Slide Midterm Flashcards

1
Q
•	Hemorrhage beneath the dura 
•	R. side 
•	Results from: trauma → rupture of the bridge V
CC:
•	rise in intracranial pressure
•	gradual & progressive bleeding→ over a period of wks
Result: 
•	Chronic Hematoma
A

Subdural hematoma

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2
Q

bact for meningitis

A

step. pneumonia

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3
Q

• Often a complication from pulmonary or middle ear infection

A

meningitis

-Pathogenesis:
• thick, pale inflam exudate over the frontal and parietal lobes

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4
Q
Clinical:
•	Fever, HA, Neck pn 
•	vomiting
•	(+) Kernings sign 
•	(+) CSF analysis
A

Meningitis

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5
Q

recent cerebral infarct has ____ necrosis

A

liquefaction

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6
Q

berry aneurysm arises from _____ art

causes: ______

A
  • arises in R. ant. Communicating cerebral artery

* causes subarachnoid hemorrhage

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7
Q

base of the brain covered by extensive hemorrhage → located in sub-arachnoid space
cause:
• berry aneurysm

A

subarachoid hemorrhage

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8
Q

MCC of Traumatic intracerebral Hemorrhage

A

alcoholism (falling)

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9
Q
  • (B) tumor arising from the arachnoid cells

* Psammoma Bodies

A

meningioma

MC in the intracranial space (less in the spinal dura)

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10
Q

• can have intramedullary hemorrhage

A

fx of humerus

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11
Q

3 phases of healing a broken bone

A
  1. inflam phase
  2. reparative phase
  3. remodeling phase
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12
Q

• erosion of the diploe (spongy bone portion)

bact:_______

A

chronic osteomyelitis

staph aureus

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13
Q

____: reactive woven bone that covers the sequestrium

seen in : ____

A

involcrum

Chronic Osteomyelitis

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14
Q

_____: draining sinus through the skin

seen in ______

A

cloaca

chronic osteomyelitis

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15
Q
  • thickened and normal structures have been replaced by broad, pale, irregular bony trabeculae
  • high serum alkaline phosphate levels
A

Paget’s Dx of the clavicle

(aka: osteoitis deformans)

• pathological fx, enlargement of the head and incr risk for osteogenic sarcomas

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16
Q

MC location of Ivory Osteoma of the skull

A

paranasal sinuses, orbit and dense bones

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17
Q
  • pale tumor arising from the cortex (metaphysis) → spreads to the diaphysis→ elevates the periosteum = Codman’s triangle
  • sunburst appearance: calcified osteoid extending from soft tis
A

Osteosarcoma of the femur

aka- osteogenic sarcoma

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18
Q
  • Metastatic are the MC malignancy of the bone → they are lytic
  • Lytic = radiolucencies on x-rays
Osteoblastic metastases (MC) secondary to prostate and breast cancer
•	increase serum alkaline phosphate
A

Metastatic breast carcinoma to the spine and pelvis

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19
Q

MC cause:

• atherosclerotic coronary artery dx → coagulative necrosis

A

acute myocardial infarction

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20
Q

MCC of death in MI

A

arrhythmias

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21
Q
Complications: 
•	arrhythmias = MCC death 
•	mural thrombus 
•	rupture 
•	ventricular aneurysm
A

Acute myocardial infarction

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22
Q
  • thinned dilation of the wall

* Thick layer of adherent endocardial thrombus

A

Acute myocardial infarction with mural thrombosis

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23
Q

most common location of the hypertrophic muscle in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

interventricular septum

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24
Q
  • MC in: interventricular septum
  • Pallor of the M
  • Inherited autosomal dominant trait
A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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25
Q

recurrent acute rheumatic endocarditis can lead to___

A

mitral incompetence

26
Q

• Mitral valve: has vegetation lying along the valve closure
→ the vegetation is fibrin and platelet deposition

A

Mitral Incompetence with recurrent acute rheumatic endocarditis

27
Q
  • Rounded polypoid and gelatinous tumor

* Arising from the interatrial septum → below the fossa ovalis (mesenchymal origin)

A

left atrial myxoma

-MC primary cardiac tumor

28
Q

MC primary cardiac tumor

A

left atrial myxoma

29
Q

MC form of aneurysm

• (m) over age 55

A

Ruptured Atheromatous Aneurysm in the abdominal Aorta

30
Q

Thrombosis of the femoral artery w/o tx causes_____

A

dry gangrene

31
Q

(4) complications from varicose veins

A
Complications: 
•	edema
•	phlebitis
•	thrombosis 
•	stasis dermatitis (cutaneous ulceration)
32
Q

occlusive impaction of any material in the pulmonary arterial system
MC location:
• from thromboembolism in the deep saphenous V of the leg

A

pulmonary embolism

33
Q
pre-disposing factors: 
•	post-partum 
•	post-surgery
•	bed rest 
•	hypercoagulability
A

pumonary embolism

Fatal: sudden death→ R. heart failure

34
Q
  • consolidation of the basal portion of the lower lobe and patchy consolidation of the middle lobe
  • grayish- white appearance

bact______

A

bronchopneumonia

strep. Pneumonia

35
Q

(3) bacterias that case bronchopneumonia

A
Caused by:
•	Strep. Pneumonia 
Nosocomial pneumonia:
•	E. Coli
•	Pseudomonas
36
Q

• total consolidation of the upper lobe→ grayish in the lobe
uncommon:
• bc of antibiotics

cause: _______

A

Lobar pneumonia

cause: strep. pneumonia

37
Q

Untreated case stages of lobar pneumonia

complications?

A
  1. acute congestion (1day)
  2. Red hepatization (2-4 days)
  3. Grey hepatization (4-8 days)
  4. Resolution (8-10 days)

Complications:
• bacteremia
• Abscess
• Pulmonary fibrosis

38
Q
  • large bronchiectatic cavities = coagulative material
  • lung parenchyma has dense scarring

MCC: • bronchial carcinoma

A

Bronchiectasis

Suppurative infection : Staph aureus

39
Q

Military TB complication of primary infections

A

Myobaterium tuberculosis

40
Q

____ has millet seeds

A

Military TB

41
Q

MC type of emphysema

A

Centrilobular emphysema

42
Q

destruction of the respiratory bronchioles with sparing of the distal air spaces

A

Centrilobular emphysema

MC type of emphysema

43
Q

• Obliterated lower lobe bronchus → hilar lymph nodes

ectopic hormones:
• ACTH
• ADH
• Serotonin

A

Oat cell carcinoma

44
Q
  • Round, pale neoplasm → just beneath the pleural surface

* Well defined margins of the tumor (more superficial)

A

Lung cancer adenocarcinoma

grows slowly= good prognosis

45
Q

• esophagus ends blindly at the level of the mid-trachea → the lower portion opens into the trachea above the trachea bifurcation

A

Tracheo-Esophageal fistula w/ esophageal atresia

46
Q

• failure of development or fusion of the septum lying btw trachea and esophagus

A

Tracheo-Esophageal fistula w/ esophageal atresia

47
Q

bact. for Chronic Peptic Ulcers of the stomach and Duodenum

A

Heliobacter pylori

duod. is more common than gastric

48
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the stomach–> Gastric carcinoma arises in:

A

pylorus and pyloric antrum

49
Q

Adenocarcinoma

Of the stomach spreads via:

A
  • via lymphatic to bilateral ovaries

* left supraclavicular node metastasis

50
Q

MC developmental malformation in the alimentary system

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum of the Ileum

51
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum of the Ileum is a remnent of :

A

omphalo-mesenteric duct

52
Q

location of Meckel’s Diverticulum

A

• antimesenteric border of the ileum → 2 ft from the ileoceccal valve

53
Q
  • Walls of the ileum are thick and fibrotic → w/ diffuse luminal inflam
  • Can affect any part of the alimentary system→ MC terminal ileum
A

crohn’s dx

54
Q
Characteristic: 
* Granulomatous inflammation 
•	zones of inflammation in all layers
•	mucosal ulceration “cobblestone appearance” 
•	stricture formation
A

crohn’s dx

55
Q
  • mucosal lesion
  • thickening of the bowel walls → mucosal inflammatory pseudo-polyposis
  • haustral pattern effaced
  • shortening of the bowel and narrowing of the lumen
A

ulcerative colitis of the colon

Extends prox. From the rectum → into terminal ileum

56
Q

• high in western countries

A

adenocarcinoma of the colon rectal region

57
Q
predisposing factors:
•	family polyposis 
•	crohn’s dx 
•	ulcerative colitis 
•	diet : low fiber/ high fat
A

adenocarcinoma of the colon rectal region

58
Q

_____ uses duke’s system for staging

A

Adenocarcinoma of the colon rectal region

59
Q

• Secondary: bacterial (E. Coli) inflammation

A

acute appendicitis

60
Q

Complications:
• perforation leading to peritonitis
• subphrenic abscess

A

appendicitis