Equine Flashcards

1
Q

what is the test for EIA and what is it testing for.

A

Coggins test
antibdoy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are 2 cons of the coggins test

A
  1. in acute episodes often not adedquate production of antibody to detect by test
  2. in foals false positive can occur due to acquisition of antibody in colostrum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what neuromuscular condition results in involuntary exaggerated flexion/upward movement of the hindlimb that is usually bilateral? what is the tx?

A
  1. string halt
  2. lateral digital extensor tenectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what MSK issue causes the ability to simultaneously extend the hock and flex the stifle

A

ruptured peroneus tertius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the classical presentation for asacroiliac luxation/subluxation?

A

short strided gait (non specific), raised coup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

classical presentation for upward fixation of the patella?

A

hind limb rigid in extension that is unable to flex, toe dragging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what doeds the auriculopalpebral nerve block do?

A

blocks motor innervation of the auriculopalpebral nerve (branch of facial nerve) primarily to orbicularis oculi allowing manipulation of EYELID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

does auriculopalpebral nerve block provide any sensory denervation?

A

No, motor only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does supraorbitalfrontal nerve block do?

A

blocks the branch of the opthalmic divison of the trigeminal nerve which desiniztes the middle 2/3s of the uppereyelid and forehead skin

(sensory not motor primarily)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Potomac horse fever:
1. causative agent
2. when does it usually occur
3. what does it cause
4. clinical signs
5. dx
6. tx
7. main differential

A
  1. neorickettsi risticii
  2. summer
  3. acute enterocolitis
  4. high fever, diarrhea, colic, LAMINITIS, dehyration, PROFOUND LEUKOPENIA
  5. PCR of blood or feces
  6. oxytetracycline
  7. salmonella (no laminitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you calculate the likelihood that an offspring will be born affected by a disorder if the disease is recessive?

A

multiply the chances of both parrents being carriers (given) and multiply that by 25% (rate of passage of both diseased alleles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most common cause of acute hepatitis or hepatic failure in horses and what is it normally associated with

A

Acute serum hepatitis (Theilers dz)

tetanus antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

microscopic changes seen with theilers disease

A

widespread hepatic necrosis & inflammatory cells infiltrate w/ mononuclear cells & neutrophils in portal areas and prolifeation of bile ductules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clinical signs of theilers

A

acute depression, severe icterus, photosensitization, hepatoencephalopahty , pica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are clinical signs of pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity

A

nonspecific signs of liver dz including weight loss, icterus, photosensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

whcih plants contain PA’s

A

senecio, crotalaria, heliotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

diagnosis of PA toxicity

A

fibrosis, megalocytosis, bild duct proliferation (hyperplasia) on microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what signs can gastrophilus (bot fly larvae) thatembed in mucosa of the equine stomach cause

A

none or mild gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are possible causes of hypothyrodisim in foals?

A

xs iodine intake by the mare or foal
inadequate intake by the foal or mare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are resultant abnormalities of hypothyroidism inf oals

A
  • physeal dysgenesis
  • incoordination
  • limb deformities
  • tendon ruptures
  • stillbirths
  • weakknesss
  • death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most commonly occuring congenital defect in horses?

A

ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the typical PE findings of VSD

A

holostolic murmur heard bilaterally
PMI = right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where is the point of maximum intensity that you would hear the charactersitic washing machine murmur associated with PDA

A

LEFT side b/w 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the lung worm of horses, who is the definitive host

A

Dictyocaulus arnfeldi
dh= Donkeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what species can Lawsonia intracellularis infect?

A

horses and pigs (and others technically)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what age is usually affected by Lawsonia intracellularis

A

weanling age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does Lawsonia intracellular cause?

A

thickening of small intestine and hypoprotenemia (low protein = ventral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What would you expect to aspirate from an enlarged lymph node on a suspected strangles horse?

A

purulent inflammation gram positive cocci w/ large capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are 4 possible complications of strangles

A

internal abcessation (bastard strangles)
purpura hemorrhagica
guttural pouch empyema
septicemia/encaphlitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What cytologic finding of BAL fluid would be supportive of recurrent airway obstruction in horses?

A

neutrophilic inflammation (normal BAL fluid= macrophges)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

are horses with carpal hygroma lame?

A

not usually lame but restricted ROM of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the treatment of carpal hygroma

A

surgical exploration and drain replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In the horse, how can you identify if an anemia is regenerative or not?

A

bone marrow aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the shock organs of the horse

A

lungs (dyspnea/ severe resp disease)
colon (diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

culicoides HS in horses is caused by …

A

biting midge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the most common cause of blindness in the horse

A

equine recurrent uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are typical signs of equine recurrent uveitis

A

blepharospasm
photophobia
lacrimation
miosis
aqueous flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the classical presentation of salmonella in horses

A

subclinical infection
self limiting diarrhea
acute diarrhea w/ endotoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the treatment for chronic laminitis?

A

deep digital flexor tenotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what bacteria causes thrush

A

fusobacterium necrophorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the most common parasitic cause of uveitis in the horse

A

onchocerca cevicallis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does EHV-3 cause?

A

coital exanthema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the clinical signs of EHV3 and what is the tx

A

papules, pustules, ulcers on vestibular mucosa and vulvular skin/penis/prepuce

usually spontaneous recovery wihtin 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what do granulosa theca cell tumors cause? what are typical findings of them

A

infertility and abnormal sexual behaviour

large multicystic ovary and atrophy of contralateral ovary

45
Q

why can hepatic disease result in photosensitization in horses?

A

with hepatic dz the phylloerythin is depositited in the skin for UV light to react with and cause dermal damage

46
Q

What does Tyzzers disease cause and in who?

A

acute necrotizing disease in foals (1-6wks)

47
Q

what are typical BW findings of Tyzzers disease?

A

hyperfibrinogenemmia
hypoglycemia
elecated liver enzymes

48
Q

what breed of horse is predisosed to developing combined immunodeficiency

A

arabians - heritable immunodeficwincy of B and t lymphocytes (no curatie tx)

49
Q

what cells does anaplasma phagocytophilum affect

A

neutrophils

50
Q

what can occur secondary to a strangles infection

A

guttural pouch empyema

51
Q

ruptured longus capitus acan cause epiztaxis and varying degree of brainstem signs, where does this muscle insert

A

onto basiphenoid and occiptal bones

52
Q

what causes guttural pouch mycosis

A

aspergillus

53
Q

what can be damaged by guttural pouch mycosis and what are 3 typical signs

A

CN 7, 9 , 10, 11, 12; sympathetic trunk; internal carotid artery

epistaxis, dysphagia, horners syndrome

54
Q

signs of tetanus

A

lock jaw, quidding, dysphagia

sweating
edtended tail

extensor rigidity

55
Q

what is the equine round worm

A

parascaris equorum

56
Q

what worm can cause intestinal impaction in foals

A

parascaris equorum

57
Q

What are key findings in horses with renal failure?

A

hypercalcemia –> due to high amounts of calcium prsent in the diet

hypophosphatemia –> due to high calcium

58
Q

what is the normal position for an equine fetus ready to be delivered?

A

anterior presentation
dorsosacral position
forelimbs extended

59
Q

what does pigment nephropthy occur as a result of

A

myositis/tying up

60
Q

what can pigment nephropathy lead to?

A

neprhosis & susbequent renal fialure due to large amounts of myoglobin being filtered by the kidney

61
Q

What does the PD nerve block do?

A

blocks palmar part of footat

62
Q

what does the abaxial nerve block do?

A

blocks the foot, proximal interphalangeal joint (pastern joint)

63
Q

what does the low 4 point nerve block do ?

A

blocks the foot, pastern joint, fetlock joint

64
Q

what does the subcarpal nerve block do?

A

blocks the metacarpal region and below

65
Q

what percentage of horses dry matter intake should be protein for an adult horse w/ maintenance requirements?

A

12%

66
Q

what does fescue ingestion/toxicity cause in horses? why? how does it present?

A

reproductive failure in mares due to causing prolactin suppression

results in thickened palcenta, dystocia, agalactia

67
Q

what does red maple toxicity cause?

A

RBC lysis
- icterus
- heinz body anemia
- hemoglobinuria/emia

68
Q

clinical finidngs of pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity? what plants can cause this?

A
  • senecio (ragworts)
  • crotalaria (rattle pods)
  • helioptropium (cherry pie)
  • megalocytosis, fibrosis, bile duct hyperplasia
69
Q

what does cantharidin ingestion cause?

A

colic

70
Q

what are the radiographic hallmarks of navicular syndrome?

A

osteophyte formation

bony remodelling

enlarged vascular channels

71
Q

do hygromas cause lameness?

A

no usually just reduced ROM

72
Q

What type of HS is prupurua hemorrhagica?

A

3 (immune complexes deposit int he BV walls and vasculitis)

73
Q

what are the common findings of purpura hemorrhagica

A
  • anemia
  • hyperproteinemia
  • hyperfibrinogenmia- hyperglobulinemia
  • neutrophilia
74
Q

what type of worm is oxycuris equi? how do you dx it? what is the tx?

A
  • pin worm
  • scotch tape test
  • fenbendazole
75
Q

what is the most common infectious cause of infertility in equids in the US?

A

streptococcus equi sbsp zooepidemicius

76
Q

what does Tayroella equigenitalis cause?

A

contagious equine metritis

77
Q

how long after parturition is a placenta considered retained in a horse?

A

3-6hrs

78
Q

assocaited complications with a retained plaenta?

A

metritis
laminitis

79
Q

what is the treatment for a persistent CL that will allow a return to estrus in the mare?

A

PGF2-alpha

80
Q

what is scratches?

A

a chronic seborrheic dermatitis of the plantar/palmar aspect of the pastern associated with wet/muddy environments

81
Q

what causes summer sores?

A

hparonema or Draschia spp (Stomach worms of the horse)

82
Q

how does summer sores occur

A

larvae in feces are ingested by maggots of flies w/ deposit them into suscpetible areas and cause eosinophilic granulomas

83
Q

what are summer sores

A

eisonphilic granulomas caused by hapronema spp or draschia spp

84
Q

what is the underlying pathophysiology of osteochondrosis in horses?

A

defect in the endochondral ossification

85
Q

what is the most common pathologic arrythmia in horses? whats the tx?

A

afib
quinidine

86
Q

what is the most common non-pathlogic arrythmia in horses?

A

av block

87
Q

Pigeon fever:
1. causative agent
2. what does it cause?
3. tx

A
  1. corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  2. ulcerative lymphaginitis and abscesses in the pectoral region
  3. aimed at hot packing the swellings and draininga bscesses
88
Q

what are typical causes of crusting lesions?

A

pemphigus folliacious

generalized granulomatous dz

dermaptophilosis

dermatophytosis

89
Q

what type of worm is strongyle vulgaris and what is the treatment?

A

round worm

pyrantel,, ivermectin, benzimadozles

90
Q

what is a possible sequelae of strongylus vulgaris infections?

A

mesenteric artery thrombosis

91
Q

Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis:
1. predisposed breeds
2. what is it
3. clinical signs
4. treatment

A
  1. QH
  2. point mutation in a key part of skeletal muscle sodium channel subunit that causes the resting membrane potential to increase the likelihood of depolarizing and the xs potassium concentrations result in failure of sodium channels to activate
    (autuosomal dominant)
  3. facial myotonia, 3rd eyelid prolapse (= main ones); sweating, muscle fasciulations, weakness, paralysis of resp muscles, death
  4. directed at decreasing dietary potassium
92
Q

what causes myotonia?

A

genetic component possible

93
Q

what are the classic clinical signs of myotonia

A
  • abnormal gait at initiation of exercise that diminishes
  • very heavily muscled
94
Q

what is the electromyographic finding of myotonia that is pathognomonic

A

dive bomber sound produced by repetitive firing after contraction of affected muscles

95
Q

What is the most common tumor in horses? is it benign or metastatic? what causes it?

A

sarcoids

considered non-metastatic

papillomavirus suspected

96
Q

how can you treat sarcoids?

A

small lesions can be treated with benign neglect but will not regress

advances lesions can be surgically excised but 50% recurrence rate

97
Q

what is a cause of diarrhea that is seasonal and commonly associated with laminitis? what is the treatment

A

neoricketssi ricsticii (potomac fever)

oxytetraycyline

98
Q

what type of worm is trichostrongylus axei? clinical signs? tx?

A

round worm (sm stomach worm)

chronic gastrointeritis

tx: bendizamzoles or ivermectinw

99
Q

what causes arteritis and thrombosis in horses

A

strongylus spp

100
Q

when in pregnancy does a fetus become palpable

A

90-120d

101
Q

Second degree av blocks:
1. who are they commonly seen in
2. does it cause issues?

A
  1. athletic horses
  2. not predisposed to electrical-mechanical dissociation
102
Q

why are the use of corticosteroids contraindicated in a horse with IMHA that has a positive combs and coggins test?

A

because likely the cause of anemia is EIA retrovirus and corticosteroid tend to cause recrudesnce of viremia and worsen the anemiaw

103
Q

which aminoglycoside is most nephrotoxic to horses?

A

neomycin > gentamicin > amikacin

104
Q

what are clinical signs of uterine torsion?

A
  • colic
  • frequent urination in late term mare
  • tight broad ligament coursing over uterus on rectal palp
105
Q

what are 4 causes of icterus in horses?

A

clostridium piliformis (tyzzers)

theilers

anorexia

hemolysis

106
Q

what larvae are known to migrate through the portal veinand into the liver of a horse?

A

strongylus edentaus and equinus

107
Q

what is the traetment of papilloma virus (i.e aural plaques)

A

topical imiquimod

108
Q
A