Bovine 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A young calf with acute onset of watery diarrhea will likely be in a state of ___________, _____________ (A/B disturbance), with _____________

A

hypovolemia (acalves of this age with severe diarrhea develop this!)
metabolic acidosis
hyperkalemia (potassium leaves cells due to metabolic acidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Pulmonary Artery Pressure test that can be used to diagnose high mountain disease?

A

done at 600ft or above on animals 12 months of age, <40mmHg pressure means LEAST susceptible animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

High Mountain Disease

A

Pulmonary hypertension & cor pulmonale

caused by genetic predisposition to developing pulmonary hypertension when oxygen tension is reduced

hallmarks: lethargy, distended jugular vein, ventral edema

other predisposing factors: stress, cold, weather, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What test can be used on fluid to determine if it is in fact urine?

A

markedely elevated fluid creatitine levels or fluid to serum creatitine > 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are urea and potassium not reliable indicators to tell if a fluid sample is in fact urine or not?

A

they can freely diffuse back into the blood and lymph and this means they may only be slightly elevated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CSF changes with meningitis

A

increased protein and wbc’s which are mainly neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Listeriosis CSF changes

A

monocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Polioencephalomalacia CSF changes

A

Lower wbc (5-50) and protein (50ish)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CSF changes associated with salt poisoning

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Perilla mint

A

pneumotoxin (atypical pneumonia, mortality high, no good tx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ponderosa pine needles

A

Abortion last trimester, retained placentas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lupine

A

crooked calf syndrome (athrogryposis, malpositioning in the uterus, cleft palate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Night Shade

A

atropine containing plant causing CNS signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Water hemlock

A

grand mal seizures, salivation, tachypnea, tachycardia, birth defects, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prevention options for coccidiosis in young ruminants

A

Lascaloid, monensin, amprolium, decoquinate, diclazuril, toltrazuril daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leptospira interrograns servorar Hardjo

A

Cattle are carriers
causes reproductive problems (infertility and abortion) and poor milk yield
to rid a herd of it must use vaccination to prevent new carriers and treatment to eliminate existing carriers (tetraycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cyanide toxicity

A

blocks cellular respiration and blocks oxidative tranpsort

C/S within 10-15 minutes, bright red blood and MM, bitter almond smell

treatment options: sodium nitrate, sodium thiosulfate, methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Eimeria

A

coccidiosis

not zoontoic

infection via ingestion

fecal float to dx

treatment options: amprolium, monensin- & sulfa- containing drugs (sulfamethazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most food born illness in the states are caused by ____

A

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can cause teat leasions?

A

pseudocow pox

blue tongue virus

vesicular stomatitis

herpes mammilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pseudocow pox

A

parapox virus
proliferative teat and udder lesions
zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anaplasmosis

A

Anaplasmosis marginale

causes EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis (thus no hemoglobinuria)

pale, icteric, febrile

decreased milk production

new introduction adult

treatment: oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

for a gas filled rumen you will hear a boink sound extending to the ________ and for a LDA you will hear a ping heard to the ______

A

hip

last rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the best way to achieve the goal of maintaining a BVD free herd in the future

A

before purchase, test all heifer replacements for BVD virus using IHC on a skin biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Freemartinism
normal result of mixed-sex twins in cattle occurs due to shared circulation of chorionic blood vessels in utero, which allows antimullerian duct hormone & testosterone from male fetus to inhibit the development of the female tract resulting in a short vagina that ends blindly without communication to the uterus outcome usually results in heifer that is intersex, infertile with masculinized behaviour, non-functioning ovaries, and isgenetically XX/XY. the bull is phenotypically normal
26
persistent infection of a bovine fetus with BVD virus is most likely to occur when the non-immune dam is viremic with a non-cytopathic biotype of BVD at what stage of gestation
day 50-150 (or 40-120 depending on source)
27
a necropsy of an aborted fetus shows enlarged lymph nodes and spleen, destructive lesions to the thymus, and evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. What is the most likely cause of this abortion?
Epizootic bovine abortion (foot hills abortion)
28
Epizootic bovine abortion (foot hills abortion)
Aborted fetus lesions: enlarged LN & spleen, destructive lesions to thymus, evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. Etiological agent: Pajaroellobacter abortibovis (bacteria) vector: tick (ornithodoros coriaceus)
29
Oat toxicosis:
renal and GI signs (tannins dmg the mucosa) marked perineum and vulva edema hemorrgaic diarhea, renal tubular necrosis elevated RR, HR, normal recctal temps
30
classical finding of aspiration pneumonia
cranioventral lung disease
31
pneumothorax key finding
no audible lung sounds DORSALLY
32
what is the DCAD used to help rpevent hypocalcemia in the last 2-3 weeks prior to calving?
DCAD = (Na +K) - (Cl+S)
33
at what stage are placentomes palpable?
75-90d of gestation
34
at what stage of gestation are placentomes the size of a hlaf-dollar coin?
150 d
35
at what stage can you feel the fremitus uterine artery bilaterally
6-7m
36
difference in life cycle between Hypoderma lineatum & Hypoderma bovis?
L1 larvae of H. lineatum migrate to esophagus L1 larvae of H. bovis migrate to epidural fat of spinal cord
37
38
type 2 vagal indigestion
failure of omasal transport and appears as enlarged fluid filled rumen (most often associated iwth traumatic reticuloperitonitis)
38
most common pathogen causing fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia
Mannheimia hemolytica
39
Gossypol
cardiotoxin can kill calves <4m adults if fet at high levels it causes sterility in bulls and decreased conception rates in cows
39
what are the effects on chloride and acid-base balance when pyloric outflow is impeded in a ruminant?
decreased serum chloride (hypochloride) & mtabolic alkalosis - result of intestines not being able to re-absorb chloride back into the blood stream after it is secreated into the abomasum
39
what is a predisposing factor of actinomyces bovis
scabrous feeds
39
Moldy sweet clover
inhibits vit K & causes coagulopathy chemical involved: 4-ipopromeol treatment: whole blood transfusion
39
St. Johns wort
contains hypercin results in photosensitivity
39
tansy ragword
pyrrolizidine alkaloid causes liver disease
39
what dietary deficiencies result in neurological disorders?
- vit A --> encephalopathy (convulsions, blindness) - copper -->demyleniation & pathologic fractures of the vertebrae thiamine --> polioencephalmolacia
39
Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis
johnes disease 2-5 year old cattle voluinous diarrhea wasting thin
40
Groundsel
PA causes secondary photosensitization & liver failure
41
ragwort
PA causes liver dz and photosensitization
42
fiddleneck
PA
43
chokecherry
cyanide-containing plant
44
in paradoxic aciduria in cows, which ion is exchanged for sodium in the renal tubules?
hydrogen
45
in paradoxic aciduria what chem changes would you see
hypochloremia, alkalotic, hypokalmeia
46
what is a key feature if a cecal displacement or volvulus have occured
on rectal there will be a soft loaf of bread that you can get all the way around ping high in the right flank
47
signs of intussusception
colicky & scant dark red feces
48
what is the current recomendation for cows diagnosed with mycoplasma bovi smastitis
cull - very poor response to tx
49
Moniezia
tapeowrm found in young cattle life cycle involves oribatid mites (live in soil, ingested by host) non-pathogenic usually but may cause intestinal stasis tx: niclosamide
50
Salmonella dublin
causes septicemia in dairy calves 4-8 weeks of age Typical lesions: serosal & SC petechial hemorrhages & heavy wet red lungs collapse and sudden death transmission: carrier cows to neonates at birth or via their milk control measures: cull carriers and vaccinate calves
51
how does Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis manifest in cows?
sores & abscesses mostly on lateral thorax, neck, flank, head usually self resolving
52
Penile warts
young bulls, common bovine papilomma virus 1 can cause worts on teats and nose very contagious, spread by contamination of equipment or directly from bul to bul not associated with health problems surgically remove and sexual rest for 2-3 weeks
53
Key sign of coliform mastitis
serum like secretion with clots systemic signs of illness
54
key signs of truperella pyogenes mastitis
thick pus, cow not systemically ill
55
key signs with stap aureus mastitis
systemic signs or gangrenous mastitis
56
mycoplasma bovis treatment?
tulthromycin, enrofloxacin, gamithromycin
57
where would you hear a ping if a omasum and abomasum torsion had occured?
lower on the right and infront of last rib
58
cecal displacement or torsion finding
rectal - strucure that feels like a loaf of bred right sided ping heard from last rib to the pelvis high up
59
what toxin does E.coli O157:H7 produce?
Shiga-like toxin
60
clinical signs of cows infected with E.coli 0157:H7?
None
61
guidelines for infected joint?
total protein >4.5 g/dl total nucleated count >25,000/ul polymorphonuclear cell count >20,000/ul
62
what is the treatment for FPT?
1-2l bovine plasma (20-40ml/kg bw)
63
Metritis
usually occurs within 2 weeks of calving characterized by calves that are off-feed, depressed, decreased milk production fetid reddish-brown discharge may have failure to pass placenta
64
what are the risk factors associated with the development of metritis
retained fetal membranes, dystoica, stillbirth, twinning
65
Actions of PGF2-alpha in cow that has not been obsereved returning to estrus since calving?
lyse CL increase uterine motility evacuate uterus bring her into estrus
66
treatment of anaphylaxis
oxygen, epinephrine, antihistamine, dexamethasone
67
when is a chorioallantoic membrane slip first palpable in a heifer?
30-35 days
68
Features of tetralogy of fallot
Dextropositioned aorta right ventricular hypertrophy pulmonic valve stenosis ventricular septal defect
69
what kind of placenta does the cow have
epithelio-chorial placenta
70
nitrate toxicity treatment
methylene blue
71
signs of bovine pyometra
few if any overt signs
72
what is the most common supraventricular arrthythmia in cattle?
Atrial fibrillation - usually occurs as result of idgestive disturbances (associated with vagal tone, hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, calcium therapy) - on ECG no p waves and irregular WRS
73
What is a key sign of trichomoniasis in a cattle herd?
poor calving percentage but the cow and bull appear do not appear to be overally affected clinically
74
Sarcocystis cruzi
Ruminant is IH Dog is DH clinical signs are non specific (fever, anorexia, salivation, muscle fasiculations, weight loss). Diagnosis at necropsy (microscopic cysts in myocardium)
75
What does Mycoplasma bovis cause in very young dairy calves
otitis media with aural discharge, head tilt, nystagmus, ataxia, facial nerve paralysis
76
Mycoplasma bovis in older calves
resp disdease, tenosynovitis
77
synchronizing of cows with PGF2-alpha
2 injections 11-14d apart. this ensures thos that had immature unresponsive Cl during the first shot are synchronized on the second shot.
78
anaplasmosis is a _____--borne disease
tick
79
when should calves be vaccinated for clostridial diseases
4-6m of age with killed vaccine
80
why are post milking teat dips not effective for E.coli
its an environmental contaminant and not a contagious organism
81
electrolyte abnormalities expected in cases of uroabdome?
hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperphosphatemia would also see azotemia
82
phosphorous levels less than 2.0mg/dl will most likely result in ______
hemolysis
83
Fusobacterium necrophorum
gram negative obligate anerobic bacteria normal component of rumen microflora something causes spread of the organism which can go to the liver and release local toxins leading to damage and potential abscess formation typical lesions: yellow and spherical with irrugular outlines
84
Fasciola hepatica lesions
liver fluke of cattle can cause liver lesions but appear more as tracks and/or hemorrahges. typically animals will have abdominal pain or jaundice acutely, chronically become anemic
85
bracken fern
neurotoxic can result in bone marrow suppression with chronic ingestion can also cause tumors which manifest as hemorrhages, hematuria, and cancers int he bladder
86
what should you use to raise rumen Ph of a cow with rumen acidosis?
magnesium oxide (becomes MgOH in rumen)
87
clinical signs of CNX lesion
dysphagia, abnromal vocalizing, inspiratory dyspnea, megaesophagus
88
clinical signs of CN VII lesion
asymmetry of facial expression
89
clinical signs of CN V lesion
atrophy of masticatory muscles & inability to close mouth, loss of sensation of face
90
Clinical signs of CN III lesions
unable to move eye in horizontal and vertical planes
91