia
  2. anaemia
  3. widespread haemorrhages
174
Q

name 6 causes of pododermatitis in birds

A
  1. inappropriate perches or substrate
  2. poor hygiene, infection
  3. foot or leg injury
  4. reduced exercise or immobility
  5. obesity
  6. hypovitaminosis A in psittacines
175
Q

describe the 5 step pathogenesis of pododermatitis in birds

A
  1. feet lose papillae and become inflamed
  2. local ischaemia from pressure sores
  3. scabs can form and develop into ulcerations
  4. lesions become infected
  5. tendonitis and osteomyelitis
176
Q

name 5 therapies for birds with pododermatitis

A
  1. improve perching (astroturf)
  2. analgesia (meloxicam)
  3. topical treatment
  4. dressings
  5. appropriate antibiosis (clav/amox)
177
Q

start of AV06

name 6 common GI medical conditions of birds

A
  1. avian gastric yeast
  2. candidiasis
  3. trichomoniasis
  4. mycobacteriosis
  5. ABV
  6. heavy metal toxicity
178
Q

name 4 common urogenital conditions of birds

A
  1. salpingitis
  2. dystocia
  3. cloacal prolapse
  4. gout
179
Q

name 4 common presentations of GI disease in birds

A
  1. vomiting
  2. regurgitation
  3. diarrhoea
  4. cachexia
180
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

Macrorhabdus ornithogaster;
resemble large gram positive rods;
most often seen in canaries, finches, budgies, lovebirds, cokcatiels, small parrots and occasionally psittacines;
endemic in populations;
aka ‘Megabacteria’

A

avian gastric yeast

181
Q

name 4 clinical signs of avian gastric yeast

A
  1. proventricular and ventricular disease
  2. ulceration and bleeding out into GIT
  3. wasting, lethargy
  4. passing undigested food
182
Q

what is the most common cause of weight loss in budgies

A

avian gastric yeast

183
Q

what might be seen on radiograph to diagnose avian gastric yeast

A

dilated proventriculus with an hour-glass constriction btwn proventriculus and ventriculus

184
Q

name 4 ways to diagnose avian gastric yeast

A
  1. radiographs
  2. endoscopy
  3. crop wash
  4. faecal sample
185
Q

what is the treatment for avian gastric yeast?

A

sodium benzoate
0.5 tsp/L water for 5wks

(and lowering crop pH with cider vinegar)

186
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

aetiology:
overgrowth of normal avian GI flora within crop;
secondary to inappropriae or prolonged abx therpay;
young birds;
immunocompromised;
hand reared birds fed improperly prepared rearing formulas

A

Candida albicans

187
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Candida albicans in birds

A
  1. regurgitation, vomiting
  2. slow emptying or distended crop
  3. beak necrosis
  4. white plaques in oral cavity
188
Q

what is the treatment for Candida albicans in birds

A

Nystatin topically to lesiosn

189
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

flagellated protozoan;
common in wood pigeons, collard doves, passerines, and wild raptors and owls;
common wildlife pathogen;
spread via water or food

A

Trichomonas

190
Q

what is the clinical sign of Trichomonas in birds

A

plaques in mouth and crop

191
Q

how to diagnose Trichomonas in birds

A

swab from mouth or crop

192
Q

name 3 treatments for Trichomonas in birds

A
  1. metronidazole (50mg/kg PO q24h x5-7d)
  2. surgical debridement
  3. euthanasia if severe

(carnidazole tablets for pigeons and raptors)

193
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

rare;
causes chronic wasting disease in psittacines;
infection of GIT that spreads to bone and skin;
Falconiformes and waterfowl quite susceptible;
intermittent shedding ;
diffuse form common in canaries and finches

A

Mycobacteriosis

194
Q

how to diagnose Mycobacteriosis in birds?

A

acid-fast stain of faeces or of granulomas

(difficult)

195
Q

what is the treatment for Mycobacteriosis in birds

196
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

incubation period up to 7y;
shed in bodly secretions;
psittacines (grey parrots, cockatoos, macaws);
causative agent of Proventricular Dilatation Disease (PDD) aka Macaw wasting disease

A

Avian Borna Virus (ABV)

197
Q

name 6 clinical signs of Avian Borna Virus (ABV)

A
  1. wasting
  2. regurgitation
  3. reduced GI motility
  4. FDB
  5. neuro signs
  6. death
198
Q

how many negative tests are needed to interpret as a negative result for Avian Borna Virus (ABV)

A

3 negative tests, 4-6wks apart

199
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose Avian Borna Virus (ABV)

A
  1. full blood work
  2. radiography (provent, vent, & intestinal enlargement)
  3. ABV PCR
200
Q

what is the treatment for Avian Borna Virus (ABV)

A

palliative and symptomatic

(NO successful antivirals)

201
Q

name the common GI condition of birds

CNS signs, bent neck, depression, weakness, GI stasis, PD, PU, green faeces;
GI ulceration and blood loss in faeces;
small amounts can be absorbed from GIT and stored in bones and soft tissue, then excreted slowly over months by the kidneys

A

heavy metal toxicity
(lead and zinc)

202
Q

name 4 treatments for heavy metal toxicity in birds

A
  1. aggressive hydration
  2. diazepam (0.05-0.5mg/kg IV)
  3. removal of lead particles
  4. chelation therapy (calcium EDTA q12h IM) - 5d on, 5d off
203
Q

name 4 effects of excessive egg laying in birds
(depletes female resources)

A
  1. egg binding
  2. soft shelled egg
  3. hypocalcaemia
  4. pathological fractures (typically long bones)
204
Q

name 6 treatments for excessive egg laying in birds

A
  1. modify owner behaviour
  2. reduce photoperiod (to 8h)
  3. supplemetal Ca, UV light, vit D
  4. remove nesting sites
  5. diet management
  6. dislorelin implant to inhibit ovulation
205
Q

name 3 causes of dystocia in birds

A
  1. calcium/vit D3 deficiencies
  2. oversized or misshapen eggs
  3. uterine inertia due to excessive laying, metritis and obesity
206
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose dystocia in birds

A
  1. blood sample for ionised calcium
  2. radiography for eggs
  3. endoscopy if no eggs
207
Q

name 4 treatments for dystocia in birds

A
  1. calcium
  2. oxytocin
  3. physical manipulation
  4. surgical intervention
208
Q

how to treat cloacal prolapse in birds

A

purse string suture for 1-3d

209
Q

what can chronic renal disease in birds lead to ?

210
Q

what causes chronic renal disease in birds?

A

elevated uric acid levels

211
Q

name 3 treatments for chronic renal disease in birds

A
  1. fluid therapy
  2. allopurinol (stops uric acid production)
  3. analgesia? (colchicine)
212
Q

what type of bird is harder to induce and more difficult to maintain at an adequate level of anaesthesia?

213
Q

how to manage fractures of tibiotarsus and tarsometatarsus in very small patients

A

with a tape splint

214
Q

avian bone healing with endosteal callus formation to stabilise the fracture can occur in this amount of time

A

as little as 21d

215
Q

how are fractures of the long bones (humerus, ulna, radius, femur, tibiotarsus and tarsometatarsus) resolved in birds?

A

external fixator +/- intramedullary pin

216
Q

bandaging of a limb of a bird shpulf never be for more than this long to avoid callous formation and joint seizure leading to a reduced range of motion

217
Q

name the 2 bandaging techniques used for immobilisation of the wing of a bird

A
  1. figure of eight bandage
  2. full wing bandage (immobilise humerus)
218
Q

start of AV07

what is the average life expectancy of Hybrid chickens?

219
Q

what is the average life expectancy of pure breed chickens

A

6-10 years
(8-12 for bantams)

220
Q

name 5 important aspects of housing for chickens

A
  1. appropriate size
  2. secure run
  3. appropriate perches
  4. nesting boxes
  5. able to be disinfected
221
Q

how many nest boxes do you need for chickens?

A

at least 1 per 3 birds + 1 extra

222
Q

how many eggs per day can chickens lay?

A

1 egg per day (~25h to produce)

223
Q

name 3 signs of laying in a chicken

A
  1. red comb
  2. wet cloaca
  3. ‘pin bones test’
224
Q

what is the incubation period for fewrtile chicken eggs?

225
Q

when are hens often sold?

A

at ‘point of lay’ - around 20-24wks

226
Q

this is important to give to chickens for gizzard function and eggshell formation

A

grit (soluble and insoluble)

227
Q

name 2 notifiable diseases of chickens

A
  1. Avian Influenza
  2. Newcastle Disease
228
Q

name 2 things that are ILLEGAL to feed to a pet chicken

A
  1. kitchen scraps
  2. insect protein
229
Q

name 6 non-specific clinical signs that are typical for any sick chicken

A
  1. fluffed up feathers
  2. eyes closed
  3. lethargy
  4. reduced appetite
  5. changes in egg laying
  6. ‘hunched’ appearance
230
Q

what is the normal heart rate of a chicken

A

250-300 bpm

231
Q

what is the normal resp rate of a chicken

232
Q

what is the normal temperature of a chicken

233
Q

name 5 parts of the chicken head that should be included in a clinical exam

A
  1. eyes
  2. comb and wattles
  3. nare
  4. ears
  5. beak and oral cavity
234
Q

name the 6 parts of a beak to tail exam of a chicken

A
  1. head
  2. crop and neck
  3. limbs
  4. feather quality
  5. coelomic palpation
  6. cloaca
235
Q

how to euthanise a chicken?

A

IV pentobarbitone
(sedation or anaesthesia first)

236
Q

name 3 veins that can be used to euthanise a chicken

A
  1. basilic vein
  2. medial metatarsal vein
  3. jugular vein
237
Q

name 3 common reproductive diseases in pet chickens

A
  1. egg coelomitis/salpingitis
  2. egg binding
  3. prolapse
238
Q

name 2 common GI diseases in pet chickens

A
  1. crop impaction
  2. sour crop
239
Q

this the most common cause of illness in pet chickens

A

reproductive disease

240
Q

name 4 causes of egg binding in pet chickens

A
  1. calcium deficiency
  2. misshapen/enlarged egg
  3. damage to shell gland
  4. weakness from underlying illness
241
Q

name the reproductive disease in pet chickens

presence of abnormal yolk material loose in the coelom

A

coelomitis

242
Q

name the reproductive disease in pet chickens

presence of abnormal yolk material contained in the reproductive tract

A

salpingitis

243
Q

name 4 medical therapies for egg coelomitis and salpingitis in pet chickens

A
  1. antibiotics
  2. hormone implant
  3. NSAIDs
  4. drain fluid
244
Q

how to prevent egg coelomitis/salpingitis in pet chickens

A

hormonal implant in pectoral muscle

245
Q

name 3 possible causes of prolapse in pet chickens

A
  1. dystocia
  2. salpingitis
  3. egg coelomitis
246
Q

if recent, how do you treat prolapse in pet chickens

A

clean, lubricate and replace;
may require temporary purse string suture

247
Q

name 3 environmental factors that will predispose pet chickens to respiratory problems

A
  1. poor ventilation
  2. high ammonia
  3. high dust levels
248
Q

name 3 common clinical signs of upper resp tract disease in pet chickens

A
  1. sneezing
  2. nasal discharge
  3. ocular discharge
249
Q

name 3 common clinical signs of lower resp tract disease in pet chickens

A
  1. incr resp rate and effort
  2. open mouth breathing
  3. coughing
250
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for a pet chicken with respiratory disease and swollen joints?

A

Mycoplasma

251
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for a pet chicken with respiratory disease, renal damage, and oviduct infection

252
Q

name 5 clinical signs of HPAI in affected pet chickens

A
  1. swollen head
  2. blue comb and wattles
  3. diarrhoea
  4. significant drop in egg production
  5. resp distress
253
Q

name 7 clinical signs of Newcastle Disease in pet chickens

A
  1. loss of appetite
  2. coughing
  3. gasping
  4. nasal discharge
  5. watery eyes
  6. bright green diarrhoea
  7. nervous signs - paralysis and convulsions
254
Q

name 4 treatment options for Mycoplasmosis in pet chickens

A
  1. enrofloxacin
  2. tylosin
  3. tiamulin
  4. tetracyclines
255
Q

name 3 primary causes of sour crop/crop stasis/crop impaction in pet chickens

A
  1. sudden dietary change
  2. fibrous material
  3. foreign material
256
Q

what are the most common causes of sour crop/crop strasis/crop impaction in pet chickens

A

underlying GI/repro disease

257
Q

name 4 causes of oral lesions in pet chickens

A
  1. Trichomoniasis
  2. yeast overgrowth (Candida albicans)
  3. bacterial
  4. neoplastic
258
Q

name 3 clinical signs of coccidiosis in pet chickens

A
  1. bloody diarrhoea
  2. weight loss
  3. sudden death
259
Q

what is the treatment for coccidiosis in pet chickens

A

toltrazuril (baycox) in water

260
Q

name the ectoparaasite affecting pet chickens

live in environment, feed on birds at night;
anaemia, lethargy and even death;
cleaning and treatment of environment is essential;
permethrin or pyrethrum powders/sprays can be used

A

Red mites
(Dermanyssus gallinae)

261
Q

name the ectoparaasite affecting pet chickens

common and can cause intense irritation and a build-up of yellowish musty-smelling debris (scaly leg);
ivermectin effective;
can also use Vaseline as an adjuctive Tx or similar to soften scales and suffocate ectoparasite;
do NOT pick at the scales

A

scaly leg mites
(Cnemidocoptes mutans)

262
Q

name the ectoparaasite affecting pet chickens

flat, fast-moving and ~2mm long so easily visible with the naked eye;
eggs clump together and have the appearance of granulated sugar at the base of the feathers around the vent;
Tx with ivermectin or pyrethrum powder

A

Lice
(Menopon gallinae)

263
Q

name the viral disease affecting pet chickens

herpesvirus;
causes lymphoid tumours and demyelination of peripheral nerves;
classical clinical sign: progressive unilateral wing droop and leg paralysis;
shed in feather dust, surives for months in litter;
birds may be carriers;
NO Tx, euthanasia recommended

A

Marek’s disease
(Fowl paralysis)

264
Q

name the viral disease affecting pet chickens

‘fowl pest’
parmyxovirus;
notifiable disease;
rare in UK, may be spread by wild pigeons;
can cause respiratory and neurological signs, also reduced egg production and green diarrhoea

A

Newcastle disease

Exotics (8 decks)

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