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VPH > Slaughter 3 > Flashcards

Slaughter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the main issues associated with the transport of broilers

A
  • Susceptible to heat stress and dehydration
  • Compromised capacity to respond to acute thermal challenge
  • Implications for welfare and meat quality
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2
Q

Describe the main issues associated with the transport of end of lay hens

A
  • Higher proportion of DOA
  • Poor feather, excessively vulnerable to wet and cold
  • Prolonged pre-transport food withdrawal
  • Decreased habituation to transport stress
  • Longer journeys
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3
Q

Describe the main issues associated with the transport of day old chicks

A
  • Thermal stress
  • Air mixing in stacked containers
  • Can tolerate long journeys due to yolk sac reserves
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4
Q

Describe the main issues associated with the transport of pullets

A
  • Well feathered, fully fed and hydrated
  • Usually free from metabolic disease
  • Withstand greater excursions in ambient thermal conditions compared to chicks or spent hens
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5
Q

What is the role of the AWO in poultry transport?

A
  • Must identify animals that need to be slaughtered first
  • Identify welfare needs
  • Any measures to improve welfare e.g. methods to cool animals in hot weather
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6
Q

What are the 2 most relevant zoonotic agents associated with poultry?

A
  • Campylobacter

- Salmonella

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7
Q

Outline testing requirements for Campylobacter

A
  • No legal requirement to test for this on farm or in abattoirs
  • Limited testing carried out by producers and processors
  • May be requested by consumer
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8
Q

What regulation covers the testing for Salmonella?

A

EC 2160/2003 and 646/2007

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9
Q

Why is Salmonella testing required?

A

For surveillance of disease and information from tehse tests included in FCI

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10
Q

How is the regulation that applies to Salmonella in poultry implemented? What are the aims?

A

Through the National Control Programme (NCP)

- Aims to reduce Salmonella spp of public health significance and targets breeders, layers, broilers and turkeys

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11
Q

How is Salmonella testing in broilers and fattening turkeys carried out?

A

2 pairs of boot swabs per flock within period of 3 weeks before slaughter. With turkeys, can also use 1 pair of boot swabs and a dust sample

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12
Q

When is Salmonella testing carried out in broiler and turkey breeders?

A
  • Day old
  • 4 weeks of age
  • 2 weeks before coming into lay or before are moved to the laying accomodation
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13
Q

When and how is Salmonella testing carried out in layers during lay?

A
  • 2 pairs of boot swabs (barn or free range), or 2x150g composite faeces sample (of cage reared)
  • taken between 22-26 weeks of age
  • Repeated every 15 weeks during production
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14
Q

When and how is Salmonella tested in turkeys in lay?

A

2 pairs of boot swabs every 3 weeks

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15
Q

What are the requirements regarding the FCI/production report for poultry?

A
  • Producer produces the report
  • Must be available to OV 24 hours before kill
  • Report must state that the flock is under veterinary supervision
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16
Q

What are important general signs of notifiable diseases in poultry?

A
  • Should provide evidence of active notifiable diseases on FCI
  • Typically signs seen on farm
  • Birds crated on arrival to slaughterhouse may be dead, have respiratory signs or visibly affected (discoloured comb/wattles, nasal discharge)
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17
Q

What are the 2 main notifiable diseases of relevance in poultry?

A

Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza

Newcastles disease

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18
Q

Describe the clinical signs of Newcastle disease

A
  • Respiratory distress (gaping beak, coughing, sneezing, gurgling, rattling)
  • Nervous signs (tremor, paralysis, twisting of neck)
  • Green-yellow diarrhoea
  • Depression
  • Inappetance
  • Loss of production in layers
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19
Q

Describe the clinical signs of HPAI

A
  • Swollen head
  • Blue discolouration of neck and throat
  • Inappetance
  • Respiratory distress
  • Diarrhoea
  • Drop in laying
  • Inncreased mortality
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20
Q

What are the 2 types of Avian influenza?

A
  • Highly pathogenic

- Low pathogenic

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21
Q

Which avian influenza types are notifiable?

A
  • High pathogenic

- Low pathogenic H5 and H7

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22
Q

Describe the clinical signs of LPAI

A
  • Less serious
  • Mild breathing problems
  • Affected birds will not always show clear signs
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23
Q

When should the FCI for poultry be completed?

A

Can be completed up to 1 week before animals are sent to slaughter

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24
Q

What information is included in a poultry FCI?

A
  • Farm and house of origin
  • Intended date of slaughter
  • Number of birds for slaughter
  • Flock mortality
  • Diseases diagnosed
  • Results of any laboratory tests
  • Any medication given
  • Previous post mortem results from farm
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25
Q

Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds waiting to be shackled

A
  • Light kept low in shackling and lairage areas

- Minimise stress in order to reduce risk of wing fractures on shackling

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26
Q

Describe the cleaning and disinfection practices in the transport of birds

A
  • Crates cleaned and disinfected before leaving premises to avoid risk of disease spread
  • Lorry cleaned and disinfected before leaving the premises
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27
Q

Describe the AMI of poultry

A
  • Individual inspection not feasible
  • Aim is to verify welfare and identify conditions that may be zoonotic
  • Should include listening to birds and observation of a random sample
  • Performed on farm and at slaughterhouse
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28
Q

What must be included in the OV inspection for AMI on farm?

A
  • Assessment of tidiess/cleanliness
  • Check all records
  • Observe general status of birds
  • Check individual birds for pododermatitis, breast blisters, cleanliness of feathers
  • Check environment for litter, ventilation, light
  • Provide information of general health and welfare status of flock
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29
Q

What can the AMI of poultry at the slaughterhouse include?

A
  • Cleanliness of birds and crate
  • DOAs
  • Trapped wings
  • Broken wings
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30
Q

Outline the flow diagram of poultry plants

A
  • Lairage, shackling, stunning
  • Bleeding
  • Scalding
  • Defeathering
  • Whole bird PMI
  • Hock cutting
  • Evisceration
  • Offal PMI
  • Washing
  • Chilling
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31
Q

Outline the EU legislation regarding bleeding of birds

A
  • Shall not be slaughtered by automatic neck cutters unless it can be ascertained whether or not neck cutters have effectively severed both blood vessels
  • Could be done by cutting the vessels or cutting the head
  • Where not effective, shall be slaughtered immediately
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32
Q

How long must birds be left to bleed out fully?

A
  • Turkeys and geese: 2 mins

- Other birds: 09 seconds

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33
Q

Outline the regulations on bleeding following gas stunning of birds?

A
  • Already dead following gas
  • No welfare concerns at bleeding stage
  • Personnel do not need to be trained in animal welfare
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34
Q

What temperature should be used for scalding of broilers?

A

50-54degreesC

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35
Q

What is a potential disadvantage of scalding birds?

A

Water set to remove feathers, not decontamination, so may lead to cross-contamination

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36
Q

Outline the process of defeathering

A
  • Feathers removed after scalding
  • Remove by rolling rubber fingers on surface of carcass
  • May be point of cross contamination
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37
Q

Outline the process of evisceration of birds

A
  • Usually mechanical in high throughput plants

- 2 pieces of equipment, first to open vent second to remove viscera

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38
Q

What is a potential risk at the evisceration stage in birds and how can this be overcome?

A
  • Cross contamination with faecal matter/pathogens

- Appropriate cleaning and disinfection essential

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39
Q

Give examples of production faults found in poultry PMI

A
  • Inadequate bleeding (redneck)
  • Poor defeathering
  • Bruises and fractures
  • Overscald
  • Mechanical damage
  • Contamination
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40
Q

Give examples of disease findings in poultry PMI

A
  • Water belly (ascites)
  • Emaciation
  • Dermatitis
  • Anaemia
  • Jaundice
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41
Q

Give examples of diseases that may be found in the PMI of poultry offal

A
  • Collibacillosis
  • Hepatitis
  • Coccidiosis
  • Congenital defects
42
Q

What is an important requirement regarding the PMI of the carcass and offal of poultry?

A

Must be able to correlate the 2 i.e. match the offal to the carcass

43
Q

Describe the best hygienic practice for chilling of poultry carcasses

A
  • Chilled down to 4degreesC by air and water jets (reduce dehydration)
  • After period of maturation of usually 8-10 hours (shorter if electric stimulation used in earlier stages) are ready for bagging whole or portioning
44
Q

Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds in lairage

A
  • Pre-arranged, scheduled arrival to avoid long waiting times
  • good ventilation in lairage, controlled temperature, controlled humidity
45
Q

Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds at shackling

A
  • Can be performed with birds dead or alive depending on stunning method
  • If gas: shackled after stunning, no risk of pain due to trauma
  • Electrical stunning requires shackling before, personnel require welfare training
46
Q

Describe the signs of effective stunning in birds

A
  • Loss of nictitating reflex
  • No rhythmic breathing
  • Constant rapid body tremors
  • Wings held tight against body
47
Q

Describe the signs of effective killing of birds

A
  • Loss of nictitating reflex
  • No breathing
  • Pupils dilated
  • Wings drooping
48
Q

Outline the requirements for waterbath stunning of birds

A
  • Good size and depth for birds that are intended to be processed in the slaughterhouse
  • Must be able to adjust water level to ensure contact with bird’s heads
  • All species must be in water up to wing base
  • Entrance must be electrically insulated ramp, no overflow of water at entrance
  • Adequate current and duration of exposure (min 4 seconds)
49
Q

Outline the disadvantages of electrical/water bath stunning of birds

A
  • Requires live shackling
  • Conscious birds (aversive, painful)
  • Some birds inadequately/not at all stunned
  • pre-stun shocks possible
50
Q

Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds in general

A
  • Several gas mixtures can be used
  • Results in death
  • Important to maintain equipment properly
51
Q

Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide at high concentration

A
  • Minimum 40% CO2
  • Exposure must lead to anoxia
  • No animal must enter if concentration falls below 40%
  • Method not allowed for geese and ducks
52
Q

Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide in 2 phases

A
  • Exposed to concentraiton of 40% CO2

- Once unconscious, use higher CO2 concentration

53
Q

Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases

A
  • Exposed directly or progressively to gas mixture containing up to 30% CO2 with inert gases
  • Leads to anoxia
  • Unlawful to put birds in chamber when CO2 above 30% or oxygen above 2%
54
Q

Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with inert gases

A
  • Expose directly or indirectly to gas mixture containing inert gases
  • Leads to anoxia
  • Oxygen concentration by volume must be below 2% but can rise to 5% for no more than 30s
55
Q

Outline some advantages of controlled atmosphere stunning of birds

A
  • No shackling
  • All birds stunned, no recovery
  • Improved working conditions at shackling point
  • Improved meat quality
56
Q

Outline some disadvantages of controlled atmosphere stunning of birds

A
  • Initial aversion (unpleasant, pain)
  • Respiratory effects (difficulty breathing)
  • Behaviour effects (convulsions, injuries sustained while flapping)
57
Q

Outline head only electrical stunning in birds

A
  • Large scale slaughterhouses
  • Minmum current for chicks 240mA, turkeys 400mA
  • Electrodes good contact with animal, must make animal unconscious
58
Q

What are the requirements of the head only electrical stunning equipment used in birds?

A
  • Must have visible or audible device indicating length of time of its application to the animal
  • Should also clearly indicate to the operator the voltage and current under load
59
Q

Outline use of the penetrative captive bolt in the stunning of birds

A
  • Positioned so bolt enters through cerebral cortex

- Continuous checks after each shot to ensure full bolt retraction

60
Q

Outline the use of the non-penetrative captive bolt in the stunning of birds

A

Correct positioning critical to avoid fracture of skull

61
Q

What are the options and regulations for emergency killing of poultry?

A
  • Manual cervical dislocation: birds <3kg, max 70 birds/day/person
  • Mechanical cervical dislocation: birds up to 5kg
  • Gas can be used on premises in case of disease control
62
Q

Outline the UK guidance for the slaughter of poultry for home consumption

A
  • If no other method of stunning available, stun birds up to 3kg by manual cervical dislocation
  • If larger than 5kg, must use other methods e.g. electrical stunning
63
Q

Compare PMI of birds to that of mammals

A
  • Mammals entire carcass and parts of are inspected individually
  • Birds, only a sample is inspected
64
Q

What are the duties of the OV regarding bird PMI?

A
  • Daily inspection of the viscera and body cavities of a representative sample of birds
  • Detailed inspection of a random sample of birds (or parts of birds) declared unfit for human consumption after PMI
  • Any further investigations considered necessary when there is a suspicion that meat may be unfit for human consumption
65
Q

What legislation provides the minimum rules for the protection of chickens for meat production?

A

European Council Directive 2007/43/EC

66
Q

What is included in the European Council Directive 2007/43/EC?

A
  • Detailed legislative provisions to welfare of broilers on farm
  • Number of animal based outcome parameters used to identify possible on-farm welfare problems
67
Q

What indicators are used under the legislation to identify possible on-farm bird welfare problems?

A
  • Cumulative daily mortality
  • Ascites
  • Cellulitis
  • Dermaitis
  • DOA
  • Emaciation
  • Joint lesions/arthritis
  • Septicaemia/respiratory
  • ## Total rejections
68
Q

What happens if the welfare indicators on bird PMI exceed a set percentage?

A
  • Triggers action under the European Council Directive 2007/43/EC
  • Report automatically generated and sent to OV for review
  • Report to APHA
69
Q

What factors influence the development of Food Pad Dermatitis in birds?

A
  • Litter type and quality
  • Water drinker type
  • Bird age
  • Ventilation and drinker management
  • Feed source and quality
  • Breed
  • Enteric disease (more faeces)
70
Q

What are the classifications of Foot Pad Dermatitis?

A
  • 0: healthy food
  • 1: mild lesions (significant, but restricted)
  • 2: severe lesions (extended and severe)
71
Q

When and how are trigger reports regarding bird welfare generated?

A
  • Automatic following upload of data onto system following PMI
  • Generate reports if on or more condition goes over process 1 trigger levels
  • Or if house mortality is above set level
  • If 3 or more conditions are above the process 2 trigger level
72
Q

What actions may the APHA take following the generation of a post-mortem condition welfare report?

A
  • May decide visit is necessary

- May request farmer to produce health plan with own vet to prevent similar situations recurring

73
Q

List abnormalities commonly identified on poultry PMI

A
  • Ascites
  • Airsaculitis
  • Cellulitis/dermatitis
  • DOA
  • Emaciation
  • Joint lesions
  • Resp problems
  • Pododermatitis
  • Hepatitis
  • Perihepatitis/peritonitis
  • Runts
  • Salpingitis
  • Tumours (rare
  • Conditions associated with machinery
74
Q

What are the rejection requirements following identification of pericarditis in poultry PMI?

A
  • Whole animal rejected if active and sever
  • Whole animal rejected if secondary conditions are present
  • Whole animal rejected if birds are positive for Salmonella enteritidis or typhimurium according to FCI
75
Q

When does total rejection of poultry carcass, including blood and offal, occur?

A
  • No AMI, no FCI
  • Systemic disease identified
  • In presence of gross contamination where trimming is impracticable
76
Q

What conditions require only partial rejection of poultry carcass?

A
  • Localised contamination (including bile staining)
  • Localised mechanical damage (breakage of skin)
  • Condition where only part of the carcass or single organ is affected
  • Resolved sub-acute pericarditis can result in partial rejection
77
Q

Outline the method for poultry PMI

A
  • Cut skin at point of keel, peel skin back to reveal pectoral muscle
  • Assess condition and colour
  • Peel skin down towards vent, dislocate hips, assess cartilage (should be white, necrosis common)
  • Identify crop, should be empty
  • Assess symmetry and health of legs
  • Assess skin in vent area
  • Open body cavity by peeling back pectoral muscles and cutting ribs
  • Deflect rib cage
  • Assess heart and liver
  • Assess gizzard, intestines and air sacs
  • Assess lungs
  • Assess proventriculus, spleen, gall bladder
  • Assess Bursa of Fabricius
78
Q

Why does cellulitis lead to rejection of poultry?

A

Suggests systemic bacterial infection

79
Q

Describe the appearance of visceral gout in poultry PMI

A

Chalky white material in viscera

80
Q

Describe the appearance of and consequences of identification of hepatitis on poultry PMI

A
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Friable, necrotic foci, lesions
  • Partial or full rejection depending on extent of spread
81
Q

Why might a full crop lead to rejection?

A

Potential source of contamination of carcass and other carcasses with feed

82
Q

What conditions are likely to be found on poultry legs at PMI?

A
  • Some abrasions and fractures from shackling
  • Food pad dermatitis
  • Swellings
83
Q

What is GID? Describe its appearance

A

Coenurus cerebralis, larval stage of Taenia multiceps

- Forms cysts in sheep brains, multiple scolices (hydatid sand), small white dots, cauliflower appearance

84
Q

Describe the common manifestation of Cysticercus tenuicollis in sheep

A
  • Often seen as while lines in liver, can also appear in other tissues
  • Described as lesions of “serpentine migration of Cysticercus tenuicollis”
85
Q

What are the 2 methods for identification of Trichinella spiralis? Compare

A
  • Trichonoscopy: muscle sample, squeeze between 2 slides
  • Muscle sample digestion by enzymes and subsequently view on microscope, increased sensitivity as can increase sample volume
86
Q

Compare the hydatid cysts and cysts formed by Cysticercus tenuicollis

A
  • Hydatid cysts are within tissue

- Cysts from Cysticercus would form on the surface

87
Q

Explain the different appearances of Cysticercus tenuicollis infestation`

A
  • Can be seen as cyst or serpentine migration pattern
  • Time required to form cyst and so occurs in older infections
  • Cyst is fluid filled on the surface of the tissue and with single white protoscolex
88
Q

Explain the difference between meat quality and carcass quality

A
  • Meat quality is about the compositional quality, physical properties and eating qualities
  • Carcass quality is about conformation, fatness and weight
89
Q

What factors can affect carcass quality?

A
  • Breed
  • Sex
  • Age
90
Q

What are the requirements regarding beef carcass classification?

A
  • Under Beef Carcass Classification Scheme, abattoirs slaughtering >75 adult bovine animals/week on a rolling yearly average bases are required to register and classify carcasses
  • Small scale operators may choose to do this
  • Classified in accordance with “Community Scale”
  • Carcasses labelled with classification, records kept
  • People carrying out classification need to be licensed
91
Q

What is the purpose of the Beef Carcass Classification Scheme?

A
  • Ensure adult bovine animals are uniformly classified and producers guaranteed fair payment for cattle delivered to slaughterhouses, based on the Community (EU) Grading Scale
  • transparency of market in carcass to benefit of all sectors of industry
92
Q

What are the specifications that beef carcasses must be dressed in line with?

A
  • Standard specification
  • EC reference specification
  • UK specification
93
Q

What are the dressing requirements of the standard specification for cattle?

A
  • Cod/udder fat on
  • Crown fat on
  • Bed fat on
  • Brisket fat on
  • Thin skirt on
94
Q

What are the dressing requirements of the EC Reference specification for cattle?

A
  • Cod/udder fat off
  • Crown fat off
  • Bed fat on
  • Brisket fat on
  • Thin skit off
95
Q

What are the dressing requirements of the UK specification for cattle?

A
  • Cod/udder fat off
  • Crown fat off
  • Bed fat off
  • Brisket fat off
  • Thin skirt off
96
Q

How is beef carcass conformation assessed?

A
  • Visual assessment of overall shape and flesh coverage of the carcass
  • EUROP scale
  • Classes U, O and P are subdivided into upper (+) and lower (-) bands
97
Q

How is beef carcass fat assessed?

A
  • Assessed by visual appraisal of external fat development
  • Fat covered give by classes 1-5
  • 1: low, 2: slight, 3: average, 4: high, 5: very high
  • Classes 4 and 5 are subdivided into L (leaner) and H (fatter)
98
Q

How is conformation and fat class denoted for cattle?

A
  • Conformation given before the fat class

- E.g. carcass of confromation R and fat class 4L, recorded as R4L

99
Q

Give the meaning of each of the EUROP classes

A
  • (S = superior)
  • E = excellent
  • U = very good
  • R = good
  • O = fair
  • P = poor
100
Q

What are the requirements for lamb carcass classification?

A
  • Not mandatory
  • But most UK slaughterhouses grade carcasses on EUROP payment grid as in beef
  • Assessed for conformation and fat cover

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