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VPH > ABPs and SRMs > Flashcards

ABPs and SRMs Flashcards

1
Q

What are ABPs?

A

Animal by-products

- The entire body, part of animal or product of animal origin not intended for human consumption

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2
Q

Give examples of edible co-products that may be sent for human consumption or become ABPs

A
  • Fats
  • Stomach, bladders, intestines
  • Gelatine and collagen
  • Without furhter processing will become ABPs
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3
Q

How are ABPs categorised?

A

Category 1 (high risk) - 3 (low risk)

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4
Q

What ABPs are classed as category 1?

A
  • All SRMs
  • Body or part of animal containing SRM at point of disposal
  • All parts of animals suspected as being infected by TSEs
  • Animal material collected from waste water drain screenings in ruminant slaughterhouses and other premises in which SRM is removed
  • Animals killed in context of TSE eradication measures
  • Wild animals suspected of being infected with zoonotic diseases (e.g. bTB, FMD)
  • Products contaminated with prohibited substances or containing residues of environmental contaminants
  • International catering waste, dead pets, lab animals, carcasses and dead zoo animals
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5
Q

Describe category 1 of ABPs and its labelling

A
  • Highest risk, for disposal only
  • Dyed blue if contain SRM, black if not
  • Container labelled “ Category 1, for disposal only”
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6
Q

Describe Category 2 of ABP and its labelling

A
  • High risk, unfit for human or animal consumption
  • Dyed black
  • Labelled “category 2, not for animal consumption”
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7
Q

What ABPs are classed as Category 2?

A
  • Sludge from waste water drain screenings in non-ruminant slaughterhouse
  • Products containing residues of authorised veterinary drugs and contaminants exceeding permitted levels
  • Material imported from Third countries or member states not complying with EU veterinary requirements
  • Animals (or parts of) that dies other than slaughter for human consumption
  • Products from animals declared unfit for human consumption due to foreign bodies in products
  • Manure, digestive tract contents
  • Blood from any animal that has not passed AMI
  • Rejection due to pathology
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8
Q

Describe Category 3 ABP and its labelling

A
  • Low risk, unfit for human consumption
  • No dying required
  • Labelled “not for human consumption”
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9
Q

What is classed as a Category 3 ABP?

A
  • Fit for consumption but not desired e.g. blood
  • Specific parts of animal if passed AMI
  • PMI rejections not posing risk to animal health
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10
Q

Which parts of an animal can be disposed of as Category 3 ABPs if animal passed AMI?

A
  • Head and feathers of poultry
  • Pig bristles
  • Feet
  • Hides and skins
  • Horns
  • Blood of pigs, poultry and ruminants
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11
Q

What is a potential use of Category 3 ABPs?

A

Can be used for raw pet food under certain requirements

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12
Q

What are the requirements for the production of raw pet food using Cat 3 ABPs?

A
  • Rejected at PMI for reason not posing risk to human or animal health
  • Poultry heads passed AMI
  • Storage and transport <7C
  • Labelled as “pet food only” during transport
  • Packaged in new packaging preventing leakage
  • Prevent contamination throughout production until point of sale
  • Sampled for Salmonella and Enterobacteria (not at abattoir)
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13
Q

What is the purpose of controlling ABPs?

A
  • Hygiene
  • Prevent entry of risky material into food chain
  • ANimal and human health
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14
Q

What pieces of legislation regulate ABPs?

A
  • EC 1069/2009
  • EC 142/2011
  • Animal By-Products Enforcement (England) Regulations 2013 SI No 2952/2013
  • Animal By-Products Enforcement (Wales) regulations 2014 SI No 2014/517 (W60)
  • ## EC 852, 853, 854/2004
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15
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring ABP regulations are followed?

A
  • Al except EC 854/2004 are checked by FBO

- Exception is checked by OV/competent authority

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16
Q

What are the responsibilities of the FBO, APHA, LA and OV with regards to ABPs?

A
  • FBO: due diligence
  • APHA: licencing of ABP plants
  • LA: transport of ABP and supervision of ABP plants
  • OV: supervision and enforcement at the abattoir
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17
Q

What are the disposal routes for Category 1 ABPs?

A
  • Approved incinerators
  • Pressure sterilisation followed by permanent marking and landfill
  • Fuel combustion at approved combustion plant
  • Burial at authorised landfill
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18
Q

What are the disposal routes for Category 2 ABPs?

A
  • Same as for Category 1 plus others
  • After processing can be used as fertilisers/soil improvers
  • Fuel combustion
  • Cosmetics
  • Medical devices
  • safe industrial technical uses
  • Manure to land, gut-room waste to non-pasture land (no processing neded)
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19
Q

What routes of disposal can be used for category 3 ABPs?

A
  • Same as cat 1 and 2 plus
  • Pet food plants
  • Technical plants (pharmaceutical)
  • Biogas plants
  • Tanneries
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20
Q

Describe the process of pressure sterilisation of cat 1 and 2 ABPs

A
  • 133C for 20 mins without interruption

- Maintain pressure of 3 bars by removing all air from sterilisation chamber and replacing with steam

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21
Q

What are the ABP disposal exceptions?

A
  • All can go for diagnostic, educational and research purposes and taxidermy
  • All categories for feeding of endangered species (not needed in UK)
  • All for surgical procedures on live animals on farm
  • Cat 2 and 3: feeding zoo/circus animals, reptiles/birds of prey, treatment at approved collection centre for feeding to hounds, approved kennels and maggot farms
22
Q

What are the storage requirements for ABPs at the abattoir?

A
  • Leak proof containers
  • Closely fitting lids
  • Labelled
  • Impervious, easy to clean and disinfect
  • Lidded, separated from fit for human consumption products
  • Well maintained
  • If left out too long, may be moved from cat 2 to cat 1/cat 3 to cat 2
23
Q

What are some exceptions regarding the staining of ABPs?

A
  • cat 3 do not need staining
  • Whole bodies, teaching/research material, dispute over category, OV inspection pending, blood, manure/digestive content are not stained
24
Q

Describe the collection and transport of ABPs from abattoirs

A
  • Dispatched to approved premises only

- Person collecting needs to be licensed for that category

25
Q

What are SRMs?

A

Specified risk materials
- Parts of ruminant likely to pose a risk of infectivity if the animal from which it comes was infected with a TSE disease

26
Q

What are the SRMs of cattle at all ages?

A
  • Tonsils
  • Last 4 metres of small intestine
  • Caecum
  • Mesentery
27
Q

What are the additional SRMs of cattle over 12 months old?

A
  • Skull (excluding mandible) including brain and eyes

- Spinal cord

28
Q

What are the additional SRMs of cattle over 30 months old?

A
  • Vertebral column (including dorsal root ganglion but excluding vertebrae of tail, spinous and transverse process of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, median sacral crest and wings of sacrum)
29
Q

What are the labelling requirements for cattle over 30 months old?

A

Red stripe on lable

30
Q

What is the procedure for SRMs where a cow lacks identification?

A

Vertebral column will be removed

31
Q

What are the SRMs of sheep and goats at all ages?

A
  • Spleen

- Ileum

32
Q

What are the additional SRMs of sheep and goats over 12 months old?

A
  • Skull, including brain, eyes and tonsils

- Spinal cord

33
Q

What legislation covers the BSE testing requirements?

A
  • EC 999/2001 (as amended) (law regarding monitoring, surveillance and eradication of TSEs)
  • TSE England) (No2) Regulations 2010 as amended
  • EC 854/2004 (official controls) as amended
34
Q

What individuals are required to undergo TSE testing?

A
  • Cattle for human and not for human consumption
  • Sheep and goats for human consumption and not for human consumption
  • Infected flocks
35
Q

Outline the TSE testing requirements

A
  • All cattle which die or are killed other than for human consumption aged over 48 months must be tested
  • All emergency slaughter animals or animals found sick at AMI aged over 48 months
  • Animals born before 1st August 1996
  • No sampling in EU healthy animals, except those from Romania, Bulgaria/Croatia
36
Q

Outline the process of BSE testing of cattle in slaughterhouses

A
  • Brain stem taken by FBO, trained by APHA
  • Dispatched to laboratory
  • Carcass and offal and other products only release on receipt of negative test result
  • Not health marked until result recieved
  • Retain securely
  • Ensure traceability
37
Q

Outline the sampling requirements for BSE testing

A
  • Carried out by FBO, trained by APHA
  • FSA agrees RMOP with FBO
  • Sampling tools disposed of as clinical waste
  • Sampling carried out one at a time
38
Q

Outline the requirements for slaughter scheduling for BSE testing

A
  • Scheduled to minimise risk of cross contamination (e.g. placed last in line)
  • OV informed by FBO if casualty animal is coming in
39
Q

What is the role of the vet in relation to ABP?

A
  • Enforcement of ABP
  • In the abattoir: FSA on behald of DEFRA, Scottish Government and Welsh government (risk based enforcement, verbal, written , Statutory notices)
  • Outside abattoir: trading standards, APHA, reporting of suspected breaches along line including transport
  • Supervision, communication of findings and enforcement of regulations
40
Q

Outline the sampling of sheep for TSE testing

A
  • Not all require testing
  • Random selection over 18 months old, size of sample depends on population size
  • Testing required for all scrapie suspected cases and animals DOA or DIL
41
Q

What is meant by the “pluck”?

A

Heart, lungs and liver

42
Q

Compare the appearance of sheep, cow and pigs livers

A
  • Sheep: 3 lobes (L, R, caudal), L and R lobes well separated
  • Pigs: 5 lobes
  • Cow: 3 lobes, (L, R, caudal), L and R poorly separated
43
Q

Compare the appearance of sheep, cow and pig kidneys

A
  • Sheep: classical bean shape, small
  • Cow: very lobulated, no renal pelvis
  • Pig: less curved, more elongated and flattened
44
Q

Compare the appearance of sheep, cow and pig spleen

A
  • Sheep: triangular
  • Cow: elongated and oval
  • Pig: elongated, ends more pointed
45
Q

Why does the identification of hydatid cysts in sheep on PMI in lead to rejection as cat 2?

A

Infectious to dogs which can then infect humans and sheep via proglottids in faeces

46
Q

What treatment would allow beef infected with Cysticercus bovis to go for human consumption?

A
  • Only if it is a single, localised infection

- After freezing for 14 days at -10degreesC to kill parasite

47
Q

Why are emaciated carcasses rejected as category 2?

A

Emaciation may be due to welfare or systemic disease but exact cause unknown

48
Q

What is the outcome for a bovine liver with multiple abscesses on PMI?

A
  • Cat 2 rejection of carcass as may be systemic infection process
  • May also be due to diet so need to review diet on farm (increased risk with acidosis)
49
Q

Why can pig livers affected by Ascaris suum be rejected as cat 3?

A
  • No risk to humans or animals

- Rejected only due to appearance

50
Q

What disease process does pleurisy indicate?

A

Systemic infection

VPH (14 decks)

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