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ATPL Systems and Aerodynamics > SM Special (final stage revision) > Flashcards

SM Special (final stage revision) Flashcards

1
Q

Thrust is produced by the…..

A

force required to accelerate the mass of air through the engine

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2
Q

Gas TURBINES convert kinetic energy into mechanical energy, while combustion chambers…

A

convert chemical energy into kinetic energy

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3
Q

What is the effect of RAM effect on thrust?

A

Total recovery as forward speed increases

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4
Q

Is the average cruise EPR independent of TAT?

A

yes

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5
Q

What are the advantages of the free power turbine?

A

Lower starting torque, variable prop speed, high torque at low rpm, instant response (compared to turbofan)

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6
Q

What is the purpose of the NTS?

A

Increases blade angle to stop the propeller driving the engine

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the TSS?

A

Automatically feathers the propeller in the event of an engine failure

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8
Q

What does the safety coupling do?

A

Disengages the reduction gear from the engine (it is a backup to the NTS)

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9
Q

What are the advantages of a centrifugal flow compressor?

A

Simple and cheap

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10
Q

What are the advantages of an axial flow compressor?

A

Axial thrust, higher compression ratios, better power to weight ratio

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the bleed valve for engine operation?

A

Increases mass airflow over early compressor stages at low RPM

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12
Q

On startup, what indications will indicate a successful light-up?

A

Increasing EGT, TOT, or ITT.

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13
Q

During subsonic flow through a duct, what happens to density?

A

Remains constant

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14
Q

What is the difference in airflow through a duct between sonic and subsonic flow

A

Everything supersonic is backward, and density changes.

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15
Q

Why is air slowed down in the combustion chamber>

A

To prevent flameout

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16
Q

In the engine compressor, which blades experience the highest air loads?

A

Rear compressor

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the Variable Inlet Guide Vanes?

A

Reduce AoA on the front compressor blades at low RPM

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18
Q

In the combustion chamber, is the hottest temperature at the front or back of the primary zone?

A

Back

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19
Q

In turbojet aircraft, does range increase or decrease with an increase in altitude?

A

Increase with an increase in altitude

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20
Q

What is the issue with water in the fuel system? (CIM)

A

Corrosion, Icing, Microbial growth (C I M)

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21
Q

Compare AVTUR to AVGAS.

A

Higher SG, lower volatility, higher flashpoint, higher calorific value (by volume).

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22
Q

What is the purpose of a spring loaded relief valve in a fuel system?

A

Provides fuel supply in the event of a filter blockage

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23
Q

If a FMC detects a difference between the FMC calculated fuel and the fuel gauge indication, what happens?

A

The pilots are alerted with a fuel quantity error message, and the pilots then have to decide which quantity to use.

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24
Q

What happens to the range of an aircraft at the SG reduces?

A

Reduces

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25
Q

What is the purpose of baffles in a fuel tank?

A

Prevent CoG changes

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26
Q

What is the purpose of vents in the fuel tank?

A

Decreases pressure between the tanks

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27
Q

What is the most common type of high pressure fuel pump?

A

Swash plate

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28
Q

What is the most common type of fuel boost pump?

A

Impeller type

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29
Q

Aeration of the fuel lines is prevented by what device?

A

Boost pumps

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30
Q

For what reasons would an APU shut down? (LOP HET HE DO)

A

Low oil pressure, high oil temp, high EGT, overspeed, duct overheat (LOP HET HE DO)

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31
Q

What are the errors in the machmeter?

A

Instrument and position

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32
Q

The start of the transonic speed range is indicated by…

A

Mcrit

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33
Q

At what speed does shockwave related drag wave problems occur?

A

Mcdr

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34
Q

At which point is all the airflow supersonic?

A

Mdet

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35
Q

What happens to the static pressure behind an expansion wave?

A

Reduces (air accelerates to stay supersonic)

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36
Q

Is there a change in flow direction through a normal shockwae?

A

No!

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37
Q

What is the general reason as to why sweepback is beneficial for jet aircraft?

A

Delays onset of compressibility effects (wing flies ‘faster’ before top surface acceleration produces shockwave problems)

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38
Q

What are the advantages of sweepback?

A

Increases Mcrit (and therefore Mcdr), increases force divergence mach #, improved lateral stability ,less gust sensitive

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39
Q

What are the DISadvantages of sweepback?

A

Tendency to stall tip first (causes nose pitch up as the CoL moves forward), poor low speed lift, reduced Cl max, duth roll, higher stalling AoA

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40
Q

Does spiral stability (dutch roll) increase or decrease with an increase in altitude?

A

Increase (strong lateral stability compared to directional stability)

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41
Q

When does spiral divergance occur?

A

Weak lateral stability, strong directional stability

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42
Q

What effect do spoilers have on lateral control?

A

Enhance…i.e. help roll

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43
Q

Slats…..while flaps….

A

slats re-energise the boundary layer while flaps increase the camber

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44
Q

What data does a flap limiter monitor to retract the flaps?

A

Airspeed

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45
Q

What happens to the power and thrust curve as flaps are deployed?

A

Move up and left

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46
Q

What do slotted flaps do?

A

Increase the camber + preserve boundary layer flow

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47
Q

What do fowler flaps do?

A

Increase camber and chord

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48
Q

An ‘aileron lockout’ messages appears, the pilots will experience…

A

a degraded roll control at low speed

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49
Q

As altitude, what happens to the aerodynamic dampening?

A

Reduces due to increased TAS

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50
Q

When does the stick pusher activate?

A

At the speed BELOW which controlled level flight is not sustainable. Therefore can fly at the stall speed without stick pusher activating

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51
Q

A pilot experiences buffet during a turn at high altitude, is this high or low speed buffet?

A

Could be either

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52
Q

What is the effect on Va with changes in altitude?

A

Higher alt = higher Va

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53
Q

How is SAR correctly expressed?

A

100nm/1000kg

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54
Q

Vimd is the speed for

A

Min drag = best endurance

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55
Q

1.32 Vimd is the speed for

A

Best range (best TAS to drag ratio)

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56
Q

Vx occurs at

A

Vimd

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57
Q

Vy occurs at

A

1.32 Vimd

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58
Q

How would you achieve maximum range?

A

Cruise climb + 1.32Vimd + design RPM

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59
Q

Does the AoA for best range change with weight?

A

No, as weight decreases, the speed decreases

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60
Q

What is the effect of wind on an ETP?

A

Moves into wind

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61
Q

What effect will a rearward CG have on cruise speed?

A

Results in higher cruise speed

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62
Q

During OEI ops, where will the balance ball sit if aileron and rudder are used?

A

half a ball toward the live engine

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63
Q

During OEI ops, where will the balance ball sit if rudder are used?

A

Centred

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64
Q

During OEI ops, where will the balance ball sit if aileron is used?

A

Fully displaced toward live engine

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65
Q

In gusty conditions, what is the rule of thumb?

A

Add half the wind (max 15kts), and half the gust (max 20kts). e.g. 20ktG30, add 10 + 5 = Vref + 15

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66
Q

What are the advantages of AC over DC?

A

Smaller, low current, lighter

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67
Q

In normal operations, are Bus 1 and Bus 2 connected?

A

Yes, they act as a single bus

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68
Q

For bus 1 and bus 2 to act as a single bus, how are the engine driven generators + apu connected?

A

Only one will supply power to bus because they can’t be syncronised

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69
Q

In a series wound generator, as load increases,

A

voltage increases

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70
Q

In a shunt wound generator, as load increases,

A

voltage decreases

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71
Q

In a compound generator, as load increases,

A

voltage is constant

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72
Q

In an AC generator, if the residual voltage is 0, and there is no battery, can it be restarted?

A

Yes, if it is a PMG

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73
Q

What are the advantages o constant frequency?

A

Load sharing, paralleling, low current @ high voltage.

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74
Q

If the CSD overheats, will it disconnect itself?

A

No, must be monitored

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75
Q

If the CSD is disconnected, how is it reconnected

A

mechanically on the ground

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76
Q

What is the purpose of the bus bar?

A

Main point receiving electric current from Gen or Batt

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77
Q

What is the purpose of the generator bus switch?

A

Connects buses together

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78
Q

What is the purpose of a split system breaker (SSB)?

A

Automatic control and protection by preventing paralleling of systems that can’t be synchronised

79
Q

What is the normal unit of measurement monitored on the electrical system?

A

kW, and kVAR is used to monitor health of the voltage regulator

80
Q

If the aircraft generators are powering the electrical system, can ground power be connected?

A

No

81
Q

What does a full wave bridge rectifier do?

A

Used to DC power for the field excitation of the main generator

82
Q

What happens when the generator FIELD breaker trips?

A

Voltage regulator disconnects from the excitation field

83
Q

What happens when the Generator Control Relay trips?

A

Associated generator is disconnected from it’s bus

84
Q

When is the static inverter used?

A

In the event of a failure of the AC power.

85
Q

How are batteries charged?

A

At constant voltage

86
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of NiCad batteries?

A

Faster recharge, safer. Higher risk of thermal runaway, and ventilation still required.

87
Q

What are baffles in the hydraulic system for?

A

Prevent foaming

88
Q

What is the purpose of the restrictor valve?

A

Prevents cavitation

89
Q

What is the purpose of the accumulator?

A

Provides pressure in an emergency, reduces knocking/hammering, dampens pressure fluctuations

90
Q

What is the purpose of the pressure relief valve?

A

Prevents hydraulic seals from blowing out

91
Q

What is the purpose of the shuttle valve?

A

Allows alternate system to pressurise the lines

92
Q

What does a priority valve do?

A

Automatically shuts off supply to non-essential services

93
Q

If the aircraft has 2 seperate independent hydraulic systems, how is the power distributed?

A

some systems are powered by both systems simultaneously

94
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder ratio changer?

A

as speed increases, rudder deflection decreases

95
Q

What is the aerodynamic purpose of an internal flexible seal attached to leading edge of a control surface?

A

Aerodynamically balances the control by reducing hinge moments

96
Q

With the all flying tail (different to STAB trim!!), what happens as the pilot moves the control column?

A

Tailplane moves and the elevator moves in the same direction

97
Q

At what speed will the stick shaker engage?

A

1.05Vs to 1.07Vs (different sources say different things)

98
Q

Regarding the CAM on the nose wheel, what is it’s purpose?

A

Centre the nosewheel before retraction to fit in the wheel well

99
Q

What is the purpose of the follow-up linkage?

A

Puts tiller in neutral position

100
Q

What is the advantage of the trailing bogie wheel?

A

Allows softer nose wheel touch down during landing

101
Q

Where are safety switches located?

A

On the oleo strut

102
Q

Where are thermal plugs located?

A

In the wheels (not the tyres)

103
Q

What is the purpose of chines?

A

deflects water and slush

104
Q

What is the purpose of marstand?

A

reduce nose wheel shimmy

105
Q

Can anti-skid be overridden by the pilot?

A

No

106
Q

What is the purpose of the modulator valve in the autobrake system?

A

Provides protection for the hydraulic system against damage from anti-skid

107
Q

In the event of a bleed air duct leak, what must occur?

A

It must be isolated and turned off to prevent structural damage

108
Q

When is bleed air vented overboard?

A

Low RPM

109
Q

What items are anti-iced pneumatically vs electrically?

A

anything to do with the engine or wings is pneumatic, and any probes or propellers are electric.

110
Q

How are turbo-props ‘de-iced’?

A

Electrically on a periodic cycle

111
Q

At what altitude will the cabin altitude horn sound, and what altitude will the oxygen masks deploy?

A

10,000ft and 14,000ft

112
Q

What is the purpose of the positive relief valve?

A

Relieves cabin pressure (limits max pressure differential)

113
Q

What component of the pressurisation system limits max pressure differential?

A

Positive relief valve

114
Q

What is the purpose of the negative relief valve?

A

allows air into the cabin so that the cabin altitude is equal to or less than a/c altitude.

115
Q

In an air cycle system, where is the coldest air?

A

In the expansion turbine

116
Q

When are the RAM doors in an aircon system fully open?

A

In unpressurised flight to remove smoke/toxins

117
Q

What is the purpose of the water separator in the aircon system?

A

Removes water which condensed in the system during the cooling process before it enters the cabin

118
Q

When is the cockpit voice recorder active?

A

1st checklist to 30 min after last checklist

119
Q

When is the Flight Data Recorder active?

A

when a/c first moves under own power to complete stop (keeps last 25hrs)

120
Q

When will the T/O config warning alarm?

A

Brakes, flaps, slats, spoilers, stab

121
Q

When will the LDG config warning alarm?

A

In the air with LG not down and

  • <800ft RADALT thrust set to idle
  • Flaps selected with gear up
122
Q

What are the 5 modes of the GPWS?

A
  1. excessive descent rate (sink rate, whoop whoop pull up)
  2. Excessive terrain closure rate (terrain, whoop whoop pull up)
  3. Altidue loss after T/O (don’t sink)
  4. Unsafe terrain clearance with flap not in LDG config (too low flap, too low terrain)
  5. Below glide slop (glide slop, GLIDE SLOPE) (loudness depends of degree of fuckup)
123
Q

Why would you inhibit RAs on the TCAS?

A

During OEI (aircraft may not be able to meet climb performance), or formation flight

124
Q

What is the range of the TCAS system?

A

45nm, with 30 a/c displayed at once

125
Q

When will proximate traffic become a TA?

A

Within 40 seconds to closest point of closure

126
Q

When will TA become a RA?

A

Within 25 seconds to closest point of closure

127
Q

What is a autopilot hardover?

A

Uncommanded full servomotor deflection

128
Q

What systems are there to protect from autopilot hardover?

A

rate dampeners and torque limiters

129
Q

What is the purpose of the FMS?

A

Achieves either best economy (0) or fastest trip (999)

130
Q

What are outer loop inputs?

A

Air data (such as altitude/HDG/IAS)

131
Q

What does THR HLD mode entail?

A

Auto-throttle is de-energised, pilots can move thrust levers

132
Q

Land 3 and Land 2 indicate

A

Fail Operational and Fail passive systems

133
Q

What thrust settings are used in FLCH mode?

A

Max power in climb, idle for descent

134
Q

When does FLARE mode arm and engage?

A

Arms at 1500ft RA and engages at 45ft

135
Q

When is FLT idle deactivated?

A

Remains on until 5 seconds after touchdown or reverse thrust activated

136
Q

If a derated TO is conducted and there is an engine failure, does the crew need to increase thrust?

A

No, the set thrust will be sufficient to maintain obstacle clearance

137
Q

Can VS and VNAV modes be selected together?

A

No

138
Q

SPD=FD vertical mode

A

SPD=FD vertical mode

139
Q

Flight Director bars are controlled by the

A

Flight Director Computer

140
Q

When is the autoland integrity test conducted?

A

At 1500ft

141
Q

Model Following is not an example of autopilot protection

A

Model Following is not an example of autopilot protection

142
Q

TAT compensates for

A

Adiabatic compression

143
Q

The bank angle selector in AUTO mode will use what AoB?

A

15° at high TAS, 25° at low TAS

144
Q

Is MAP mode orientated track up or HDG up?

A

HDG up

145
Q

What is the purpose of the range acquisition arc?

A

Displays computed ToC position based on REAL conditions

146
Q

is HDG on MAP mode true or magnetic?

A

Determined by pilot selection or latitude (extreme latitudes are in True.

147
Q

What will the EFIS screen display in the event of a failed SG?

A

Blank screen

148
Q

What pilot action is required in the event of a SG failure?

A

Manually select different symbol generator source

149
Q

Below 1000ft RADALT, what colour is the DH?

A

Magenta

150
Q

At 50ft above the DH, what happens to the DH on the ADI?

A

Changes from Magenta to amber, and aural chime alerts

151
Q

passing DH, what happens to the RA scale colour?

A

Changes from white to amber.

152
Q

What happens to the DH and RA on the EADI when a negative DH is selected?

A

DH is blank, RA remains the same.

153
Q

Plan mode is always referenced…

A

True North UP

154
Q

In plan mode, is the TRK line in magnetic or true?

A

Magnetic (even though orientation is True north up). The true north up is the bottom half of the screen.

155
Q

What modes is the WX radar visible?

A

Map, expanded ILS and VOr

156
Q

What are the range and height requirements for proximate and other traffic?

A

proximate <1200ft <6nm, other >1200ft >6nm

157
Q

When will the TCAS be inhibited?

A

GPWS, stall warning, windshear warning

158
Q

FMC needs valid data from…

A

at least 1 IRS

159
Q

What speed is bugged on the speed tape during takeoff?

A

V2

160
Q

What is an example of a conditional waypoint?

A

Altitude

161
Q

What systems are part of the Standby Navigation System?

A

CDU and IRS

162
Q

What happens if the Captain’s side FMC fails?

A

FO side FMC must be selected to provided map display on captain’s EHSI. Both pilots must use the same range.

163
Q

What pages of the CDU can conditional waypoints be entered?

A

Arrivals and Departures page

164
Q

LNAV will follow a great circle between two points

A

LNAV will follow a great circle between two points

165
Q

How will the aircraft enter a hold in LNAV mode?

A

Based on actual track.

166
Q

If the aircraft passes the final waypoint entered in the FMC in LNAV mode, what will it do?

A

Maintain current HDG

167
Q

What is the minimum requirement for RNAV operation?

A

1 FMC + 1 CDU with radio updating

168
Q

With the airspeed window on the AFDS panel blanked, the command airspeed bug is being controlled by the….

A

FMC

169
Q

Pressing cancel on the EICAS control panel will…..

A

select the next page

170
Q

In a 2 compass system, if the Captain’s HSI displays a HDG flag, what will be indicated?

A

A HDG flag on the FO’s RMI

171
Q

Can the SNS provide LNAv or VNAV guidance?

A

No, only HDG SEL is available

172
Q

Where does the SNS get it’s computing capability?

A

Has it’s own permanent computing capability (contained in the CDU)

173
Q

During SNS operations, do the radios have to be tuned manually?

A

Yes

174
Q

What is earth rate compensation?

A

Accelerometer platform forced to tilt in proportion to the earth’s turning rate

175
Q

Where is compensation in a gyrocompassing system sent?

A

to the x gyro

176
Q

How is north alignment maintained in an azimuth wandering system?

A

Azimuth gyro uses earth rate + transport rate

177
Q

What is the main difference in a wander azimuth system?

A

Some earth rate compensation is sent to the Y gyro

178
Q

What is the maximum radial error rate of an INS/IRS?

A

3 + 3t (t=no. of hours in nav mode)

179
Q

What is the difference between the IRS and INS?

A

IRS = ring laser gyros, INS = normal gyros

180
Q

What are the advantages of an IRS over the INS?

A

No moving parts, higher mean time between failure, require less power, digital output

181
Q

What inputs are required to the IRS to derive current true heading?

A

Nothing, the IRS can derive current true heading independent of other inputs

182
Q

What factors increase Vmca?

A

Rear CoG, gear down, AoB >10°, windmilling prop, increased thrust

183
Q

What condition usually leads to a tailstrike?

A

Rotating too early or rapidly

184
Q

As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic to supersonic, what happens to Cd?

A

Increases then decreases

185
Q

As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic to supersonic, what happens to Cl?

A

Increases then decreases

186
Q

What is the effect of weight on Vmca?

A

No effect (it is the distribution of weight that has an effect)

187
Q

What AP modes (for A/T and pitch) would you expect during a climb during a STAR?

A

N1/VNAV SPD. N1 indicates max climb thrust, VNAV SPD indicates speed maintained with pitch.

188
Q

Upon level off, what AP modes (for A/T and pitch) would you expect during a level off?

A

SPD and VNAV PTH

189
Q

What will the AP mode indication be during a go-around?

A

N1/VNA SPD/LNAV

190
Q

If the ‘fuel disagree’ message appears, will the system accept the data input from the pilot or calculated by the FMC?

A

Pilot

191
Q

At 80kts during the TO, the A/T mode changes to THR HOLD, what does this indicate?

A

The n1 thrust will be held.

192
Q

What is bootstrapping?

A

If power is lost then reference will not be lost. E.g. the left IRS is connected to Capt standby RMI and right IRS to FO standby RMI, if the Captain’s EHSI screen (supplied by the LEFT IRS) fails, she will still have the standby RMI.

193
Q

What does N1 on the A/T indicate?

A

Max thrust set (predetermined value), and speed will be controlled with Pitch. This is why the associated VNAV mode will be VNAV SPD, because spd is being controlled by pitch.

194
Q

What does SPD on the A/T indicate?

A

The thrust levers are used to control speed (and the VNAV profile will be VNAV PTH I think…)

ATPL Systems and Aerodynamics (19 decks)

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