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VPH > Notifiable diseases > Flashcards

Notifiable diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the reasons for a disease being notifiable?

A
  • Internation trade
  • Public health (but not always zoonosis)
  • Animal welfare
  • Wider society
  • Due regard for cost to the community and availability of appropriate solutions
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2
Q

What are the criteria for the inclusion of a disease, infection or infestation in the OIE notifiable disease list?

A

1: Proven international spread of agent
2: At least one country has demonstrated freedom or impending freedom from the disease in a population of susceptible animals, based on provisions of Terrestrial Code
3a: natural transmission to humans proven, associated with severe consequences
3b: disease causes significant morbidity/mortality in domestic animals at level of zone/country
3c: disease shown to/indicated to cause significant morbidity/mortality in wild animal populations
4: reliable means of detection and diagnosis and precise case definition available

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3
Q

What must be included when informing the OIE of an important epidemiological event by sending an Immediate Notification?

A
  • Reason for notification
  • Name of disease
  • Affected species
  • Geographical area affected
  • Control measures applied
  • Any laboratory tests carried out or in progress
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4
Q

What is the role of the OIE regarding disease?

A
  • Support Member Countries’ efforts to prevent transboundary spread of important animal diseases incl. zoonoses
  • Transparent and consistent reporting
  • Harmonisation of disease detection, prevention and control
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5
Q

Describe the list of Human Notifiable Infectious Disease UK

A
  • Medical practitioners have statutory duty to notify the “proper office” at local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of certain diseases
  • Aims to detect outbreaks of disease and epidemics as rapidly as possible
  • Some are zoonoses that are not notifiable when affecting animals
  • Includes syndromes as well as disease agents
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6
Q

Outline the WHO system of notifiable diseases

A
  • International Health Regulations 2005
  • Member states notify WHO of events of urgent and international importance, instead of disease specific notification
  • Consult with WHO in circumstances not at time requiring notification or where related guidance is needed
  • Aim to catch emerging/new diseases/syndromes
  • Algorithm used to decide whether to report
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7
Q

What actions are required following identification of a potential zoonotic disease?

A
  • Report to appopriate authority e.g. APHA, FHI (fish health inspector), OIE, regional bee inspector or NBU (national bee unit)
  • e.g. FMD, duty VO discuss case over phone, must stay on farm, movement restrictions effective immediately samples sent to lab, farm declared Suspect Premises
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8
Q

Describe Rinderpest

A
  • AKA cattle plague
  • Eradicated globally in 2011
  • Morbillivirus, closely related to: measles, canine distemper, pest de petit ruminants
  • Affects ruminant and swine
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9
Q

Describe peste de petit ruminants

A
  • Goat plague (affects sheep and goats)
  • Morbillivirus
  • fever and depression, severe discharge from eyes and nose, coughing, diarrhoea, death
  • Does not usually kill goats and sheep, does cause severe disease and loss of production
  • Spreading to Greece and Turkey
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10
Q

Describe Classical Swine Fever

A
  • Aka hog cholera, pig plague
  • Pestivirus
  • Transmitted in bodily fluids and tissues of sick or dead animals
  • Vertical transmission outcome depends on strain and stage of gestation
  • Congenital infection can be persistently viraemic, shed for 6-12 months before dying
  • Fever, huddling, blotchy skin lesions, convulsions and death
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11
Q

Describe African Swine Fever

A
  • Asfaviridae
  • Sub-saharan Africa, Sardina, Caucasus, Northwest Russia
  • Severe disease, high mortality
  • (Sometimes bloody) V/D, reddening/darkening of skin (esp. ears, snout), gummed up eyes, laboured breathing and coughing, abortion, still births, weak litters, weakness, unwillingness to stand
  • Spread by direct contact, faeces, body fluids, fomites, Ornithodoros ticks
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12
Q

Describe Capropoxvirus

A
  • Poxviridae
  • Lumpy skin disease
  • Spread to Greece and other parts of Eastern Europe, now under control and spread prevented
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13
Q

Describe Foot and Mouth Disease

A
  • Apthavirus (picornavirus)
  • Quick mutation
  • Survives 1 month in environment
  • Transmitted on fomites and wind
  • Can cause sub-clinical to severe disease
  • Some concern over zoonosis (not shown in practice)
  • Vesicles/ulcers in mouth, on tongue, feet, lameness, fever, markedly reduced production
  • Pigs produce large amounts of virus as aerosol
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14
Q

Outline the steps following suspicion of an FMD case

A
  • Report to APHA by telephone, discuss with duty VO, visit to farm
  • Sample taken, sent to Pirbright, farm declared “Suspect Premises”
  • Formal confirmation by Chief Veterinary Officer, informs OIE and EC, reports regularly to both
  • England loses FMD free status, exports of cattle and cattle products stop (min. from within control zone)
  • Protection zone, surveillance zone and restricted zone put in place
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15
Q

Where is the protection zone in an FMD outbreak?

A

Minimum of 3km radius from the IP

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16
Q

Where is the surveillance zone in an FMD outbreak?

A

Minimum of 10km radius from IP

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17
Q

Where is the restricted zone in an FMD outbreak?

A

National movement ban across GB

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18
Q

Describe the requirements placed on suspected premises of FMD

A
  • Warning/keep out signs
  • Records of animals, bedding etc on site
  • Isolation of animals
  • Prevention of movement of animals and any movements on and off farm that may spread infection
  • Disinfectants at entrances and exits
  • Rodent control
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19
Q

Describe the requirements placed on infected premises of FMD

A
  • Restrictions imposed on premises remain in force
  • Susceptible animals humanely culled
  • Carcasses disposed of and preliminary disinfection carried out on farm
  • Epidemiological investigation continues to establish where the disease came from and where it may have spread
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20
Q

Describe carcass disposal in FMD

A
  • Normally commercial incineration, rendering or licensed commercial landfill
  • Ensure on-farm pyres or mass burial not used in future (but cannot be ruled out if demand exceeds capacity of preferred disposal options
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21
Q

Describe pre-emptive culling in FMD

A
  • Animal Health Act allows culling of animals NOT exposed to FMD infection where at risk
  • Only where disease control (slaughter) protocol published, vaccination considered
  • Vaccination preferred, aim to avoid pre-emptive culling
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22
Q

Outline the requirements placed on contact premises in an FMD outbreak

A
  • If high risk: premises considered dangerous contact, animals culled
  • If low risk: premises and animals under restriction, health status monitored for 3-4 weeks from last known contact with IP, sampled on epidemiological basis
23
Q

Explain what is meant by contact premises in FMD

A
  • Premises where disease may have come from or spread to
  • Can arise through: movement of animals, people, farm equipment, vehicles, slurry/manure, geographical location
  • When contact premises identified, assessment made about level of risk (high/low)
24
Q

What are the impacts of an FMD outbreak?

A
  • Significant economic costs to farmer and government
  • Welfare culling if movement restrictions prevent access to food
  • Employment of temporary staff
25
Q

Describe bovine tuberculosis epidemiology

A
  • Combination of diseases, M. tuberculosis, bovis and microti
  • Zoonotic, controlled by pasteurisation
  • Mainly older animals
  • Most long and short distance transmission is between cattle
  • In some areas, badgers are main source of bTB outbreaks
26
Q

List the potential tests for bTB

A
  • Single and comparative skin tests
  • Gamma interferon tests
  • Post-mortem examination and culture of all positive tests for gamma-interferon and comparative skin tests
  • Others
27
Q

Describe the skin tests for bTB

A
  • Single Intradermal Comparative Cervical Tuberculin (SICCT)
  • Clip 2 sites at border of anterior and middle third of neck, 12.5cm apart, 10cm below crest, measure thickness of skin fold with calipers
  • Avian tuberculin inoculated into top site, bovine tuberculin into lower
  • 72 hours later measure thickness
  • Delayed hypersensitivity reaction causes thickening of skin if there is a reaction
28
Q

Describe the bTB blood test

A
  • Into laboratory within 5 hours of sampling
  • Measure interferon gamma released by WBCs
  • WBC production increased on stimulation, if exposed before (i.e. positive) leads to increased release of IFN-y
29
Q

Describe bTB testing monitoring in abattoirs

A
  • Testing important for surveillance
  • Skin-test positive cattle sent to designated abattoirs
  • If only 1 lesion found in lymph node then nodes and viscera condemned but rest is fit for human consumption
  • Widespread and larger lesions likely to be found in non-reactor cattle
  • Skin test positive animals detected early so have few or no lesions usually
30
Q

What is spoligotyping and what is it used for?

A
  • Specific Oligonucleotide Typing
  • Looks for presence/absence of variable length “spacers” between repeated sequences
  • Consider as bar code
  • Used in bTB epidemiology investigations
31
Q

What is WGS and what is it used for?

A
  • Whole Genome Sequencing
  • Looks for mutations (single nucleotide polymorphisms)
  • Used in bTP epidemiology investigations
32
Q

Describe the epidemiology of rabies

A
  • Zoonotic
  • Group of viruses of genus and family Lyssavirus
  • Largely bat disease exccept Calssical Rabies Virus
  • Some covered by vaccination
  • Clinically divided into furious and dumb rabies
  • Urban and syvaltic forms
33
Q

Describe urban rabies

A
  • Mainly domestic animals
  • Feral, pet or community held dogs
  • Asia, Africa and Turkey mainly
34
Q

Describe sylvatic rabies

A
  • Foxes mainly
  • Started in Russia, now in South Eastern Europe
  • Vaccine in food in woods used to control presence in wild populations of foxes
35
Q

Describe human rabies

A
  • Largely disease of childhood
  • Preventable by cheap vaccine
  • Common in developing countries, poverty areas
  • Once show clinical signs death will follow
36
Q

Describe rabies in the UK

A
  • No rabies in UK foxes
  • Do have Bat Lyssavirus, identical clinically to that caused by Classical Rabies Virus
  • European Bat Lyssavirus type 2 carried by Daubenton bats
37
Q

Outline control measures for rabies

A
  • Muzzles, culling quarantining
  • Only quarantine from some parts of the world, imported animals require passport, vaccine and serological test
  • No treatment in non-humans
  • Vaccine is killed vaccine (or live recombinant in wild animals)
  • If bitten, administer another dose of vaccine if low risk, high risk administer dose of antiserum
38
Q

Describe Avian influenza epidemiology

A
  • Genetic drift, shift and reassortment of segmented influenza syndrome A means that is constantly changing
  • RNA viruses with segmented genome
  • Highly pathogenic and low pathogenic H5 and H7 are notifiable
  • Lots of birds carrying AI at all times
  • Migratory birds introduce strange strains and infect chickens
  • Can be zoonotic
39
Q

What are the steps following identification of avian influenza on farm?

A
  • Zone set up around primary site
  • In IP, birds culled
  • In primary zone, active surveillance including visits, sampling, movement restrictions
  • In secondary zone, increased awareness, surveillance, some movement restrictions
  • Tracing and risk based sampling carried out
40
Q

Describe the control measures for avian influenza

A
  • Biosecurity measures for hobby as well as commercial keepers
  • Make area unattractive to wild birds
  • Feed and water birds in enclosed area, prevent access for wild birds
  • Minimise movement in and out of bird enclosures
  • Clean and disinfect footwear, keep areas where birds live clean and tidy
  • Reduce existing contamination, fence off wet/boggy areas
41
Q

Describe the epidemiology of bluetonge

A
  • RNA virus spread by Culicoides midges, blown over channel from Europe
  • Affects all ruminants
  • Production losses significant, not found in UK
42
Q

Describe the clinical signs of Blutongue

A
  • Nasal discharge
  • Salivation
  • Oedema of muzzle
  • Coronitis and laminitis causing lameness
  • Rise in temperature is first sign, then hyperaemia of oral cavity and mucus membranes, then oedema of lips, tongue and face
43
Q

How can Bluetongue virus be controlled?

A

Vaccines available, monitor situation in Europe to gauge risk of disease in UK

44
Q

Why is Bluetongue virus notifable but not Schmallenberg?

A

There are no reasonable steps that can be taken to control the incidence or spread of Schmallenberg, but there are for Bluetongue

45
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Anthrax

A
  • Bacillus anthracis, Gram +ve rod, vegetative state causes disease, spores resistant for many years in soil and other materials
  • Infects wide range of herbivores, some omnivores and some birds
  • Peracute, acute, chronic states
  • High susceptibility in ruminants, moderate in pigs and horses, low in carnivores and negligible in bids
  • More of a problem in tropics
  • Quickly leads to death but can be treated with antibiotics
46
Q

Describe the clinical signs of anthrax in cattle and sheep

A
  • Sudden death most important
  • Staggering
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Fever
  • Disorientation
  • Abortion
  • Bloody discharge from mouth, nose and anus
47
Q

Describe the clinical signs of anthrax in horses

A
  • Sudden death most important
  • Fever
  • Chills Anorexia
  • Depression
  • Colic
  • Bloody diarrhoea
48
Q

Describe the clinical signs of anthrax in pigs/carnivores

A
  • Sudden death most important
  • Swelling of throat
  • Difficulty breathing and swallowing
49
Q

Describe the symptoms of anthrax inhalation

A
  • Incubation 2-60 days but quick progression once started
  • Stage 1: fever, cough headache, vomiting, chills, weakness, abdominal pain, shortness of breath, chest pain
  • Stage 2: fever, difficulty breathing, sweating, bluish discolouration of skin, shock and death
50
Q

Describe the steps following identification of anthrax

A
  • Report to APHA
  • Do not open carcass
  • Movement of animals, waste products, feed and bedding from affected and adjacent premises if prohibited
  • PPE for personnel, use sporicidal disinfectants
  • Formalin fumigation go contaminated buildings
  • Immediate disposal (incineration) of carcasses, bedding, feed, contaminated animal
  • Prevent access of scavenger animals (insecticides)
  • Isolate in-contact animals and keep under close observation for at least 2 weeks
51
Q

What is the causative agent of BSE, vCJD and CWD?

A

Prions

52
Q

What are the main pieces of legislation that regulate notifiable diseases?

A
  • For bees, Bee Diseases and Pest Control Order 2006
  • International Health Regulation 2005 (requires member states to notify WHO in events or urgent and international importance)
53
Q

List enteric zoonoses

A
  • Hepatitis E
  • Campylobacter, Salmonella, E.coli (VTEC and AMR)
  • Yersinia
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Giardia
  • Toxoplasma
  • Cestodes
  • Toxocara
  • Trichinella
54
Q

Describe Coxiella burnetti

A
  • Respiratory zoonosis
  • Worldwide, common in ruminants
  • Different strains with different pathogenicity, human infection uncommon
  • Rare in UK
  • Abortion in sheep and goats and other species
  • Flu like disease in most people, abortion possible
  • Can cause severe systemic disease and may become chronic and debilitating

VPH (14 decks)

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