Small animal Flashcards
1
Q
what is the pathognomonic finding with portosystemic shunts in cats?
A
copper colored iris bilaterally
2
Q
describe the effusion that would be classical/suspicious of FIP?
A
straw or gold colored, sticky, viscous
high protein (globulin count), moderate cell count
3
Q
what is the classical lesion associated with FIP that results in pleural and peritoneal effusion?
A
pyogranulomatous vasculitis (due to antigen antibody complexes depositing into the venular endothelium)
4
Q
Mammary tumors in cats:
1) what percentage are malignant
2) what percentage metastasize
3) what is the recommended surgical procedure?
A
1) almost always
2) 90%
3) unilateral chain masectomy
5
Q
Mammary tumors in dogs:
1) what percentage are malignant
2) what percentage metastasize
3) where should you screen for mets?
A
1) 50%
2) 50%
3) chest
6
Q
Cryptococcus transmission
A
pigeon droppings & eucalyptus trees –> inhaled spores from where these are present
7
Q
treatment of cryptococcus infection in cats
A
amphotericin B
8
Q
monitoring of cryptococcus infection treatment in cats
A
monitor w/ latex agglutination antigen test to evaluate response to treatment
9
Q
classical lesions of cryptococcus infection in cats
A
swelling over bridge of nose & lesions of retinas
10
Q
blastomycosis common clinical signs
A
depression, anorexia, weightloss, fever, lymphadenopathy, harsh lung sounds, draining skin lesions, chorioretinitis, uveitis, cough
11
Q
what would you see on chest radiographs for blastomycosis infection?
A
Bronchointerstitial “snowstorm” pattern of pneumonia (hilar areas)
12
Q
what are the 5 commonly affected organs when infected with blastomycosis?
A
- skin
- bones
- eyes
- lymphatics
- lungs
13
Q
treatment of blastomycosis
A
if not severely ill –> itraconazole for 60d +/- NSAIDs
if severely ill –> amphotericin B
14
Q
why are corticosteroids contraindicated in treatment of blastomycosis
A
causes further immunosuppression
15
Q
how can toxoplasmosis be transmitted?
A
ingestion of raw meat
16
Q
Sporothrix is a fungi found in the soil, how can it be transmitted/introduced into the body?:
A
via a puncture from a thorn or through an open wound or cut when exposed to contaminated soil
17
Q
Fanconi syndrome:
1) what is it
2) predisposed breed
3) what bloodwork changes
4) clinical signs?
A
- abnormal function of the renal tubules (proximal tubular disease)
- Basenjis
- hyponatremia, hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperchloremia, low blood glucose
- PU/PD, decreased appetite, weight loss despite polyphagia, poor body condition, lethargy, abnormal bone development in young dogs
18
Q
what percentage of otherwise healthy cats under the age of 10 with LUT signs have primary bacterial uti?
A
<2%
19
Q
what is the most common bladder cancer seen in cats
A
Transitional cell carcinoma
20
Q
what is the side effect of diazepam in cats
A
acute fulminant necrosis
21
Q
what are some appetite stimulants?
A
- Diazepam cats
- Cyproheptadine cats
- Mirtazapine
- Capromorelin
- Megestrol acetate dogs
- Predniso(lo)ne
22
Q
what three things can cause LV concentric hypertrophy?
A
- systemic hypertension
- hyperthyroidism
- HCM
23
Q
Pulmonic stenosis
A
congenital defect, sm breed dogs
pressure overload of RIGHT heart
characterized by systolic murmur, best heard over LEFT base
concentric hypertrophy of RV (due to pressure overload)
enlarged pulmonary artery
treatment: balloon valvuloplasty
24
Q
aortic stenosis
A
predisposed breed = boxers
murmur heard best over LEFT base
concentric hypertrophy of LEFT heart (enlarged LV, LA, Ascending aorta)
+/- syncope
treatment: beta blockers (atenolol) –> reduces myocardial oxygen demand
25
animals with aortic stenosis are at higher risk for...
infective endocarditis
26
what is the treatment of aortic stenosis
beta blockers (atenolol) - reduces myocardial oxygen demand
27
Tricuspid dysplasia
1. predisposed breeds
2. clinical signs
3. key findings
4. prognosis
1. labs, GS, large breed males
2. consistent w/ right heart failure (ascites, hepatomegaly)
3. enlarged right heart, murmur on RIGHT side
4. poor
28
why are furosemide and atenolol contraindicated treatments in pericardial effusion?
furosemide --> decreases preload and makes diastolic filling worsen
atenolol --> decreases contractility
29
what parts of the heart are most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in the dog vs in large animals
dogs --> mitral/aortic valves
large animals --> tricuspid and pulmonary valves
30
why are pacemakers not helpful in DCM cases?
its a problem with contractility not rhythm
31
what medications can be used to treat DCM
betablocker, diuretic, acei (enalapril), pimobendane, +/- spironolocatane
32
what are possible clinical signs of right sided heart failure?
- tachypnea
- hepatomegaly
- exercise intolerance
- muscle wasting
- lethargy, weakness, venous distension, ascites, peripheral edema
33
what can taurine deficiency in cats cause?
retinal degeneration
DCM
34
what are common concurrnet diseases in cats with DKA
- Hyperthyrodisim
- cardiac disease
- pancreatitis
- bacterial infections
35
what are common concurrent diseases in dogs with DKA
hyperadrenocorticism
bacterial infections
pancreatitis
36
what is the screening test of choice in cats for hyperthyroidism
TT4 (increased)
37
what other tests may help diagnose hyperthyrodisim in cats
increased fT4
increased ALP, AST, ALT
erythrocytosis
hypertension
38
what is the treatment of choice in cats with hyperthyroidism, what is a major SE of this treatment
methimazole - facial excoriations
39
what are the common clinical signs in cats with hyperthyrodisim
- weight loss with polyphagia
- thyroid nodule/slip
- hyperactivity
- vomiting
- tachycardia
40
what is the causitive agent of rabbit fever aka Tularemia
Francisella tularenesis
41
what are clinical signs of rabbit fever in cats?
depression, fever, anorexia
general lymphadenopathy
oral ulceration
42
what are the three forms of disease in humans that rabbit fever (Tularemia) can cause?
1. ulceroglandular
2. pneumonic
3. typhoidal
43
When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?:
ileocolic artery
44
list the structures that the blood vessels are associated with:
1. left colic artery
2. pudendal artery
3. iliocecal/colic artery
4. caudal mesentery artery
1. feeds descending colon
2. supplies external genitalia
3. supplies ascending and transverse colon
4. supplies rectum and descending colon
45
Tritochomonas foetus is a flagellated parasite that is most commonly found in kittens with unresponsive diarrhea, how is it treated?
ronidazole
46
Feline mammary hyperplasia:
1. benign vs malignant
2. signalment
3. cause
4. tx
1. benign
2. younger cats (preg and non-preg, unspayed females), rapid onset
3. hormonal stimulation from a functional ovary producing PROGESTERONE
4. OVH
47
what drug can cause feline mammary hyperplasia
megestrol acetate
48
what is the test of choice for heart worm in cats vs dogs, what are the limitations?
cats --> antibody HW test (indicates exposure, not necessarily infxn)
dog --> antigen HW test (detects antigens from adult female worms only)
49
what is the treatment of choice in dogs with HW
melarosamine
50
what are the 5 types of round cell tumors?
1. mast cell
2. lymphoma
3. histiocytoma
4. plasma cell
5. transmissible venereal tumor
51
what are classical findings associated with chronic lymphocytic luekemia?
prominent LNs and spleen
52
what are the cons of phenothiazines (acepromazine)
no analgesia, hypotension, may decrease hematocrit due to splenic sequestrum of cells
53
what is the etiology and treatment of Salmon poisoning disease?
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
tetracycline
54
what is the treatment for carbon monoxide toxicity, why
100% oxygen --> reduces half life of carboxyhemoglobin comlexes from 4hours on room air to 30 mins
55
what drug can you use to evaluate laryngeal function (ie in suspected laryngeal paralysis case) and why is it used?
Doxopram --> central nervous stimulant that has effects on the resp centers and works by stimulating the reflex activation of carotid and aortic receptors
56
what is the bacterium causes cat scratch disease and how is it transmitted to humans
Bartonella henslae
infects owner via bacteria from flea feces when cat bites/scratches owner
57
what are 5 non-absorbable sutures?
1. nylon (ethlion)
2. polyproplene (prolene)
3. silk
4. polybuster (novafil)
5. polymerize caprolactum (vitafil)
58
what 2 groups of medical management can be employed in a pyometra case that is not willing to undergo surgery?
1. prostaglandins (prostaglandin F2 alpha)
2. dopamine agonist (cabergoline, bromocripitine)
59
what test asses hepatic function?
pre and post-pranadial bile acid test (high = decrease in hepatic function)
60
does AST reflect liver function?
No its a hepatocellular leakage enzyme not specific to the liver (also in cardiac and skeletal muscles and erythrocytes)
61
does ALT reflect liver function
no its a liver specific leakage enzyme but is not indicative of function
62
what is the test of choice for EPI
TLI
63
why can you not use a type 2 external fixator in a femoral fracture repair in the dog? what can be used instead?
because the medial aspect of the femur cannot be approached due to being directly adjacent to the trunk of the dog.
Use type 1, intramedullary pin w/ cerclage wires or a bone plate instead.
64
pheocromocytomas are a tumor of what?
adrenal medulla (inner part of adrenal gland and consists of chromaffin cells which are responsible for making catecholamines - epinephrine and NE)
65
what lab values indicate insulinoma?
normal-high serum insulin levels (lose control of insulin secretion)
low BG levels
66
Trichuris vulpis:
- what kind of parasite
- what part of body does it commonly inhabit
- clinical signs
- treatment
- canine whipworm
- cecum
- diarrhea, hematochezia, weight loss
- fenbendazole
67
Extraocular polymyositis:
1. whos affected
2. what causes it
3. clinical signs
4. treatment
1. YOUNG golden retrievers
2. autoimmune reaction against muscle antigens
3. BILATERAL, non-painful, no systemic signs
4. treatment: prednisone +/- azathioprine
68
what is the mean circulating lifespan of a neutrophil in:
1. dog
2. cow
3. horse
1. 5-9 hr
2. 16hr
3. 10-11hr
69
Tetraology of fallot is a congenital heart disease characterized by 5 things, what are they?
1. pulmonic stenosis
2. dextropositioning of the aorta (over riding)
3. RV hypertrophy
4. VSD
5. shunting of venous blood across the VSD into arterial circulation ultimately causing polycythemia
70
describe a typical animal affected with Tertalogy of Fallot
- under developed in size
- hx of exercie intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea, syncope due to hypoxemia
71
what would you expect to see on thoracic radiographs of an animal affected with Tetralogy of Fallot?
normal to mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette with RV enlargement and pulmonary hypoperfusion
72
what drugs can be used for the treatment of Afib?
1. atenolol (betablocker) --> slows AV nodal conduction to decrease ventricular response rate
2. procainamide (Class 1A anti-arrhythmic)
3. diltiazem (calcium channel blocker) - slows av node conduction and ventricular reponse rate
4. digoxin - Increases vagal tone to AV node tos low conduction and decrease HR
73
why should you NOT use Doxycyline in young growning animals
1. delayed bone growth
2. discolouration of teeth
74
what are the specific ocular manigestations associated iwth feline herpes virus
1. corneal ulcers
2. eosinophilic keratitis
3. conjunctivitis
4. corneal sequestrum
75
what test should you perform for FeLV?
ELISA, if positive then submit IFA (if positive= truly positive)
76
Isosopora:
- type of parasite
- clinical signs
- treatment
- coccidia
- diarrhea
- sulfonamides
77
Primary hyperparathyrodism:
1. classic signs
2. bloodwork findings
3. most common cause in dogs
1. PU/PD
2. azotemia mild, high total & ionized clacium, low phosphorous
3. adenoma of parathyroid glands
78
at what age in cats can fetal skeletons be visible on xray
36-42d
79
at what age stage ind ogs can fetal skeletons be viisble on xray
42 days
80
what is the only infectious cause in cats that can cause corneal ulcers
herpes virus (dendritic/linear ulcers)
81
when performing an enterotomy in a dog its best to cut on what border?
antimesenteric
82
what drug is used to treat central diabetes inspidius
DDAVP (desmopressin = synthetic ADH)
83
what skin lesions do patients with sertoli cell tumors develop
males may have bilateral alopecia w/ occasional pruriptius and papular eruptions, hyperpigmentation
84
does central diabetes inspidius cause derm lesions?
noh
85
what view should be taken to assess suspected intrathoracic tracheal collapse?
end expiratory view (intrathroacic pressure is highest at end expiration and may worsen the intrathoracic airway collapse)
- end inspiration view is the standard view of a thoracic series
86
what is collie eye anomaly characterized by
choroidal hypoplasia
87
what would you see on fundic exam with collie eye anomaly
varying degrees of visual dysfunction with signs of bizarre choroidal vessels
88
Persistent right aortic arch:
- what is it
- who gets it and how
- clinical signs
- treatment
- vascular ring anomaly
- inherited defect predisposed in GS and irish setters that causes constricting obstruction of the esophagus @ the level of the base of the heart
- regurg (usually manifests as a puppy when its weaned off of milk onto solids)
- transect ligamentum arteriosum
89
what drug is used to treat nephrogenic diabetes inspidius, how does it work?
Hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide diruetic that reduces urine output)
90
In what direction do most coxofemoral luxations in the dog occur?
80% occur in the craniodosrsal direction
91
there are several congenital conditions that can occur and cause elbow dysplasia, what are they and which is the most common
1. fragmented medial coronoid process (most common)
2. OCD of humoral head
3. elbow incongruency
4. ununited anconeal process
92
what are the 4 eye problems that Cocker Spaniels are predisposed to developing?
1. cataracts
2. distichiasis
3. retinal abnormalities
4. primary glaucoma
93
which way does the stomach rotate in GDVs
counter clockwise when viewed from cranial to caudal in dorsal recumbency
clockwise when viewed caudal to cranial
94
what radiograph should be taken for GDVs
right lateral abdomen
95
what can occur with high doses of xylitol toxicity ?
acute hepatic necrosis & failure
(causes rapid release of insulin!!!)
96
what are treatment options in the case of xylitol toxicity?
1. IV dextrose
2. IV fluids and electrolytes
3. anti nausea
4. gi protectants
97
increasing __________ deliver to the brain, decreaes ICP
oxygen
98
what is Acanthosis nigricans and what breed is predisposed?
genetic dermatosis characterized by hyperpigmentation of the axillary and groin regions which can spread to other parts of the body and may cause secondary infections (bacterial, yeast, seborrhea).
Daschunds are predisposed.
tx symptomatic (not cureable)
99
what aer the shock bolus doses of isotonic crystalloids vs synthetic colloids in a dog
isotonic crystalloids - 90ml/kg
synthetic colloids - 10-20ml/kg
100
what aer the shock bolus doses of isotonic crystalloids vs synthetic colloids in a cat
isotonic crystalloids - 40-60ml/kg
cats - 5-10ml/kg
101
Why would you want to start aggressive IVF therapy & check a chem panel in a suspected Addisonian dog that presents with bloody diarrhea, inappetence, and is dehydrated?
addisonian patients often present in hypovolemic shock --> the first step to treating them is to restore the vascular volume w/ IVF and run a chem panel to look at the extent of their electrolyte abnormalities (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, elevated BUN)
102
do hypothyroid dogs have a voracious appetite?
no --> weight gain w/ lack of appetite is due to slower metabolism
103
what endocrine disorder is most commonly associated with thinning and fragility of the skin?
cushings
104
calcinosis cutis is a clinical sign of what endocrine disorder?
cushingsh
105
what skin abnormalities may be noted with hypothyroid dogs?
hyperpigmentation, seborrhea, alopecia, pyoderma
106
VPCs
- what do they look like
- treatment?
- wide and bizarre QRS
- treatment with class 1 antiarrythmic (mexiletine or lidocaine)
107
How would you evaluate whether or not the mandibular branch of cranial nerve V is functionally intact in a dog?
look for symmetry and tone of mucsles of mastication
108
what is the treatment of a hip luxation?
if otherwise healthy joint capsule area --> toggle pin fixation
if severe OA present (chronicity) --> total hip replacement of FHO
109
Pannus:
- what is it
- who gets it
- what causes it
- clinical signs
- treatment
- chronic superficial keratitis
- large breed dogs
- multifactorla (UV light, immune mediated, genetics)
- chronic, progressive, bilateral; starts laterally; vascularization, granulation, pigmentation
- control, not cure --> topical steroids (pred acetate or dexamethasone); adjunctive tehrapy (topcial cyclosporine A)
110
Emphysematous cystitis
- what causes it
- what are typical underlying diseases
- tx
- presence of gas forming bacteria
- cushings, DM, Chronic UTIs, bladder stones
- tx underlying dz and cystitis will typically resolve with amb therapy
111
what is hypertrophic osteopathy? clinical signs? causes?tx?
- periosteal prolifration in DIAPHYSIS of affected bone (usually metacarpal/tarsal first)
- pain, swelling, lameness
- primary or metastatic pulmonary neoplasia
- anti-inflammatories
112
For a suspected iatrogenic cushings dog from high-dose prednisone administration, what would you expect on blood samples submitted for ACTH & cortisol levels?
low ACTH
high cortisol
113
splenic hemangiosarcoma is often associated with ______
DIC
114
a bunny hopping gait is most often seen in what type of orthopaedic abnormality
hip dysplasia
115
causes of anterior uveitis (broadly)
infectious, immune mediatd, traumatic, idiopathic
116
suggestive findings of anterior uveitis?
rubiosis iridis
aqueous flare
hyphema
hypopyon
keratitic precipitates
decreased IOP
117
What are 10 causes of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
1. electrocution
2. vasculitis
3. liver dz
4. seizures
5. toxins
6. dic
7. envenomation
8. dic
9. direct trauma
10 sepsis
118
dx of feline asthma is based on /what finding on lower airway cytology
increased eosinophils
119
what is a key clinical finding in a dog with parvoviral infection?
leukopenia
120
what are 5 treatment options for mites in cats?
1. milbemycin
2. ivermectin
3. selamectin
4. moxidectin
5. thiabendazole
121
what are the ECG findings associated with hyperkalemia?
- increased R-R interval
- widened QRS
- Lack of P waves
- tall tented t waves
122
By definition what is IBD?
lymphocytic plasmocytic enteritis
123
what is the main treatment for IBD
control underlying cause, control inflammation, control bacterial growth --> steroids (pred) & hypoallergenic diet = mainstays
124
what would be the pros and cons of metalclopramide use be in the tx of IBD
pro --> could potentially help vomiting from underlying IBD
con --> pro-motility could worsen diarrhea
125
what is the best way to confirm a susupicion of retinal detachment on ocular exam?
1. measure systolic BP
2. serum chem to assess renal values
3. thyroid horomones to assess hyperT4
126
What can be associated with low calcium on a chemistry panel but does not typically result in clinical signs of hypocalcemia in dogs? why
hypoproteinemia --> calcium measured on a chem panel is the protein-bound calcium which will appear low when the animals proteins are low
127
what form of calcium is considered the active form? what is the advantage of measuring this
ionized calcium
is not affected by the animal having low blood protein levels
128
what is the treatment of choice for a Taenia infection in dogs?
praziquantel
129
what structure is most often damaged in dogs with cranial cruciate ligament ruptures?
medial meniscus --> closely associated with medial collateral ligament w/ prevents meniscus from moving around within the joint when the femoral condyle compressses & slides against it
130
what are predisposing/inciting factors of Immune-mediated polyarthritis
1. systemic infxns (sle)
2. inflammatory, infectious, neoplastic
4. reactions to drugs or vaccines
131
what clinical signs may you see with IMPA?
weight loss
fever
lethargy
lymphadenopathy
joint effusion, gait abnormality
132
how do you diagnose IMPA?
Synovial fluid analysis --> thin, turbid, increased volume and higher amounts of protein & Cells (often primarily non-degen neutrophils)
133
what does normal synovial fluid consist of
<2.5g/dl protein
<3000 cells/ul
predom mononuclear cells
134
what is the treatment of IMPA
Immunosuppressive therapy
135
what is the current tx of choice vs historic tx for giardia
current: fenbendazole
historic: metronidazole
136
what do Sertoli cell tumors produce and what clinical signs do they cause in dogs?
- produce estrogen and other hormones
- causes feminization --> gynecomastia, sexual attraction of males, bilaterally symmetric alopecia
urinating in female position
bone marrow dyscrasias (apalstic anemia)
137
why should cats never be given acetaminophen
lack gluthione & glucoronyl transferase which causes it to be metabolized differently and accumulates toxins in cats which can cause methemoglobin and cell death in cats
138
Polycystic kidneys
- what causes it
- diagnosis
- treatment
- inherited disease (persians, himalayans, british short hairs)
- diagnosed via ultrasound
- tx: fluids, LOW PROTEIN diet, gastric protectants (famotidine), maropitant, appetite stimulants
139
what is the treatment for acute feline asthma
terbutaline (bronchodilator) & supplemental oxygen
140
what is the typical treatment (maintenance) for feline asthma
1. inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone) ---> reduce inflammation in airways
2. +/- bronchodilators
141
what feline virus is not passed by passive contact and sharing of a litter box
FIV --> shed in saliva and transmitted via biting (older outdoor males)
142
what feline viruses can be passed via contact and hsaring of a litter box
- feline herpes
- feline panleuk
- feline leukemia
- feline corona virus
143
which insulin is similar in composition ot feline insulin?
bovine
144
what is the surgical tx of choice for cats with chronic obstipation and megacolon that are refractory to medical therapy?
subtotal colectomy preserving the iliocolic junction
145
what are 5 medical treatment objections for cats with megacolon
1. adequate hydration
2. removal of impacted fece
3. laxative therapy
4. promotility agents for colon (cisapride)
5. dietary fiber
146
what is the most common reason for post-anesthetic cortical blindness in cats?
hypoxia due to poor perfusion during anesthesia
147
Cervical ventroflexion is general sign of weakness, what is the most common cause of this?
hypokalemia
148
by definition what is hypercalcemia
serum Tca = >12mg/dl
serum iCa = >1.4mmol/L
149
overall what should PTH do in regards to Ca and P
causes increase Ca & P mobilization from bone & promotes phosphate excretion & calcium retention by kidneys (overall should increase Ca, Decrease P)
150
what are c/s of hypercalcemia
PU/PD
Seizures
Muscle tremors
other non speicfic signs
151
what aer the differentials for hypercalcemia
GOSH DARN IT
G- Granulomatous dz, growing puppies
O- osteolytic dz (osteomyelitis, neoplasia)
S - spurious
H- hyperparathyroidism (primary)
D- drugs (thiazides, calcium containing phosphate binders)
A - addisons
R - renal failure
N- nutritional (hypervitaminosis D - drugs, cholecalciferol rodeniticide, poisonous plants, hypervitmaonisis , xs Ca)
I- idiopathic (cats)
T - tumor
152
what test for FIP has the highest positive predictive value?
Immunofluorescnce staining
153
what test for FIP has the highest negative predictive value?
Rivalta test
154
Type B blood type cats tend to have acute transfusion reactions, why?
have anti a bodies
155
what species is the DH of Toxoplasma gondi
cats
156
how are cats likely infected with Toxoplasma gondii?
eating raw meat or infected prey
157
diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondi?
elevated IgM titre shows active infection w/ organism
158
what are the most common C/S of Toxoplasma gondii?
lethargy, decreased appetite, fever
159
what is the tx for Toxoplasma gondii?
Clindamycin
160
where is the ideal incision site for a fB gastrotomy?
half way between the greater and lesser curvature of the stomach
161
transmissible venereal tumor in dogs is treated with _________
vincristine (90% cure rate)
161
what is the most common congenital heart defect in a dog?
PDA
161
what does PDA cause and who is it seen in?
YOUNG DOGS
causes enlarged LEFT heart (l-r shunting) and pulmonary vasculature
bounding pulses
162
a dog has rodenticide toxicity and it contained cholecaliferol, what should you be concerned about?
development of organ mineralization (esp kidneys)
tx: IVF, restricting dietary calcium
163
Brodifacoum toxicity
- how do animals usually acquire this toxin
- what does it cause
- tx
- vit K antagonist commonly in rodenticides
- ingestion causes hemorrhage several days after due to lack of prod'n of clotting factor
- tx: vit K1 admin for 4-6wks
164
deep pyoderma involves the tissues deeper than _______
epidermis
165
what abnormal heart sound are you least likely to be able to auscultate in a dog?
1st degree AV block
166
white cats with blue eyes are commonly born with what defect?
deafnes
167
what kind of diet should you recommend for a diabetic cat?
low carb
168
what kind of diet should you recommend for a diabetic dog:
high fiber
169
what two things on physical exam and ECG may support diagnosis of pericardial effusion
* Electrical alternans ECG finding where the height of the QRS complexes alternate due to the physical swinging of the heart as it contracts w/I the pericardial effusion
* Pulsus paradoxus exaggerated decrease in arterial pulse quality during inspiration caused by increased right-sided filling at the expense of reduced left ventricular filling because the heart is constrained by the pericardial effusion
170
what bloodwork finding is supportive of hepatic lipidosis in cats?
ALP elevation greater than GGT suggestive
171
what are 5 primary liver masses and their prognosis. what is the most common in cats
1. hepatomas
2. hepatocellular carcinoma (most common in dogs, 2nd most common in cats), prognosis 1400d if sx
3. bile duct adenomas - better prognosis
4. bile duct carcinomas - guarded
5. neuroendocrine tumors - rare, poor
172
atopic dermatitis is primarily mediated by...
IgE
173
what type of HS is atopic dermatitis
type 1
174
why do you want to feed patients with megaesophagus a high calorie diet?
allows less volume of food
175
what are some post op complications of thyroidectomy in cats?
1. laryngeal paralysis --> recurrent laryngeal nerve runs through neck and can be damaged
2. hypocalcemia --> dmg or excision of parathyroid glands
3. hypothyroidism --> secondary to removal of affected thyroid gland(s)
4. horners syndorme --> dmg of sympathetic trunk which runs through neck
176
what breathing pattern is the hallmark of feline asthma?
expiratory push
177
Cytauxzoon feli
- what is it
- typical clinical signs in cats, when do these occur?
- what cells does it affect
- what other organism do you have to differentiate it from, how, and why
- treatment
- prognosis
- tick borne disease that invades the reticulendothelial cells of lungs, spleen, liver, LN (
- often present with marked pyrexia, icterus or pallor, anemia (assct'd w/ heart murmur), thrombocytopenia (due to DIC) - usually occurs 1-3wks after infection
- differential = Mycoplasma haemofelis
-- diff tx (MH = doxycycline or enrofloxacin for 3wks)
-- C. feli = protozoal organism that is signet ring shape w/ prominent monocuclear area
-- MH = bacterial parasite that can appear as cocci, rods, or rings
- no tx
-poor-grave prognosis
178
characteristic findings of IMHA
- Spherocytes
- agglutination
- positive coombs
- +/- regen anemia
179
treatment of IMHA
- immunosuppression (azathioprine or cyclosporine)
- transfusions ( whole blood, packed RBC, oxyglobin)
180
characterstic findings of heinz body anemia
- spherocytes
- agglutination
- positive coombs
- +/- regen aneia
181
characteristic finding seen with renal carcinomas
polycycthemia
182
characteristic finding seen with anal sac adenocarcinomas
hypercalcemia
183
characteristic finding seen with lymphomas
hypercalcemia
184
characteristic finding seen with hemangiosarcomas
thrombocytopathy
185
characteristic finding seen with multiple myeloma
thrombocytopathy
186
characteristic finding seen with sertoli cell tumor
hyperestrogenism
187
characteristic finding seen with functional adrenal or pituitary tumors
hyperadrenocorticism
188
what are the hookworms in dogs/cats? what do they cause in dogs vs humans?
Ancylostoma caninum, Ucinaria stenocephala
dogs --> anemia
humans --> cutaneous larval migrans
189
what is the treatment for hookworms?
pyrantel
190
what are 4 key clinical signs of diabetes mellitus
1. PU
2. PD
3. Polyphagia
4. Weightloss
191
tx of transitional cell carcinoma at the trigone of the bladder
piroxocam & carboplatin chemotherapy
192
what chemotherapy drug causes fatal pulmonary edema in cats?
cisplatin
193
why is 5-fluorourcil (chemo drug) contraindicated for use in cats
neurotoxic
194
what is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in felines? how is it treated?
- Chlaymdophilia felis
- topical tetracycline
195
what is the treatment for pyrethrin toxicity in cats?
bathe
methocarbamol (robaxin) - control of marked tremors or seizures
196
what are the key features of diabetic ketoacidosis
metabolic acidosis
electrolyte disturbances
hyperosmolarity
197
what is required for a definitive diagnosis of hepatocutaneous syndrome?
skin biopsies
198
what is the most common cause of cataracts in cats?
anterior uveitis
199
where in the bone is the most common site for primary osteosarcoma
metaphysis
200
where in the bone is the most common site for metastatic bone tumors
diaphysis
201
what does zinc toxicity cause
hemolysis
202
paint chips can cause type of toxicity ? what is the treatment?
lead
Ca-EDTA (chelator)
203
what does the definitive diagnosis of multiple myeloma
requires at least 2 of the following criteria
1. monoclonal gammopathy
2. radiographic evidence osteolytic bone lesions
3. >5% neoplastic cells or >10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow
4. immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria
204
pan osteitis
1. what is it
2. who is affected
3. what causes it
4. radiographic changes
5. treatment
1. self-limiting PAINFUL condition chara terized by limping and lameness
2. LONG bones of young dogs (med-lrg brd) <2yr
3. etx unknown
4. focal intramedullary densitiies within diaphysis (mottled)
5. tx: limit activity, anti-inflammatories
205
what is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in dogs
systemmic hypoxia
206
what is the definitive diagnosis for parvo
examination of blood or tissue by IFA
207
What is the treatment of choice for perianal fistulas
immunosuppressive therapy
208
what are the most common serovars now thought to play a role in canine leptospirosis?
Grippotyphosa
Phomoa
Bratsilava
209
familial dermatomyositis
1. who gets it
2. inciting causes
3. treatment
4. diagnosis
1. collies, shetland sheep dogs
2. vx, sunlight, viral infxn, drugs, no obvious cause
3. symptomatic & supportive
4. skin or muscle biopsies (difficult bc wax/wanes)
210
what test is used to monitor the efficacy of treatment in a cushings patient?
ACTH stim
211
a positive ortolani sign occurs in affected dogs when manipulting which bone
femur
212
where is cardiac hemangiosarcoma most commonly found on the heart?
RA
213
lymphoma of the eye commonly causes changes to the _______ or the _________ but rarely the ________-
uvea and retina
rarely the cornea
214
what are 2 things suggestive of pyelonephritis
bacteria or WBC CASTS in the urine
215
what is the best measure of liver function in the dog on a routine chem panel
BUN -- urea is produced by the liver and will be low in cases of liver failure
cholesterol, glucose, bilirubin, albumin
216
what is idiopathic epilepsy typically described as?
generalized TONIC-CLONIC seizures between 1-5 years of age
217
dobermans are predisposed to _______ when using trimethroprim sulfas
HS reactions
218
Strychnine toxicity
- what is it in
- clinical signs
- what does it affect
- treatment
- snail baits and other poisons
- begin suddenly and progress from anxiety to tetatnic convulsion spontaneously or in response to stimulation
- affects all striated muscle
- methocarbamol (symptomatic not antidote)
219
what drug causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis in dogs
cyclophosphamide
220
why is atropine contraindicated in cats with chronic feline bronchial disease (asthma)
thickens bronchial secretions and encourages mucous plugging of the airway
221
what does doxorubicin cause in cats
Renal toxicity
222
what is a common complication following anysurgery involiving the pancreas
post-op hypoglycemia
223
what drug is the tx of choice for cats with hypertension
amlopidine (CCB)
224
what drug can be used in conjugation with diuretics to treat protein-losing nephropathy
enalapril
225
what is the treatment of choice for calicivirus
clindamycin and sucrulfate
226
what are four main drugs used to terat life-threatening hyperkalemia in emergencies such as urethral obstructions?
sodium bicarb
dextrose
insulin
227
what drug is used as a premed in cats prior to anesthesia to help decrease salivary secretions
atropine
228
a cat presenting with a plantigrade stance with hocks dropped low to the groound is most often associated with. a ___________
diabetic neuropathy
229
what is the most common skin tumor in cats and what is a typical presentation of it?
basal cell tumor
- hairless, dome shaped, raised mass that is frequently on head, neck, and shoulders
lamost always benign but histologically aggressive
230
what is the best way to diagnose most fluke eggs
fecal sedimentation
231
what is the feline lungworm and how do you treat it?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
tx: ivermectin and fenbendazole
232
Hypothyroidism:
1. signalment
2. C/S
3. Dx
4. tx
1. older dogs
2. weight gain, obesity, alopecia (bilat sym over lateral trunk, tail, ventral thorax, pyoderma, hyperigmentation, seborrhea)
3. low TT4, increased TSH, low fT4
4: levothyroxine
233
Hypoadrenocorticism
1. signalment
2. predisposed breeds
middle aged female dogs
poodles, GS, rotties, WHWT, wheaton terriers, portugese water dog
234
Hypoadrenocorticism
1. clinical signs
- PU/PD
- hyperkalemia, hyponatremia (Na: K <27)
- low USG
- Lack of stress leukogram
- bradycardia w/ ECG consistent with hyperkalemia
- GI blood loss (low albumin)
- increased BUN (gi bleeding
235
hypoadrenocorticism
1) diagnostic test
2) monitoring test
1. ACTH stim
2. Na + K lvls
236
hypoadrenocorticism
1. tx
life long coticosteroid (pred) + lifelong mineralocortiocids (flucortisone or DOCP)
237
Hyperadrenocortisim
1. signalment
2. most common type
1. dogs
2. PDH
238
Hyperadrenocorticism
1. c/s
- pu/pd
- panting
- polyphagia
- pendulous abdomen
- pyoderma, thin skin, pigmentation, symmetrical alopecia
239
hyperadrenocorticism
1. dx
- stress leukogram
- elevated ALP
- hyposthenuria (<1.010)
- LDDST
- HDDST
240
Hyperadrenocorticism
1. what is the monitoring test
ACTH stim
241
Hyperadrenocorticism
1. treatment?
1. Mitotane (opddd) or trilostane
2. adrenlectomy (ADH)
242
what are the skin abnormalities for hypthyrodism in dogs
bilateral symetrical alopecia over lateral trunk, tail, ventral thorax
pyoderma, hyperpigmentation, seborrhea
243
what are the skin abnormlaities for hyperadrenocoticism
pyoderma, thin skin
hyperpigmentation, symmetrical alopecia
calcinosis cutis
244
Canine Parvovirus
1. etiology
canine parvovirus 2
- attacks SI crypt cells, lyphopietic tissue, BM
can shed for 2-3 weeks
245
Canine Parvovirus
1. signalment
puppies <8m, unvx'd adults
246
canine parvovirus
1. clinical signs
- vomiting
- hemorrhagic diarrhea
- lethargy
- inappetance
247
Canine Parvovirus
1. dx
- IFA of blood or tissue = definitive
248
Canine Parvovirus
- what are the downsides of the fecal ELISA for diagnosis
false + 5-15d post vx
false neg if test too early in dz process
249
Canine Parvovirus
- what is a typical CBC finding
leukpenia, neutropenia
250
Canine Parvovirus
- tx
BSamb (ampicillin or cephalosoporin)
anti-nausea
DW
nutritional support
251
Canine Distemper Virus:
- etiology
paraxymovirus that infects resp, GIT, urogenital epithelium, CNS, optic nerves when associated with viremia
252
Canine Distemper Virus:
- signlament
puppies <4m unvx;d adults
253
Canine Distemper Virus:
- c/s
- fever
- ocular and nasal discharge
- lethargy, anorexia
- CNS --> localized involuntary muscle twitching, seizures, chewing of jaw
- GI + resp signs
254
Canine Distemper Virus:
- dx
- RT-PCR & antibody detection ELISA
255
Canine Distemper Virus:
- possible sequelae
hyperkeratosis of nasal planum & foot pads
enamel hyperplasia
256
Feline Leukemia Virus
1. type of virus
retrovirus
257
Feline Leukemia Virus
1. transmission
saliva, nasal secretions, urine, milk, feces
258
Feline Leukemia Virus
- signalment
kitten or young adult, free-roaming, males>>
259
Feline Leukemia Virus
- clinical signs
- ADR +/- abdominal or thoracic mass
260
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- type of virus and transmission
- lentivirus
- saliva(bites)
261
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- what cells does the virus infect
- cytotoxic t cells
- t helper cells
- b cells
- macrophages
262
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- signlament
intact outdoor males
263
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- clinical signs
gingivitis
stomatitis
ADR, fever, anorexia, lethargy
264
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
-Dx
CBC --> anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
sreening --> serum ELISA
- conrifmation - western blot
265
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
- prognosis
good-excellent
266
FIP:
- clinical signs
- waxingwaning fever, lethargy, anorexia, weight loss
- asymmetrical kidneys
- plapable abdominal fluid wave
- anterior uveitis +/- neuro signs
- dry form (granulomatous) --> effusion
- wet form --> effusions and microgranulomas
267
FIP
- gold standard dx
- biopsy w/ IHC
268
FIP
- what would the changes on chemistry panels in regards to preoteins look like
hypoalbuminemia
hyperglobuliminemia
(ratio <0.6)
269
Feline rhinotracheitis
- etiology and transmission
- herpes virus 1
- direct or indirect, fecal
270
Feline rhinotracheitis
- ocular manifestations?
- corneal sequestrum
- corneal ulcers (dendritic)
- conjunctivitis
- eosinophilic keratitis
271
Feline rhinotracheitis
- c/s
- chemosis
- ocular, dendritic ulcers +/- oral uclers
- systemic dz
272
Feline calicivirus
- c/s
- chhemosis
- systemis dz
- oral ulcers
273
Feline calicivirus
- tx
- clinadmicyin, liquid doxycyline, or amox/clav
- sucrulfate
274
Feline Chlamydiosis
- etiology
Chlamydophilia felis
275
Feline Chlamydisosis
- clinical signs
- chemosis
- conjunctivitis
- NO SYSTEMIC DZ
276
Feline chlamydisosi
- dx
fluorescent antibody test (incluusion bodies on conjunctival scrapings)
277
Feline chlamydisosis
-tx
topical tetracycline
278
What is the most common biochem finding for cats exhibiting cervical ventroflexion?
low potassium (hypokalemia)
279
Describe the 3 seperate clinical syndromes of feline eosinophilic granuloma complex?
1. collangeolytic granuloma (eosinophilic/linear granuloma) --> nose, chin, oral cavity, caudal thighs. Raised, ulcerative or nodular lesions
2. Eosinophilic plaque --> abdomen & medial thighs most common. Single or multiple raised red ulcerated lesions varying in size (pruiritic, cobble stone appearance)
3. eosinophilic ulcer (indolent ulcer) --> upper liip (uni or bilat), characteristic central area of yellow-pink tissue w/ slightly raised circumferential edge
280
Iris atrophy is a normal aging change seen in almost all dogs over 10 years old, what are common things seen with this?
- absent or incomplete PLRs
- dyscoria
- anisocoria
281
Pradofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone that can be used in cats but should not be used in dogs because it can cause __________
- bm suppression
282
rodenticiity toxicity would cause ______ (in terms of BW)
- elevated clotting times
283
Canine thrombopathia
1. what is it
2. what does it cause
- autosomal recessive trait seen in basset hounds
- platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli
- affected animals are at increased risk for bleeding spontaneously & an injury or surgical procedure could cause xs hemorrhage.
platelet numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition
284
Possible tx's for glaucoma in dogs
1. IV mannitol (decreases IOP osmotically)
2. topical dorsolamide (Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) --> decreases aqeuous production
3. Topical latanoprost (prostaglandin analog) --> increases outflow of aqueous humor in eye to decrease IOP
285
Tx for chronic KCS
topical cyclosporine & topical steroid
286
what does a minor cross match involve
- donor plasma
- recipient RBC
287
what does a major cross match involve
- donor RBC
- recipient plasma
288
When performing a perineal urethrostomy which nerve must you preserve?
- pudendal nerve (severing = urinary incontinence)
289
what is the least effective repair method for a femoral fx and why
intramedullary pin --> strongest in bending but does not provide enoguh stability by themselves
290
what enzyme remains unchanged/normal in hepatic lipidosis
GGT
291
what enzymes would be elvated in cholangiohepatitis
GGT
ALP
292
What are Howell jolly bodies and what is their significance
- sm spherical nuclear remnants that are left behind when the nucleus of a RBC is expelled during maturation
- found in low numbers in normal horses and cats
- can be increased in animals recieving glucocorticoids or chemotherapy agents
293
ingestion of what 3 things may cause heinz body anemia
1. acetominophen
2. onions
3. garlic
294
what can pneumothorax be secondary to
- trauma
- neoplasia
- infection
- ruptured bullae
295
How do dogs and cats get Yersinia pestis and what is the prognosis
- ingestion of rodent or via bite from preys flea
- poor vectors of plague so usually recover
296
What is an organism that is associated with transfer after tick bites in cats?
cyauxzoon felis
297
Cheyletiella
- dx
- tx
- who can it affect
- acetate tape impression
- lime sulfur dips or flea products
- dogs, cat, rabbits, humans (zoonotic, highly contagious)
298
Panleukopenia selectively damages rapidly dividing tissues such as _________ and _________:
GIT
BM
299
Repeated propofol use has been shown to cause _________ in cats:
heinz body anemia
300
What is the treatment of choice for non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis:
prednisolone because the cause is usually immune in origin
301
treatment of HCM in cats is aimed at...
improving diastolic filling by decreasing HR
302
what medications are used most commonly in HCM
* To slow HR
o Beta-blockers
o Clacium channel blockers
* For cases w/ severe LA enlargement or in heart failure:
o ACEi
o Diuretics
o Proventing thromboembolic dz with aspirin or clopidogrel
303
What are the classic lab findings for an Addisonian dog?
- hyponatremia
- hyperkalemia
- azotemia
- anemia
- acidosis
- hypoglycemia
- low resting cortisol
- lack of stress leukogram
304
Acute cholangiohepatitis
1. signlament
2. c/s
3. blood work
4. histopath findings
5 tx
1. younger cats, females>males
2. depressed, dehydrated, febrile
3. BW: Neutrophilia w/ or w/o Left shift, mild increased in bilirubin & ALP, severe elevations of ALT
4. fibrosis assct'd w/ portal triads, bile duct proliferation, centrilobular accucumulation of bile w/ casts in canicular areas
5.ambs (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin)
305
what is familial shar-pei fever (FSF) characterized by
uni or bilateral tarsal swelling (joint intself not affected)
elevated body temp
306
What treatment may be indicated in a patient with myasthenia gravis presenting with megaesophagus on x-rays?
pyridostigmine --> acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
307
What drug should you use in a Doberman with increased BMBT prior to surgery?
desmopressin acetate
308
mitral valve regurgitation causes volume overload of the ________
LA
309
dogs with cushings can die of _________
pulmonary thromboembolism
310
What are classic findings that you may find on a cushings dog (bloodwork/urinalysis)
- hypercholesterolemia
- elevated alkaline phosphatase ALKP
- thrombocytosis
- isosthenuria
311
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
- who is affected
- tx?
- radiographic findings?
- young sm breed dogs prior to closure of capital femoral physis (usually 6-7m)
- tx: FHNO
- shortening of femoral neck & oCD with chronicity
312
In an occult heartworm infection in a dog, what would the results of a Knotts test & heartworm antigen test most likely be?
* Definition of occult HW infection no microfilaria that are circulating
* Knots negative can occur when single sex infxn (female only), only immature adult worms are present, the immune system cleared the microfilariae, or animal is on tx that clears the microfilariae
* Antigen test sensitive & should be positive most of time
313
What is the most common abnormality found on lab testing for hyperthyroidism in cats?
- elevated liver enzymes
314
When would you measure Type 2M antibody titres?
if you suspected masticatory myositis
315
What is the primary organ affected in cats with heartworm?
lungs
316
Treatment of choice in dogs with Dipylidium caninum infection?
praziquantel
317
Radiographic signs suggestive of megaesophagus:
1. gas-filled esophagus
2. fluid or food-distended esophagus
3. tracheal stripe sign
318
What disease in cats is associated with Left Ventricular Hypertrophy?
HyperT4
319
What is the most common cause of EPI in cats?
chronic pancreatitis
320
what is hte most common of EPI in dogs
pancreatic acinar atrophy
321
What is the most common cause for primary hyperparathyroidism in dogs?
adenoma of the parathyroid glands
322
Approximately what percentage of renal function must be lost before a dog is unable to adequately concentrate urine? What about a cat
dogs - 65%
cats 75%
323
Approximately what percentage of renal function must be lost for azotemia to develop in dogs?
75%
324
A cat with rhabdomyosarcoma has a tumor of what cell type?
striated (skeletal) muscle
325
