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NAVLE > Small animal > Flashcards

Small animal Flashcards

1
Q

what is the pathognomonic finding with portosystemic shunts in cats?

A

copper colored iris bilaterally

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2
Q

describe the effusion that would be classical/suspicious of FIP?

A

straw or gold colored, sticky, viscous

high protein (globulin count), moderate cell count

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3
Q

what is the classical lesion associated with FIP that results in pleural and peritoneal effusion?

A

pyogranulomatous vasculitis (due to antigen antibody complexes depositing into the venular endothelium)

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4
Q

Mammary tumors in cats:
1) what percentage are malignant
2) what percentage metastasize
3) what is the recommended surgical procedure?

A

1) almost always
2) 90%
3) unilateral chain masectomy

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5
Q

Mammary tumors in dogs:
1) what percentage are malignant
2) what percentage metastasize
3) where should you screen for mets?

A

1) 50%
2) 50%
3) chest

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6
Q

Cryptococcus transmission

A

pigeon droppings & eucalyptus trees –> inhaled spores from where these are present

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7
Q

treatment of cryptococcus infection in cats

A

amphotericin B

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8
Q

monitoring of cryptococcus infection treatment in cats

A

monitor w/ latex agglutination antigen test to evaluate response to treatment

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9
Q

classical lesions of cryptococcus infection in cats

A

swelling over bridge of nose & lesions of retinas

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10
Q

blastomycosis common clinical signs

A

depression, anorexia, weightloss, fever, lymphadenopathy, harsh lung sounds, draining skin lesions, chorioretinitis, uveitis, cough

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11
Q

what would you see on chest radiographs for blastomycosis infection?

A

Bronchointerstitial “snowstorm” pattern of pneumonia (hilar areas)

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12
Q

what are the 5 commonly affected organs when infected with blastomycosis?

A
  1. skin
  2. bones
  3. eyes
  4. lymphatics
  5. lungs
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13
Q

treatment of blastomycosis

A

if not severely ill –> itraconazole for 60d +/- NSAIDs

if severely ill –> amphotericin B

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14
Q

why are corticosteroids contraindicated in treatment of blastomycosis

A

causes further immunosuppression

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15
Q

how can toxoplasmosis be transmitted?

A

ingestion of raw meat

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16
Q

Sporothrix is a fungi found in the soil, how can it be transmitted/introduced into the body?:

A

via a puncture from a thorn or through an open wound or cut when exposed to contaminated soil

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17
Q

Fanconi syndrome:
1) what is it
2) predisposed breed
3) what bloodwork changes
4) clinical signs?

A
  1. abnormal function of the renal tubules (proximal tubular disease)
  2. Basenjis
  3. hyponatremia, hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperchloremia, low blood glucose
  4. PU/PD, decreased appetite, weight loss despite polyphagia, poor body condition, lethargy, abnormal bone development in young dogs
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18
Q

what percentage of otherwise healthy cats under the age of 10 with LUT signs have primary bacterial uti?

A

<2%

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19
Q

what is the most common bladder cancer seen in cats

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

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20
Q

what is the side effect of diazepam in cats

A

acute fulminant necrosis

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21
Q

what are some appetite stimulants?

A
  • Diazepam  cats
  • Cyproheptadine  cats
  • Mirtazapine
  • Capromorelin
  • Megestrol acetate  dogs
  • Predniso(lo)ne
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22
Q

what three things can cause LV concentric hypertrophy?

A
  1. systemic hypertension
  2. hyperthyroidism
  3. HCM
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23
Q

Pulmonic stenosis

A

congenital defect, sm breed dogs
pressure overload of RIGHT heart
characterized by systolic murmur, best heard over LEFT base
concentric hypertrophy of RV (due to pressure overload)
enlarged pulmonary artery
treatment: balloon valvuloplasty

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24
Q

aortic stenosis

A

predisposed breed = boxers

murmur heard best over LEFT base

concentric hypertrophy of LEFT heart (enlarged LV, LA, Ascending aorta)

+/- syncope

treatment: beta blockers (atenolol) –> reduces myocardial oxygen demand

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25
Q

animals with aortic stenosis are at higher risk for…

A

infective endocarditis

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26
Q

what is the treatment of aortic stenosis

A

beta blockers (atenolol) - reduces myocardial oxygen demand

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27
Q

Tricuspid dysplasia
1. predisposed breeds
2. clinical signs
3. key findings
4. prognosis

A
  1. labs, GS, large breed males
  2. consistent w/ right heart failure (ascites, hepatomegaly)
  3. enlarged right heart, murmur on RIGHT side
  4. poor
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28
Q

why are furosemide and atenolol contraindicated treatments in pericardial effusion?

A

furosemide –> decreases preload and makes diastolic filling worsen

atenolol –> decreases contractility

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29
Q

what parts of the heart are most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in the dog vs in large animals

A

dogs –> mitral/aortic valves
large animals –> tricuspid and pulmonary valves

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30
Q

why are pacemakers not helpful in DCM cases?

A

its a problem with contractility not rhythm

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31
Q

what medications can be used to treat DCM

A

betablocker, diuretic, acei (enalapril), pimobendane, +/- spironolocatane

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32
Q

what are possible clinical signs of right sided heart failure?

A
  • tachypnea
  • hepatomegaly
  • exercise intolerance
  • muscle wasting
  • lethargy, weakness, venous distension, ascites, peripheral edema
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33
Q

what can taurine deficiency in cats cause?

A

retinal degeneration
DCM

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34
Q

what are common concurrnet diseases in cats with DKA

A
  • Hyperthyrodisim
  • cardiac disease
  • pancreatitis
  • bacterial infections
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35
Q

what are common concurrent diseases in dogs with DKA

A

hyperadrenocorticism

bacterial infections

pancreatitis

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36
Q

what is the screening test of choice in cats for hyperthyroidism

A

TT4 (increased)

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37
Q

what other tests may help diagnose hyperthyrodisim in cats

A

increased fT4

increased ALP, AST, ALT

erythrocytosis

hypertension

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38
Q

what is the treatment of choice in cats with hyperthyroidism, what is a major SE of this treatment

A

methimazole - facial excoriations

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39
Q

what are the common clinical signs in cats with hyperthyrodisim

A
  • weight loss with polyphagia
  • thyroid nodule/slip
  • hyperactivity
  • vomiting
  • tachycardia
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40
Q

what is the causitive agent of rabbit fever aka Tularemia

A

Francisella tularenesis

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41
Q

what are clinical signs of rabbit fever in cats?

A

depression, fever, anorexia

general lymphadenopathy

oral ulceration

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42
Q

what are the three forms of disease in humans that rabbit fever (Tularemia) can cause?

A
  1. ulceroglandular
  2. pneumonic
  3. typhoidal
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43
Q

When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?:

A

ileocolic artery

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44
Q

list the structures that the blood vessels are associated with:
1. left colic artery
2. pudendal artery
3. iliocecal/colic artery
4. caudal mesentery artery

A
  1. feeds descending colon
  2. supplies external genitalia
  3. supplies ascending and transverse colon
  4. supplies rectum and descending colon
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45
Q

Tritochomonas foetus is a flagellated parasite that is most commonly found in kittens with unresponsive diarrhea, how is it treated?

A

ronidazole

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46
Q

Feline mammary hyperplasia:
1. benign vs malignant
2. signalment
3. cause
4. tx

A
  1. benign
  2. younger cats (preg and non-preg, unspayed females), rapid onset
  3. hormonal stimulation from a functional ovary producing PROGESTERONE
  4. OVH
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47
Q

what drug can cause feline mammary hyperplasia

A

megestrol acetate

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48
Q

what is the test of choice for heart worm in cats vs dogs, what are the limitations?

A

cats –> antibody HW test (indicates exposure, not necessarily infxn)

dog –> antigen HW test (detects antigens from adult female worms only)

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49
Q

what is the treatment of choice in dogs with HW

A

melarosamine

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50
Q

what are the 5 types of round cell tumors?

A
  1. mast cell
  2. lymphoma
  3. histiocytoma
  4. plasma cell
  5. transmissible venereal tumor
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51
Q

what are classical findings associated with chronic lymphocytic luekemia?

A

prominent LNs and spleen

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52
Q

what are the cons of phenothiazines (acepromazine)

A

no analgesia, hypotension, may decrease hematocrit due to splenic sequestrum of cells

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53
Q

what is the etiology and treatment of Salmon poisoning disease?

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

tetracycline

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54
Q

what is the treatment for carbon monoxide toxicity, why

A

100% oxygen –> reduces half life of carboxyhemoglobin comlexes from 4hours on room air to 30 mins

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55
Q

what drug can you use to evaluate laryngeal function (ie in suspected laryngeal paralysis case) and why is it used?

A

Doxopram –> central nervous stimulant that has effects on the resp centers and works by stimulating the reflex activation of carotid and aortic receptors

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56
Q

what is the bacterium causes cat scratch disease and how is it transmitted to humans

A

Bartonella henslae

infects owner via bacteria from flea feces when cat bites/scratches owner

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57
Q

what are 5 non-absorbable sutures?

A
  1. nylon (ethlion)
  2. polyproplene (prolene)
  3. silk
  4. polybuster (novafil)
  5. polymerize caprolactum (vitafil)
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58
Q

what 2 groups of medical management can be employed in a pyometra case that is not willing to undergo surgery?

A
  1. prostaglandins (prostaglandin F2 alpha)
  2. dopamine agonist (cabergoline, bromocripitine)
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59
Q

what test asses hepatic function?

A

pre and post-pranadial bile acid test (high = decrease in hepatic function)

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60
Q

does AST reflect liver function?

A

No its a hepatocellular leakage enzyme not specific to the liver (also in cardiac and skeletal muscles and erythrocytes)

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61
Q

does ALT reflect liver function

A

no its a liver specific leakage enzyme but is not indicative of function

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62
Q

what is the test of choice for EPI

A

TLI

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63
Q

why can you not use a type 2 external fixator in a femoral fracture repair in the dog? what can be used instead?

A

because the medial aspect of the femur cannot be approached due to being directly adjacent to the trunk of the dog.
Use type 1, intramedullary pin w/ cerclage wires or a bone plate instead.

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64
Q

pheocromocytomas are a tumor of what?

A

adrenal medulla (inner part of adrenal gland and consists of chromaffin cells which are responsible for making catecholamines - epinephrine and NE)

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65
Q

what lab values indicate insulinoma?

A

normal-high serum insulin levels (lose control of insulin secretion)

low BG levels

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66
Q

Trichuris vulpis:
- what kind of parasite
- what part of body does it commonly inhabit
- clinical signs
- treatment

A
  • canine whipworm
  • cecum
  • diarrhea, hematochezia, weight loss
  • fenbendazole
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67
Q

Extraocular polymyositis:
1. whos affected
2. what causes it
3. clinical signs
4. treatment

A
  1. YOUNG golden retrievers
  2. autoimmune reaction against muscle antigens
  3. BILATERAL, non-painful, no systemic signs
  4. treatment: prednisone +/- azathioprine
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68
Q

what is the mean circulating lifespan of a neutrophil in:
1. dog
2. cow
3. horse

A
  1. 5-9 hr
  2. 16hr
  3. 10-11hr
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69
Q

Tetraology of fallot is a congenital heart disease characterized by 5 things, what are they?

A
  1. pulmonic stenosis
  2. dextropositioning of the aorta (over riding)
  3. RV hypertrophy
  4. VSD
  5. shunting of venous blood across the VSD into arterial circulation ultimately causing polycythemia
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70
Q

describe a typical animal affected with Tertalogy of Fallot

A
  • under developed in size
  • hx of exercie intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea, syncope due to hypoxemia
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71
Q

what would you expect to see on thoracic radiographs of an animal affected with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

normal to mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette with RV enlargement and pulmonary hypoperfusion

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72
Q

what drugs can be used for the treatment of Afib?

A
  1. atenolol (betablocker) –> slows AV nodal conduction to decrease ventricular response rate
  2. procainamide (Class 1A anti-arrhythmic)
  3. diltiazem (calcium channel blocker) - slows av node conduction and ventricular reponse rate
  4. digoxin - Increases vagal tone to AV node tos low conduction and decrease HR
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73
Q

why should you NOT use Doxycyline in young growning animals

A
  1. delayed bone growth
  2. discolouration of teeth
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74
Q

what are the specific ocular manigestations associated iwth feline herpes virus

A
  1. corneal ulcers
  2. eosinophilic keratitis
  3. conjunctivitis
  4. corneal sequestrum
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75
Q

what test should you perform for FeLV?

A

ELISA, if positive then submit IFA (if positive= truly positive)

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76
Q

Isosopora:
- type of parasite
- clinical signs
- treatment

A
  • coccidia
  • diarrhea
  • sulfonamides
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77
Q

Primary hyperparathyrodism:
1. classic signs
2. bloodwork findings
3. most common cause in dogs

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. azotemia mild, high total & ionized clacium, low phosphorous
  3. adenoma of parathyroid glands
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78
Q

at what age in cats can fetal skeletons be visible on xray

A

36-42d

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79
Q

at what age stage ind ogs can fetal skeletons be viisble on xray

A

42 days

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80
Q

what is the only infectious cause in cats that can cause corneal ulcers

A

herpes virus (dendritic/linear ulcers)

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81
Q

when performing an enterotomy in a dog its best to cut on what border?

A

antimesenteric

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82
Q

what drug is used to treat central diabetes inspidius

A

DDAVP (desmopressin = synthetic ADH)

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83
Q

what skin lesions do patients with sertoli cell tumors develop

A

males may have bilateral alopecia w/ occasional pruriptius and papular eruptions, hyperpigmentation

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84
Q

does central diabetes inspidius cause derm lesions?

A

noh

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85
Q

what view should be taken to assess suspected intrathoracic tracheal collapse?

A

end expiratory view (intrathroacic pressure is highest at end expiration and may worsen the intrathoracic airway collapse)
- end inspiration view is the standard view of a thoracic series

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86
Q

what is collie eye anomaly characterized by

A

choroidal hypoplasia

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87
Q

what would you see on fundic exam with collie eye anomaly

A

varying degrees of visual dysfunction with signs of bizarre choroidal vessels

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88
Q

Persistent right aortic arch:
- what is it
- who gets it and how
- clinical signs
- treatment

A
  • vascular ring anomaly
  • inherited defect predisposed in GS and irish setters that causes constricting obstruction of the esophagus @ the level of the base of the heart
  • regurg (usually manifests as a puppy when its weaned off of milk onto solids)
  • transect ligamentum arteriosum
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89
Q

what drug is used to treat nephrogenic diabetes inspidius, how does it work?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide diruetic that reduces urine output)

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90
Q

In what direction do most coxofemoral luxations in the dog occur?

A

80% occur in the craniodosrsal direction

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91
Q

there are several congenital conditions that can occur and cause elbow dysplasia, what are they and which is the most common

A
  1. fragmented medial coronoid process (most common)
  2. OCD of humoral head
  3. elbow incongruency
  4. ununited anconeal process
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92
Q

what are the 4 eye problems that Cocker Spaniels are predisposed to developing?

A
  1. cataracts
  2. distichiasis
  3. retinal abnormalities
  4. primary glaucoma
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93
Q

which way does the stomach rotate in GDVs

A

counter clockwise when viewed from cranial to caudal in dorsal recumbency

clockwise when viewed caudal to cranial

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94
Q

what radiograph should be taken for GDVs

A

right lateral abdomen

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95
Q

what can occur with high doses of xylitol toxicity ?

A

acute hepatic necrosis & failure

(causes rapid release of insulin!!!)

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96
Q

what are treatment options in the case of xylitol toxicity?

A
  1. IV dextrose
  2. IV fluids and electrolytes
  3. anti nausea
  4. gi protectants
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97
Q

increasing __________ deliver to the brain, decreaes ICP

A

oxygen

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98
Q

what is Acanthosis nigricans and what breed is predisposed?

A

genetic dermatosis characterized by hyperpigmentation of the axillary and groin regions which can spread to other parts of the body and may cause secondary infections (bacterial, yeast, seborrhea).
Daschunds are predisposed.
tx symptomatic (not cureable)

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99
Q

what aer the shock bolus doses of isotonic crystalloids vs synthetic colloids in a dog

A

isotonic crystalloids - 90ml/kg
synthetic colloids - 10-20ml/kg

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100
Q

what aer the shock bolus doses of isotonic crystalloids vs synthetic colloids in a cat

A

isotonic crystalloids - 40-60ml/kg
cats - 5-10ml/kg

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101
Q

Why would you want to start aggressive IVF therapy & check a chem panel in a suspected Addisonian dog that presents with bloody diarrhea, inappetence, and is dehydrated?

A

addisonian patients often present in hypovolemic shock –> the first step to treating them is to restore the vascular volume w/ IVF and run a chem panel to look at the extent of their electrolyte abnormalities (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, elevated BUN)

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102
Q

do hypothyroid dogs have a voracious appetite?

A

no –> weight gain w/ lack of appetite is due to slower metabolism

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103
Q

what endocrine disorder is most commonly associated with thinning and fragility of the skin?

A

cushings

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104
Q

calcinosis cutis is a clinical sign of what endocrine disorder?

A

cushingsh

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105
Q

what skin abnormalities may be noted with hypothyroid dogs?

A

hyperpigmentation, seborrhea, alopecia, pyoderma

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106
Q

VPCs
- what do they look like
- treatment?

A
  • wide and bizarre QRS
  • treatment with class 1 antiarrythmic (mexiletine or lidocaine)
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107
Q

How would you evaluate whether or not the mandibular branch of cranial nerve V is functionally intact in a dog?

A

look for symmetry and tone of mucsles of mastication

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108
Q

what is the treatment of a hip luxation?

A

if otherwise healthy joint capsule area –> toggle pin fixation

if severe OA present (chronicity) –> total hip replacement of FHO

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109
Q

Pannus:
- what is it
- who gets it
- what causes it
- clinical signs
- treatment

A
  • chronic superficial keratitis
  • large breed dogs
  • multifactorla (UV light, immune mediated, genetics)
  • chronic, progressive, bilateral; starts laterally; vascularization, granulation, pigmentation
  • control, not cure –> topical steroids (pred acetate or dexamethasone); adjunctive tehrapy (topcial cyclosporine A)
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110
Q

Emphysematous cystitis
- what causes it
- what are typical underlying diseases
- tx

A
  • presence of gas forming bacteria
  • cushings, DM, Chronic UTIs, bladder stones
  • tx underlying dz and cystitis will typically resolve with amb therapy
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111
Q

what is hypertrophic osteopathy? clinical signs? causes?tx?

A
  • periosteal prolifration in DIAPHYSIS of affected bone (usually metacarpal/tarsal first)
  • pain, swelling, lameness
  • primary or metastatic pulmonary neoplasia
  • anti-inflammatories
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112
Q

For a suspected iatrogenic cushings dog from high-dose prednisone administration, what would you expect on blood samples submitted for ACTH & cortisol levels?

A

low ACTH

high cortisol

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113
Q

splenic hemangiosarcoma is often associated with ______

A

DIC

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114
Q

a bunny hopping gait is most often seen in what type of orthopaedic abnormality

A

hip dysplasia

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115
Q

causes of anterior uveitis (broadly)

A

infectious, immune mediatd, traumatic, idiopathic

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116
Q

suggestive findings of anterior uveitis?

A

rubiosis iridis
aqueous flare
hyphema
hypopyon
keratitic precipitates
decreased IOP

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117
Q

What are 10 causes of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A
  1. electrocution
  2. vasculitis
  3. liver dz
  4. seizures
  5. toxins
  6. dic
  7. envenomation
  8. dic
  9. direct trauma
    10 sepsis
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118
Q

dx of feline asthma is based on /what finding on lower airway cytology

A

increased eosinophils

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119
Q

what is a key clinical finding in a dog with parvoviral infection?

A

leukopenia

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120
Q

what are 5 treatment options for mites in cats?

A
  1. milbemycin
  2. ivermectin
  3. selamectin
  4. moxidectin
  5. thiabendazole
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121
Q

what are the ECG findings associated with hyperkalemia?

A
  • increased R-R interval
  • widened QRS
  • Lack of P waves
  • tall tented t waves
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122
Q

By definition what is IBD?

A

lymphocytic plasmocytic enteritis

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123
Q

what is the main treatment for IBD

A

control underlying cause, control inflammation, control bacterial growth –> steroids (pred) & hypoallergenic diet = mainstays

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124
Q

what would be the pros and cons of metalclopramide use be in the tx of IBD

A

pro –> could potentially help vomiting from underlying IBD
con –> pro-motility could worsen diarrhea

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125
Q

what is the best way to confirm a susupicion of retinal detachment on ocular exam?

A
  1. measure systolic BP
  2. serum chem to assess renal values
  3. thyroid horomones to assess hyperT4
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126
Q

What can be associated with low calcium on a chemistry panel but does not typically result in clinical signs of hypocalcemia in dogs? why

A

hypoproteinemia –> calcium measured on a chem panel is the protein-bound calcium which will appear low when the animals proteins are low

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127
Q

what form of calcium is considered the active form? what is the advantage of measuring this

A

ionized calcium
is not affected by the animal having low blood protein levels

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128
Q

what is the treatment of choice for a Taenia infection in dogs?

A

praziquantel

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129
Q

what structure is most often damaged in dogs with cranial cruciate ligament ruptures?

A

medial meniscus –> closely associated with medial collateral ligament w/ prevents meniscus from moving around within the joint when the femoral condyle compressses & slides against it

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130
Q

what are predisposing/inciting factors of Immune-mediated polyarthritis

A
  1. systemic infxns (sle)
  2. inflammatory, infectious, neoplastic
  3. reactions to drugs or vaccines
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131
Q

what clinical signs may you see with IMPA?

A

weight loss

fever

lethargy

lymphadenopathy

joint effusion, gait abnormality

132
Q

how do you diagnose IMPA?

A

Synovial fluid analysis –> thin, turbid, increased volume and higher amounts of protein & Cells (often primarily non-degen neutrophils)

133
Q

what does normal synovial fluid consist of

A

<2.5g/dl protein
<3000 cells/ul
predom mononuclear cells

134
Q

what is the treatment of IMPA

A

Immunosuppressive therapy

135
Q

what is the current tx of choice vs historic tx for giardia

A

current: fenbendazole
historic: metronidazole

136
Q

what do Sertoli cell tumors produce and what clinical signs do they cause in dogs?

A
  • produce estrogen and other hormones
  • causes feminization –> gynecomastia, sexual attraction of males, bilaterally symmetric alopecia
    urinating in female position
    bone marrow dyscrasias (apalstic anemia)
137
Q

why should cats never be given acetaminophen

A

lack gluthione & glucoronyl transferase which causes it to be metabolized differently and accumulates toxins in cats which can cause methemoglobin and cell death in cats

138
Q

Polycystic kidneys
- what causes it
- diagnosis
- treatment

A
  • inherited disease (persians, himalayans, british short hairs)
  • diagnosed via ultrasound
  • tx: fluids, LOW PROTEIN diet, gastric protectants (famotidine), maropitant, appetite stimulants
139
Q

what is the treatment for acute feline asthma

A

terbutaline (bronchodilator) & supplemental oxygen

140
Q

what is the typical treatment (maintenance) for feline asthma

A
  1. inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone) —> reduce inflammation in airways
  2. +/- bronchodilators
141
Q

what feline virus is not passed by passive contact and sharing of a litter box

A

FIV –> shed in saliva and transmitted via biting (older outdoor males)

142
Q

what feline viruses can be passed via contact and hsaring of a litter box

A
  • feline herpes
  • feline panleuk
  • feline leukemia
  • feline corona virus
143
Q

which insulin is similar in composition ot feline insulin?

A

bovine

144
Q

what is the surgical tx of choice for cats with chronic obstipation and megacolon that are refractory to medical therapy?

A

subtotal colectomy preserving the iliocolic junction

145
Q

what are 5 medical treatment objections for cats with megacolon

A
  1. adequate hydration
  2. removal of impacted fece
  3. laxative therapy
  4. promotility agents for colon (cisapride)
  5. dietary fiber
146
Q

what is the most common reason for post-anesthetic cortical blindness in cats?

A

hypoxia due to poor perfusion during anesthesia

147
Q

Cervical ventroflexion is general sign of weakness, what is the most common cause of this?

A

hypokalemia

148
Q

by definition what is hypercalcemia

A

serum Tca = >12mg/dl
serum iCa = >1.4mmol/L

149
Q

overall what should PTH do in regards to Ca and P

A

 causes increase Ca & P mobilization from bone & promotes phosphate excretion & calcium retention by kidneys (overall should increase Ca, Decrease P)

150
Q

what are c/s of hypercalcemia

A

PU/PD
Seizures
Muscle tremors
other non speicfic signs

151
Q

what aer the differentials for hypercalcemia

A

GOSH DARN IT

G- Granulomatous dz, growing puppies
O- osteolytic dz (osteomyelitis, neoplasia)
S - spurious
H- hyperparathyroidism (primary)
D- drugs (thiazides, calcium containing phosphate binders)
A - addisons
R - renal failure
N- nutritional (hypervitaminosis D - drugs, cholecalciferol rodeniticide, poisonous plants, hypervitmaonisis , xs Ca)
I- idiopathic (cats)
T - tumor

152
Q

what test for FIP has the highest positive predictive value?

A

Immunofluorescnce staining

153
Q

what test for FIP has the highest negative predictive value?

A

Rivalta test

154
Q

Type B blood type cats tend to have acute transfusion reactions, why?

A

have anti a bodies

155
Q

what species is the DH of Toxoplasma gondi

A

cats

156
Q

how are cats likely infected with Toxoplasma gondii?

A

eating raw meat or infected prey

157
Q

diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondi?

A

elevated IgM titre shows active infection w/ organism

158
Q

what are the most common C/S of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

lethargy, decreased appetite, fever

159
Q

what is the tx for Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Clindamycin

160
Q

where is the ideal incision site for a fB gastrotomy?

A

half way between the greater and lesser curvature of the stomach

161
Q

transmissible venereal tumor in dogs is treated with _________

A

vincristine (90% cure rate)

161
Q

what is the most common congenital heart defect in a dog?

A

PDA

161
Q

what does PDA cause and who is it seen in?

A

YOUNG DOGS

causes enlarged LEFT heart (l-r shunting) and pulmonary vasculature

bounding pulses

162
Q

a dog has rodenticide toxicity and it contained cholecaliferol, what should you be concerned about?

A

development of organ mineralization (esp kidneys)

tx: IVF, restricting dietary calcium

163
Q

Brodifacoum toxicity
- how do animals usually acquire this toxin
- what does it cause
- tx

A
  • vit K antagonist commonly in rodenticides
  • ingestion causes hemorrhage several days after due to lack of prod’n of clotting factor
  • tx: vit K1 admin for 4-6wks
164
Q

deep pyoderma involves the tissues deeper than _______

A

epidermis

165
Q

what abnormal heart sound are you least likely to be able to auscultate in a dog?

A

1st degree AV block

166
Q

white cats with blue eyes are commonly born with what defect?

A

deafnes

167
Q

what kind of diet should you recommend for a diabetic cat?

A

low carb

168
Q

what kind of diet should you recommend for a diabetic dog:

A

high fiber

169
Q

what two things on physical exam and ECG may support diagnosis of pericardial effusion

A
  • Electrical alternans  ECG finding where the height of the QRS complexes alternate due to the physical swinging of the heart as it contracts w/I the pericardial effusion
  • Pulsus paradoxus  exaggerated decrease in arterial pulse quality during inspiration caused by increased right-sided filling at the expense of reduced left ventricular filling because the heart is constrained by the pericardial effusion
170
Q

what bloodwork finding is supportive of hepatic lipidosis in cats?

A

ALP elevation greater than GGT suggestive

171
Q

what are 5 primary liver masses and their prognosis. what is the most common in cats

A
  1. hepatomas
  2. hepatocellular carcinoma (most common in dogs, 2nd most common in cats), prognosis 1400d if sx
  3. bile duct adenomas - better prognosis
  4. bile duct carcinomas - guarded
  5. neuroendocrine tumors - rare, poor
172
Q

atopic dermatitis is primarily mediated by…

A

IgE

173
Q

what type of HS is atopic dermatitis

A

type 1

174
Q

why do you want to feed patients with megaesophagus a high calorie diet?

A

allows less volume of food

175
Q

what are some post op complications of thyroidectomy in cats?

A
  1. laryngeal paralysis –> recurrent laryngeal nerve runs through neck and can be damaged
  2. hypocalcemia –> dmg or excision of parathyroid glands
  3. hypothyroidism –> secondary to removal of affected thyroid gland(s)
  4. horners syndorme –> dmg of sympathetic trunk which runs through neck
176
Q

what breathing pattern is the hallmark of feline asthma?

A

expiratory push

177
Q

Cytauxzoon feli
- what is it
- typical clinical signs in cats, when do these occur?
- what cells does it affect
- what other organism do you have to differentiate it from, how, and why
- treatment
- prognosis

A
  • tick borne disease that invades the reticulendothelial cells of lungs, spleen, liver, LN (
  • often present with marked pyrexia, icterus or pallor, anemia (assct’d w/ heart murmur), thrombocytopenia (due to DIC) - usually occurs 1-3wks after infection
  • differential = Mycoplasma haemofelis
    – diff tx (MH = doxycycline or enrofloxacin for 3wks)
    – C. feli = protozoal organism that is signet ring shape w/ prominent monocuclear area
    – MH = bacterial parasite that can appear as cocci, rods, or rings
  • no tx
    -poor-grave prognosis
178
Q

characteristic findings of IMHA

A
  • Spherocytes
  • agglutination
  • positive coombs
  • +/- regen anemia
179
Q

treatment of IMHA

A
  • immunosuppression (azathioprine or cyclosporine)
  • transfusions ( whole blood, packed RBC, oxyglobin)
180
Q

characterstic findings of heinz body anemia

A
  • spherocytes
  • agglutination
  • positive coombs
  • +/- regen aneia
181
Q

characteristic finding seen with renal carcinomas

A

polycycthemia

182
Q

characteristic finding seen with anal sac adenocarcinomas

A

hypercalcemia

183
Q

characteristic finding seen with lymphomas

A

hypercalcemia

184
Q

characteristic finding seen with hemangiosarcomas

A

thrombocytopathy

185
Q

characteristic finding seen with multiple myeloma

A

thrombocytopathy

186
Q

characteristic finding seen with sertoli cell tumor

A

hyperestrogenism

187
Q

characteristic finding seen with functional adrenal or pituitary tumors

A

hyperadrenocorticism

188
Q

what are the hookworms in dogs/cats? what do they cause in dogs vs humans?

A

Ancylostoma caninum, Ucinaria stenocephala

dogs –> anemia

humans –> cutaneous larval migrans

189
Q

what is the treatment for hookworms?

A

pyrantel

190
Q

what are 4 key clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

A
  1. PU
  2. PD
  3. Polyphagia
  4. Weightloss
191
Q

tx of transitional cell carcinoma at the trigone of the bladder

A

piroxocam & carboplatin chemotherapy

192
Q

what chemotherapy drug causes fatal pulmonary edema in cats?

A

cisplatin

193
Q

why is 5-fluorourcil (chemo drug) contraindicated for use in cats

A

neurotoxic

194
Q

what is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in felines? how is it treated?

A
  • Chlaymdophilia felis
  • topical tetracycline
195
Q

what is the treatment for pyrethrin toxicity in cats?

A

bathe
methocarbamol (robaxin) - control of marked tremors or seizures

196
Q

what are the key features of diabetic ketoacidosis

A

metabolic acidosis
electrolyte disturbances
hyperosmolarity

197
Q

what is required for a definitive diagnosis of hepatocutaneous syndrome?

A

skin biopsies

198
Q

what is the most common cause of cataracts in cats?

A

anterior uveitis

199
Q

where in the bone is the most common site for primary osteosarcoma

A

metaphysis

200
Q

where in the bone is the most common site for metastatic bone tumors

A

diaphysis

201
Q

what does zinc toxicity cause

A

hemolysis

202
Q

paint chips can cause type of toxicity ? what is the treatment?

A

lead
Ca-EDTA (chelator)

203
Q

what does the definitive diagnosis of multiple myeloma

A

requires at least 2 of the following criteria
1. monoclonal gammopathy
2. radiographic evidence osteolytic bone lesions
3. >5% neoplastic cells or >10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow
4. immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria

204
Q

pan osteitis
1. what is it
2. who is affected
3. what causes it
4. radiographic changes
5. treatment

A
  1. self-limiting PAINFUL condition chara terized by limping and lameness
  2. LONG bones of young dogs (med-lrg brd) <2yr
  3. etx unknown
  4. focal intramedullary densitiies within diaphysis (mottled)
  5. tx: limit activity, anti-inflammatories
205
Q

what is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in dogs

A

systemmic hypoxia

206
Q

what is the definitive diagnosis for parvo

A

examination of blood or tissue by IFA

207
Q

What is the treatment of choice for perianal fistulas

A

immunosuppressive therapy

208
Q

what are the most common serovars now thought to play a role in canine leptospirosis?

A

Grippotyphosa
Phomoa
Bratsilava

209
Q

familial dermatomyositis
1. who gets it
2. inciting causes
3. treatment
4. diagnosis

A
  1. collies, shetland sheep dogs
  2. vx, sunlight, viral infxn, drugs, no obvious cause
  3. symptomatic & supportive
  4. skin or muscle biopsies (difficult bc wax/wanes)
210
Q

what test is used to monitor the efficacy of treatment in a cushings patient?

A

ACTH stim

211
Q

a positive ortolani sign occurs in affected dogs when manipulting which bone

A

femur

212
Q

where is cardiac hemangiosarcoma most commonly found on the heart?

A

RA

213
Q

lymphoma of the eye commonly causes changes to the _______ or the _________ but rarely the ________-

A

uvea and retina

rarely the cornea

214
Q

what are 2 things suggestive of pyelonephritis

A

bacteria or WBC CASTS in the urine

215
Q

what is the best measure of liver function in the dog on a routine chem panel

A

BUN – urea is produced by the liver and will be low in cases of liver failure

cholesterol, glucose, bilirubin, albumin

216
Q

what is idiopathic epilepsy typically described as?

A

generalized TONIC-CLONIC seizures between 1-5 years of age

217
Q

dobermans are predisposed to _______ when using trimethroprim sulfas

A

HS reactions

218
Q

Strychnine toxicity
- what is it in
- clinical signs
- what does it affect
- treatment

A
  • snail baits and other poisons
  • begin suddenly and progress from anxiety to tetatnic convulsion spontaneously or in response to stimulation
  • affects all striated muscle
  • methocarbamol (symptomatic not antidote)
219
Q

what drug causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis in dogs

A

cyclophosphamide

220
Q

why is atropine contraindicated in cats with chronic feline bronchial disease (asthma)

A

thickens bronchial secretions and encourages mucous plugging of the airway

221
Q

what does doxorubicin cause in cats

A

Renal toxicity

222
Q

what is a common complication following anysurgery involiving the pancreas

A

post-op hypoglycemia

223
Q

what drug is the tx of choice for cats with hypertension

A

amlopidine (CCB)

224
Q

what drug can be used in conjugation with diuretics to treat protein-losing nephropathy

A

enalapril

225
Q

what is the treatment of choice for calicivirus

A

clindamycin and sucrulfate

226
Q

what are four main drugs used to terat life-threatening hyperkalemia in emergencies such as urethral obstructions?

A

sodium bicarb
dextrose
insulin

227
Q

what drug is used as a premed in cats prior to anesthesia to help decrease salivary secretions

A

atropine

228
Q

a cat presenting with a plantigrade stance with hocks dropped low to the groound is most often associated with. a ___________

A

diabetic neuropathy

229
Q

what is the most common skin tumor in cats and what is a typical presentation of it?

A

basal cell tumor
- hairless, dome shaped, raised mass that is frequently on head, neck, and shoulders

lamost always benign but histologically aggressive

230
Q

what is the best way to diagnose most fluke eggs

A

fecal sedimentation

231
Q

what is the feline lungworm and how do you treat it?

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
tx: ivermectin and fenbendazole

232
Q

Hypothyroidism:
1. signalment
2. C/S
3. Dx
4. tx

A
  1. older dogs
  2. weight gain, obesity, alopecia (bilat sym over lateral trunk, tail, ventral thorax, pyoderma, hyperigmentation, seborrhea)
  3. low TT4, increased TSH, low fT4
    4: levothyroxine
233
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism
1. signalment
2. predisposed breeds

A

middle aged female dogs

poodles, GS, rotties, WHWT, wheaton terriers, portugese water dog

234
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism
1. clinical signs

A
  • PU/PD
  • hyperkalemia, hyponatremia (Na: K <27)
  • low USG
  • Lack of stress leukogram
  • bradycardia w/ ECG consistent with hyperkalemia
  • GI blood loss (low albumin)
  • increased BUN (gi bleeding
235
Q

hypoadrenocorticism
1) diagnostic test
2) monitoring test

A
  1. ACTH stim
  2. Na + K lvls
236
Q

hypoadrenocorticism
1. tx

A

life long coticosteroid (pred) + lifelong mineralocortiocids (flucortisone or DOCP)

237
Q

Hyperadrenocortisim
1. signalment
2. most common type

A
  1. dogs
  2. PDH
238
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism
1. c/s

A
  • pu/pd
  • panting
  • polyphagia
  • pendulous abdomen
  • pyoderma, thin skin, pigmentation, symmetrical alopecia
239
Q

hyperadrenocorticism
1. dx

A
  • stress leukogram
  • elevated ALP
  • hyposthenuria (<1.010)
  • LDDST
  • HDDST
240
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism
1. what is the monitoring test

A

ACTH stim

241
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism
1. treatment?

A
  1. Mitotane (opddd) or trilostane
  2. adrenlectomy (ADH)
242
Q

what are the skin abnormalities for hypthyrodism in dogs

A

bilateral symetrical alopecia over lateral trunk, tail, ventral thorax

pyoderma, hyperpigmentation, seborrhea

243
Q

what are the skin abnormlaities for hyperadrenocoticism

A

pyoderma, thin skin
hyperpigmentation, symmetrical alopecia

calcinosis cutis

244
Q

Canine Parvovirus
1. etiology

A

canine parvovirus 2
- attacks SI crypt cells, lyphopietic tissue, BM
can shed for 2-3 weeks

245
Q

Canine Parvovirus
1. signalment

A

puppies <8m, unvx’d adults

246
Q

canine parvovirus
1. clinical signs

A
  • vomiting
  • hemorrhagic diarrhea
  • lethargy
  • inappetance
247
Q

Canine Parvovirus
1. dx

A
  • IFA of blood or tissue = definitive
248
Q

Canine Parvovirus
- what are the downsides of the fecal ELISA for diagnosis

A

false + 5-15d post vx
false neg if test too early in dz process

249
Q

Canine Parvovirus
- what is a typical CBC finding

A

leukpenia, neutropenia

250
Q

Canine Parvovirus
- tx

A

BSamb (ampicillin or cephalosoporin)

anti-nausea

DW

nutritional support

251
Q

Canine Distemper Virus:
- etiology

A

paraxymovirus that infects resp, GIT, urogenital epithelium, CNS, optic nerves when associated with viremia

252
Q

Canine Distemper Virus:
- signlament

A

puppies <4m unvx;d adults

253
Q

Canine Distemper Virus:
- c/s

A
  • fever
  • ocular and nasal discharge
  • lethargy, anorexia
  • CNS –> localized involuntary muscle twitching, seizures, chewing of jaw
  • GI + resp signs
254
Q

Canine Distemper Virus:
- dx

A
  • RT-PCR & antibody detection ELISA
255
Q

Canine Distemper Virus:
- possible sequelae

A

hyperkeratosis of nasal planum & foot pads

enamel hyperplasia

256
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus
1. type of virus

A

retrovirus

257
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus
1. transmission

A

saliva, nasal secretions, urine, milk, feces

258
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus
- signalment

A

kitten or young adult, free-roaming, males»

259
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus
- clinical signs

A
  • ADR +/- abdominal or thoracic mass
260
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- type of virus and transmission

A
  • lentivirus
  • saliva(bites)
261
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- what cells does the virus infect

A
  • cytotoxic t cells
  • t helper cells
  • b cells
  • macrophages
262
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- signlament

A

intact outdoor males

263
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- clinical signs

A

gingivitis
stomatitis
ADR, fever, anorexia, lethargy

264
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
-Dx

A

CBC –> anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
sreening –> serum ELISA
- conrifmation - western blot

265
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- prognosis

A

good-excellent

266
Q

FIP:
- clinical signs

A
  • waxingwaning fever, lethargy, anorexia, weight loss
  • asymmetrical kidneys
  • plapable abdominal fluid wave
  • anterior uveitis +/- neuro signs
  • dry form (granulomatous) –> effusion
  • wet form –> effusions and microgranulomas
267
Q

FIP
- gold standard dx

A
  • biopsy w/ IHC
268
Q

FIP
- what would the changes on chemistry panels in regards to preoteins look like

A

hypoalbuminemia
hyperglobuliminemia
(ratio <0.6)

269
Q

Feline rhinotracheitis
- etiology and transmission

A
  • herpes virus 1
  • direct or indirect, fecal
270
Q

Feline rhinotracheitis
- ocular manifestations?

A
  • corneal sequestrum
  • corneal ulcers (dendritic)
  • conjunctivitis
  • eosinophilic keratitis
271
Q

Feline rhinotracheitis
- c/s

A
  • chemosis
  • ocular, dendritic ulcers +/- oral uclers
  • systemic dz
272
Q

Feline calicivirus
- c/s

A
  • chhemosis
  • systemis dz
  • oral ulcers
273
Q

Feline calicivirus
- tx

A
  • clinadmicyin, liquid doxycyline, or amox/clav
  • sucrulfate
274
Q

Feline Chlamydiosis
- etiology

A

Chlamydophilia felis

275
Q

Feline Chlamydisosis
- clinical signs

A
  • chemosis
  • conjunctivitis
  • NO SYSTEMIC DZ
276
Q

Feline chlamydisosi
- dx

A

fluorescent antibody test (incluusion bodies on conjunctival scrapings)

277
Q

Feline chlamydisosis
-tx

A

topical tetracycline

278
Q

What is the most common biochem finding for cats exhibiting cervical ventroflexion?

A

low potassium (hypokalemia)

279
Q

Describe the 3 seperate clinical syndromes of feline eosinophilic granuloma complex?

A
  1. collangeolytic granuloma (eosinophilic/linear granuloma) –> nose, chin, oral cavity, caudal thighs. Raised, ulcerative or nodular lesions
  2. Eosinophilic plaque –> abdomen & medial thighs most common. Single or multiple raised red ulcerated lesions varying in size (pruiritic, cobble stone appearance)
  3. eosinophilic ulcer (indolent ulcer) –> upper liip (uni or bilat), characteristic central area of yellow-pink tissue w/ slightly raised circumferential edge
280
Q

Iris atrophy is a normal aging change seen in almost all dogs over 10 years old, what are common things seen with this?

A
  • absent or incomplete PLRs
  • dyscoria
  • anisocoria
281
Q

Pradofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone that can be used in cats but should not be used in dogs because it can cause __________

A
  • bm suppression
282
Q

rodenticiity toxicity would cause ______ (in terms of BW)

A
  • elevated clotting times
283
Q

Canine thrombopathia
1. what is it
2. what does it cause

A
  • autosomal recessive trait seen in basset hounds
  • platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli
  • affected animals are at increased risk for bleeding spontaneously & an injury or surgical procedure could cause xs hemorrhage.

platelet numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition

284
Q

Possible tx’s for glaucoma in dogs

A
  1. IV mannitol (decreases IOP osmotically)
  2. topical dorsolamide (Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) –> decreases aqeuous production
  3. Topical latanoprost (prostaglandin analog) –> increases outflow of aqueous humor in eye to decrease IOP
285
Q

Tx for chronic KCS

A

topical cyclosporine & topical steroid

286
Q

what does a minor cross match involve

A
  • donor plasma
  • recipient RBC
287
Q

what does a major cross match involve

A
  • donor RBC
  • recipient plasma
288
Q

When performing a perineal urethrostomy which nerve must you preserve?

A
  • pudendal nerve (severing = urinary incontinence)
289
Q

what is the least effective repair method for a femoral fx and why

A

intramedullary pin –> strongest in bending but does not provide enoguh stability by themselves

290
Q

what enzyme remains unchanged/normal in hepatic lipidosis

A

GGT

291
Q

what enzymes would be elvated in cholangiohepatitis

A

GGT
ALP

292
Q

What are Howell jolly bodies and what is their significance

A
  • sm spherical nuclear remnants that are left behind when the nucleus of a RBC is expelled during maturation
  • found in low numbers in normal horses and cats
  • can be increased in animals recieving glucocorticoids or chemotherapy agents
293
Q

ingestion of what 3 things may cause heinz body anemia

A
  1. acetominophen
  2. onions
  3. garlic
294
Q

what can pneumothorax be secondary to

A
  • trauma
  • neoplasia
  • infection
  • ruptured bullae
295
Q

How do dogs and cats get Yersinia pestis and what is the prognosis

A
  • ingestion of rodent or via bite from preys flea
  • poor vectors of plague so usually recover
296
Q

What is an organism that is associated with transfer after tick bites in cats?

A

cyauxzoon felis

297
Q

Cheyletiella
- dx
- tx
- who can it affect

A
  • acetate tape impression
  • lime sulfur dips or flea products
  • dogs, cat, rabbits, humans (zoonotic, highly contagious)
298
Q

Panleukopenia selectively damages rapidly dividing tissues such as _________ and _________:

A

GIT
BM

299
Q

Repeated propofol use has been shown to cause _________ in cats:

A

heinz body anemia

300
Q

What is the treatment of choice for non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis:

A

prednisolone because the cause is usually immune in origin

301
Q

treatment of HCM in cats is aimed at…

A

improving diastolic filling by decreasing HR

302
Q

what medications are used most commonly in HCM

A
  • To slow HR
    o Beta-blockers
    o Clacium channel blockers
  • For cases w/ severe LA enlargement or in heart failure:
    o ACEi
    o Diuretics
    o Proventing thromboembolic dz with aspirin or clopidogrel
303
Q

What are the classic lab findings for an Addisonian dog?

A
  • hyponatremia
  • hyperkalemia
  • azotemia
  • anemia
  • acidosis
  • hypoglycemia
  • low resting cortisol
  • lack of stress leukogram
304
Q

Acute cholangiohepatitis
1. signlament
2. c/s
3. blood work
4. histopath findings
5 tx

A
  1. younger cats, females>males
  2. depressed, dehydrated, febrile
  3. BW: Neutrophilia w/ or w/o Left shift, mild increased in bilirubin & ALP, severe elevations of ALT
  4. fibrosis assct’d w/ portal triads, bile duct proliferation, centrilobular accucumulation of bile w/ casts in canicular areas
    5.ambs (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin)
305
Q

what is familial shar-pei fever (FSF) characterized by

A

uni or bilateral tarsal swelling (joint intself not affected)

elevated body temp

306
Q

What treatment may be indicated in a patient with myasthenia gravis presenting with megaesophagus on x-rays?

A

pyridostigmine –> acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

307
Q

What drug should you use in a Doberman with increased BMBT prior to surgery?

A

desmopressin acetate

308
Q

mitral valve regurgitation causes volume overload of the ________

A

LA

309
Q

dogs with cushings can die of _________

A

pulmonary thromboembolism

310
Q

What are classic findings that you may find on a cushings dog (bloodwork/urinalysis)

A
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • elevated alkaline phosphatase ALKP
  • thrombocytosis
  • isosthenuria
311
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
- who is affected
- tx?
- radiographic findings?

A
  • young sm breed dogs prior to closure of capital femoral physis (usually 6-7m)
  • tx: FHNO
  • shortening of femoral neck & oCD with chronicity
312
Q

In an occult heartworm infection in a dog, what would the results of a Knotts test & heartworm antigen test most likely be?

A
  • Definition of occult HW infection  no microfilaria that are circulating
  • Knots negative  can occur when single sex infxn (female only), only immature adult worms are present, the immune system cleared the microfilariae, or animal is on tx that clears the microfilariae
  • Antigen test  sensitive & should be positive most of time
313
Q

What is the most common abnormality found on lab testing for hyperthyroidism in cats?

A
  • elevated liver enzymes
314
Q

When would you measure Type 2M antibody titres?

A

if you suspected masticatory myositis

315
Q

What is the primary organ affected in cats with heartworm?

A

lungs

316
Q

Treatment of choice in dogs with Dipylidium caninum infection?

A

praziquantel

317
Q

Radiographic signs suggestive of megaesophagus:

A
  1. gas-filled esophagus
  2. fluid or food-distended esophagus
  3. tracheal stripe sign
318
Q

What disease in cats is associated with Left Ventricular Hypertrophy?

A

HyperT4

319
Q

What is the most common cause of EPI in cats?

A

chronic pancreatitis

320
Q

what is hte most common of EPI in dogs

A

pancreatic acinar atrophy

321
Q

What is the most common cause for primary hyperparathyroidism in dogs?

A

adenoma of the parathyroid glands

322
Q

Approximately what percentage of renal function must be lost before a dog is unable to adequately concentrate urine? What about a cat

A

dogs - 65%
cats 75%

323
Q

Approximately what percentage of renal function must be lost for azotemia to develop in dogs?

A

75%

324
Q

A cat with rhabdomyosarcoma has a tumor of what cell type?

A

striated (skeletal) muscle

325
Q
A

NAVLE (13 decks)

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