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Food technology 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Outline the importance of bees

A
  • Honey production
  • Pollination
  • Medicinal products
  • Cosmetics
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2
Q

Outline reasons for the declining be population in developing countries

A
  • Change in agricultural practice
  • Monocultures unattractive to bees, food is not available throughout year
  • Addition of pesticides
  • Introduction of diseases and parasites
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3
Q

What is the purpose of the National Bee Unit?

A

To achieve a sustainable and healthy population of honey bees for pollination and honey production in England and Wales, via strengthened partnership working between Government and other stakeholders

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4
Q

Outline the structure of honey bee colonies

A
  • 60,000 workers, 2000 drones, 1 queen

- In winter, 10,000 workers, no drones 1 queen

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5
Q

Outline the honey bee lifecycle

A
  • Each egg laid in hexagonal wax cell, hatch into larvae
  • Not all eggs treated equally
  • Workers “cap” cells when larvae are ready to pupate
  • Adult emerges at different times depending on caste
  • Queen: 16 days, workers 21 days, drones 24 days
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6
Q

Outline honey bee feeding

A
  • Nectar, is mainly sucrose. Converted to glucose and fructose by invertase
  • Nectar regurgitates into storage cells
  • Pollen mixed with nectar, collected in baskets, packed into cells by worker “house” bees
  • Workers forage for food towards end of life
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7
Q

Outline the structure of honey bee hives

A
  • British National Hive used
  • Series of stacked boxes
  • Used for brooding and honey production
  • Entrance at bottom into brood box, then queen excluder, then honey supers then wooden crown board and waterproof roof
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8
Q

What is the function of the brood box in a bee hive?

A

Is the heart of the colony where the queen lays her eggs

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9
Q

What is the function of the queen excluder in a bee hive?

A

Prevents access of the queen to the levels above but workers are able to access. Allows storage of excess honey in honey supers

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10
Q

Describe honey production in the hive

A
  • Nectar brought in, stored in honey supers
  • Dilute sugar solution
  • Thermoregulation and ventilation by bees to evaporate water from solution
  • Once approx 17% water, capped with wax to seal
  • Good hive produces 60lbs in a season, average is 25lbs
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11
Q

Outline the harvesting of honey

A
  • July and August
  • Honey released by sliding long knife over surface of cells
  • Remove wax cap and frames placed in centrifuge to spin out honey
  • Must not remove too much as large colonies will starve
  • Honey filtered and pasteurised before sale
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12
Q

Describe the UK honey market

A
  • 80% reliant on foreign imports
  • Main EU suppliers: Germany, Hungary, Spain and France
  • Main Third Country suppliers: Argentina, New Zealand, China, Mexico, India
  • Most honey is blended
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13
Q

Describe migratory bee keeping

A
  • Type of flower foraged impacts flavour and texture of product
  • Heather highly valued
  • May move to these areas (Yorkshire Moors)
  • Can be successful if manage well, good bees, good livestock management and good weather conditions
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14
Q

What are the main microbiological and pharmacological residue issues associated with honey production?

A

Clostridium botulinum and veterinary residues such as streptomycin

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15
Q

Describe the issues associated with Clostridium botulinum in honey

A
  • Viable spores found in honey
  • Infant botulism is a risk (paralysis and death)
  • Immature gut flora cannot compete
  • Do not feed to children <12 months old
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16
Q

Describe the issues associated with pharmacological residues in honey

A
  • No MRLs for antimicrobials in honey sold in the EU as are not permitted to use antimicrobials
  • In some cases APHA permits use of oxytetracycling BUT cannot be sold for 6 months
  • Few products are authorised for apiculture
  • Chloramphenicol, streptomycin, tetracyclines and sulphonamides are tested for, has led to some import bans where found
  • Risk of pesticides also being present (organophosphates, organochlorines, metals e.g. cadmium and lead)
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17
Q

Who has responsibility for residue testing of honey in the UK?

A

VMD via the NBU

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18
Q

What factors may affect bee colony productivity?

A
  • Management (host genetics, pesticides, husbandry, nutrition)
  • Environment (pesticides, climate, nutrition)
  • Pests and diseases (varroa, nosema, viruses)
  • Are all inter linked
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19
Q

What is the role of vets in bee colony management?

A
  • Bees are vital to economy and food security
  • Control of diseases and pests therefore important
  • Use of licensed therapeutic products
  • Drug resistance and residues potential
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20
Q

What legislation covers the control of bee disease?

A

Bees Act 1980

  • Orders from ministers and sec of state to control diseases and pests affecting honey bees
  • Provides powers of entry for authorised persons
  • Statutory orders list diseases against which statutory action must be taken
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21
Q

List the important diseases of bees and state whether they are notifiable or not

A
  • European Foul Brood (notifiable)
  • American Foul Brood (notifiable)
  • Tropilaelaps mites (notifiable)
  • Small hive beetle (notifiable)
  • Varroa destructor
  • Nosema
  • Asian hornet
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22
Q

Outline European Foul Brood

A
  • Melisossocus plutonius bacteria most important cause (are others)
  • Internation
  • Affects brood before capped and develops into adults
  • Brood exhibits shotgun pattern
  • Shook-swarm technique can be used in mild cases
  • Destroy colony in severe cases
  • Occasionally AHVHA has allowed use of oxytetracycline to treat EFB, but is not first choice
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23
Q

Describe the appearance of larvae affected by European Foul Brood

A
  • Dead larvae
  • Brown or tan colour
  • Melted appearance
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24
Q

What is the shook-swarm technique?

A

Transfer of adults to new hive and destruction of old comb and hive

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25
Q

Outline American Foul Brood

A
  • Paenibacillus larvae, Gram +ve spore forming bacteria
  • More severe than EFB
  • Brood die after being capped
  • Does not affect adult bees
  • Larvae infected by consumption of contaminated feed, multiplies in gut until larvae die
  • Spores can be viable for >40 years, easily transferred to other hives by fomites or bees
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26
Q

Outline the control of AFB

A
  • Destroy colony, burn equipment under supervision of inspector
  • Good biosecurity, acquitision of bees from reputable sources
  • Not sharing equipment with other bee keepers
  • Antimicrobials not used
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27
Q

How is AFB diagnosed?

A
  • Ropiness test

- Stir contents of cell with small probe, as probe is pulled out “rope” 1-3cm long will form if AFB present

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28
Q

Outline Tropilaelaps

A
  • Parasitic mites affecting developing brood and adults
  • Mites feed on haemolymph of developing larvae, leads to brood patterns, stunted adults and potential colony collapse
  • Abnormal brood development (deformed wing virus in developing larvae)
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29
Q

What are the consequences of Tropilaelaps infection?

A
  • Abnormal development of brood
  • Deformed wings
  • Cannot forage for food
  • Colonyy starves
  • Is notifiable
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30
Q

Outline the control of Tropilaelaps

A
  • Exact geographical range unknown but currently not found in UK
  • Mainly SE Asia
  • Import control is main defence
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31
Q

Outline the Small Hive Beetle

A
  • Aethina tumida
  • Widespread in many areas but not in UK
  • larvae eat wax, pollen, honey, bee brood and eggs
  • Contaminate honey with faeces causing it to ferment
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32
Q

Outline the control of the Small Hive Beetle

A
  • Good husbandry is effective defence

- Unlikely that small hive beetle could be eradicated once present in the UK

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33
Q

Outline Varroa destructor

A
  • Parasitie mite
  • Reproduces in sealed brood cells, feeds on haemolymph
  • Present in all inhabited continents except Australia
  • Vector for pathogen such as deformed wing virus
  • Most colonies die if let untreated
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34
Q

Outline the control of Varroa destructor

A
  • Integrated pest management
  • Chemical treatments e.g thymol, flumethrin tau fluvalinate, formic acid
  • Oxalic acid effective but unlicensed
  • Dusting with icing sugar, trap combs also effective
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35
Q

Outline Nosema appis

A
  • Microsporidian (fungal) parasite, invades midgut of bees, causes dysentery
  • Infects gut of adult bees
  • If queen infected, ovaries degenerate, egg production drops
  • Can reduce honey yields significantly
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36
Q

Outline the diagnosis and control of Nosema apis

A
  • Yellow stripes of faecal matter seen in infected colonies and on hive
  • Diagnosis by light microscopy or PCR
  • No licensed treatments available
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37
Q

Outline Asian hornets as a disease of bees

A
  • Vespa velutina nigrithorax
  • Highly motile, very few required to destroy entire colony
  • Attempts to control in France highly unsuccessful
  • Risk of spread to Uk
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38
Q

List the common steps in the flow diagram of fish processing

A
  • Gutting and deheading
  • Desliming
  • Weighing
  • Filleting
  • Trimming
  • Pinbone removal
  • Skinning
  • Fillet washing
  • Grading
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39
Q

Outline “desliming” in fish processing

A
  • Removal of fish slime
  • Improves presentation
  • Reduces bacterial contamination
  • Can use high water pressure in highly mechanised plants
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40
Q

Outline filleting in fish processing

A
  • Cutting fish into fillets
  • Can be manual or mechanical
  • Efficiency essential to not affect yield
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41
Q

Outline “trimming” in fish processing

A
  • Trimming methods vary
  • Depends on throughput, labour costs, traceability requirements
  • Can be highly advanced automatic or basic manual
42
Q

Outline manual trimming in fish processing

A
  • Most designed as active lines
  • Trimming conducted on conveyor belt while it is running
  • Throughput depends on fish size and trim level
43
Q

Outline fillet washing in fish processing

A
  • Prior to packing, freezing, further handling washing unit used
  • rinse off slime, blood, remains from filleting, trimming, pinboning
  • Can reduce bacterial count
44
Q

What is the main cause of food-borne illness from fish?

A
  • Fish usually only lightly cooked, raw or pickled

- Increases chance of pathogen survival

45
Q

What are the main human health hazards from fish?

A
  • Food-borne pathogens
  • Zoonoses
  • Allergens
  • Toxins
  • Contaminants
  • Antimicrobial resistance risks
46
Q

What are the main zoonoses of fish?

A
  • Chlonorchis sinensis
  • Diphyllobothrium latum
  • Anisakis spp
  • Mycobacterium marinum
47
Q

What is Chlonorchis sinensis?

A

Trematode

48
Q

Describe the infective stage of Chlonorchis sinensis

A
  • Metacercaria

- Found in musculature, subcut tissue, scales, fins and gills of cyprinids, clupeids

49
Q

Outline the zoonotic effects of Chlonorchis sinensis

A
  • Also found in rats, cats, dogs, pigs and humans
  • In humans can be foung in bile ducts
  • Can be fatal as infection may cause pancreatitis and lead to liver carcinoma
50
Q

Describe Diphyllobothrium latum

A
  • Cestode
  • Procercoid found in musculature and viscera of marine and freshwater fish species
  • Also found in birds, bears, seals, walruses, dogs
51
Q

Describe human infection with Diphyllobothrium latum

A
  • Humans are not end host
  • Found in mucosa of ileum and jejunum of humans
  • Infection usually asymptomatic, can cause malabsorption, anaemia and weight loss
  • Praziquantel used
52
Q

Describe Anisakis spp.

A
  • Nematode
  • life cycle involves marine crustaceans, fish, squid and mammals
  • Larvae found in viscera and muscle many fish spp
  • Definitive hosts are marine mammals
53
Q

Describe human infection with Anisakis spp.

A
  • Adult nematide in intestine of humans
  • Infection by consumption of raw/pickled fish
  • Invasive and non-invasive form
  • Non-invasive asymtpmatic
  • Invasive = severe reaction, bloody stools, nausea, ulcers
  • Can result in hypersensitivity
  • Treatment is surgery
54
Q

Describe Mycobacterium marinum

A
  • Ubiquitous resistant bacteria, cause disease in ornamental fish
  • Aka aquarist’s finger
  • Cutaneous nodular lesions in humans associated with wounds
  • Slow response to antibiotic treatment
55
Q

List some biological hazards associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses (most common aetiological agent)
  • Chemical
  • Organics
  • Biotocins
56
Q

List the bacteria associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Salmonella spp.
  • Shigella spp.
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus, vulnificus, cholerae
  • Campylobacter spp
  • Listeria monocytogenes
57
Q

List the viruses associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Norovirus

- Hepatitis A virus

58
Q

List the organics associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Dioxins
  • Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
  • Polycyclci Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs)
  • Pesticides
59
Q

List the chemicals associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Heavy metals including mercury
  • cadmium
  • Lead
60
Q

List the biotoxin diseases associated with bivalve consumption

A
  • Paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP)
  • Diarrhoeic shellfish poisoning (DSP)
  • Amnesic shellfish poisoning (ASP)
  • Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning (NSP)
61
Q

Explain why shellfish can cause health problems in humans

A
  • Many shellfish areas impacted by sewage
  • Filter large amounts of water per hour
  • Filtration results in accumulation of toxins, bacteria, viruses etc within the shellfish
  • Shellfish are often eaten raw or lightly cooked
62
Q

Describe Vibrio vulnificus

A
  • Warm sea water (>13dC)
  • Not associated with sewage
  • Contaminated seafood or open infections
  • Causes VD, abdominal pain, septicaemia and death
  • Blistering skin esions
  • oysters are frequent source
  • Global warming may increase presence in Europe
63
Q

Describe Vibrio parahaemolyticus

A
  • Gastroenteritis

- Readily detected in ~30% of shellfish samples

64
Q

Describe Norovirus

A

Intestinal disease

  • Major problem in contained populations
  • Incubation period 1-4 days
  • Clinical signs ~2days long, usually complete recovery
  • Susceptible to reinfection 5-12 months after previous episode
65
Q

Describe Hepatitis A virus

A
  • Endemic infection in developing countries
  • In developed countries, large proportion susceptible
  • Stable, long incubation period (2-6 weeks)
  • Serious debilitating disease
  • Self-limiting, rarely causes death
  • Patient incapacitated for several months
66
Q

Describe the clinical signs of Hepatitis A infection in humans

A
  • Overt hepatitis mainly in adults, in children only mild illness
  • Signs: fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain, jaundice
  • Recovery is complete, long term immunity
67
Q

Describe algal toxins

A
  • Phytoplankton species produce biotoxins
  • Filter feeding shellfish accumulate these in flesh
  • DSP persistent problem in some Uk coastal areas, PSP very rare, ASP very rare and fatal
  • Cooking shellfish will not destroy toxins
  • Resistant to freezing
68
Q

How is the risk from algal toxins reduced?

A
  • Weekly sampling

- Reduced to monthly if supported by risk assessment

69
Q

What control measures are used to control/reduce the human health risks from fish?

A
  • Freezing
  • Cooking
  • Water depuration
  • Cleaning/disinfection of equipment in food processing plants
  • Monitoring
70
Q

Outline some of the tasks performed under EC 854/2004 with regards to fish production

A
  • Information and guidance on relevant analytical methods
  • Working with national reference labs on application of methods
  • Coordinating research into new methods
  • Organising trainign courses and workshops
  • Collaborating with third country labs
  • Providing scientific and technical assistance to the European Commission
  • Helping reference labs implement quality assurance systems, e.g. accreditation
71
Q

Who carries out the monitoring of bacteriological and viral contamination of bivalve molluscs?

A

Centre for Environment, Fisheries and Aquaculture Science (CEFAS) from the UK, which is the European Union Reference Laboratory (EURL)

72
Q

Outline the requirements regarding the freezing of fishery products

A
  • All products destined to be eaten raw must be frozen before use
  • Includes products that will be marinated and salted
  • Also where smoking does not lead to core temperature of 60degrees for at least 1 min
  • Must be frozen at -20degrees for 24 hours OR -35degrees for 15hours
  • 4 exceptional conditions
73
Q

Why is freezing used as a control measure in fisheries?

A

Protects consumer against parasites (does not kill the parasite) e.g. Anisakis

74
Q

Outline the exception for the freezing of fishery products

A

1: Where products have been or will be heat treated at a level that will kill viable parasites (60degrees for 1 min except trematodes)
2: Fish preserved as frozen for long enough to kill viable parasites (-18degrees for 4 days for storage, transport and distribution)
3: Wild catches authorised by FSA where evidence shows no health hazard at fishing grounds (none of these in UK)
4: Farmed fish where are cultured from embryos and fed on diet that cannot contain viable parasites, environment free from parasites, evidence that fishery products have no parasites

75
Q

Why is cooking used as a control measure in fishery products?

A

Kills parasites, viruses and bacteria, however does not inactivate biotoxins

76
Q

Why is cleaning and disinfection effective in controlling health hazards from fishery products?

A
  • Organic residues are good source of nutrients for microorganisms that can develop and establish on surfaces
  • Biofilms can then contaminate the food processed on these
  • Key target is Listeria monocytogenes
77
Q

Why is water depuration used in the control of health hazards from fishery products?

A
  • Effective against bacteria normally faecal contaminants, excreted and present in water)
  • Poorly effective against viruses as these are within the flesh of the animal
  • Not consistently effective at reducing contamination with biotoxins
  • Relies on harvesters compliance
78
Q

What is water depuration?

A

Seawater from tanks (particularly for shellfish) continuously pumped through an ultraviolet chamber

79
Q

Outline the method classification of shellfish harvesting areas

A
  • Inshore waters monitored closely for contamination
  • At height of season tested weekly
  • Content of faecal coliforms measured, used as indication of general bacterial and viral contamination
  • Grading from A to D where A is safest and D is poorest
80
Q

Describe the criteria and treatment for a category A shellfish harvesting area

A
  • Criteria: molluscs contain less than 230 E. coli per 100g of flesh
  • Treatment: can be harvested for direct human consumption
81
Q

Describe the criteria and treatment for a category B shellfish harvesting area

A
  • 90% of samples molluscs <4,600 E. coli for 100g of flesh
  • 10% of samples <46, 000 E. coli per 100g of flesh
  • Treatment: human consumption after depuration or re-laying in an approved class A area or after approved heat treatment process
82
Q

Describe the criteria and treatment for a category C shellfish harvesting areas

A
  • Criteria: <46,000 E coli per 100g of flesh
  • Treatment: human consumption after relaying for at least 2 months in approved relaying area and treatment in a depuration centre or after approved heat treatment process
83
Q

Describe the criteria and treatment for category D shellfish harvesting areas

A
  • Criteria: >46,000 E. coli per 100g of flesh

- Treatment: must not be harvested or offered for human consumption

84
Q

List the farmed marine finfish

A
  • Atlantic salmon
  • Cod
  • Halibut
  • Turbot
85
Q

List the farmed freshwater finfish

A
  • Rainbow trout
  • Brown trout
  • Carp
  • Barramundi
  • Tilapia
  • Pangasius
86
Q

Outline the reasons for farming fish

A
  • Food production
  • Stocking recreational fisheries
  • Diversity of species
  • Pet trade
87
Q

What are the different methods of mussel farming?

A
  • Wild harvest
  • Seabed culture
  • Suspended culture
88
Q

What is mussel growth dependent on?

A
  • Natural plankton must be present (no additional food is added to water)
  • Stable natural habitat to settle and grow into adult stock
89
Q

Outline wild harvest mussel farming

A
  • Mussels grow naturally in large beds subtidally or between tides
  • Occurs in many areas by towed dredge or hand-raking at low tide
  • All operations must meet water quality and food safety regulations
90
Q

Outline seabed and suspended culture mussel farming

A
  • Locating and fishing seed mussel ~10mm length from offshore beds, relay in more productive/protected location (lay)
  • In suspended culture, grow on ropes/floats until harvested 18-24 months later
91
Q

What other activities may take place in areas of mussel cultivation?

A
  • Other fish farms
  • Leisure
  • Shipping
92
Q

What are the EU’s End Product Standards regarding mussels?

A
  • Must be alive
  • Fresh and in good condition
  • Contain inter-valvular fluid
  • Respond to sharp tap
  • Meet specific bacterial and toxin standards
93
Q

What are the licensing and location regulations for fish farming in Scotland?

A
  • No formal license, instead permission from 3 institutions
  • Planning permission from local council, Marine licence from marine Scotland, discharge licence from Scottish Environment Protection Agency
  • MAB depends on location
94
Q

What is MAB in fish farming?

A
  • Maximum Allowed Biomass
  • Determines for each area based on environmental concerns e.g. capacity of local marine environment to accommodate fish farm
95
Q

Describe the fish farming licence distribution in Scotland

A
  • Legal to trade licenses, no restrictions on number, but is limit on production quantity ascribed to any one company
  • Limit determined by Competition Commission authorities
  • Currently in transitory state: new applications must request planning permission, existing leases without planning permission are undergoing review, if have planning permission are not required to undergo review
96
Q

Describe salmon farming in the UK

A
  • 320 marine sites
  • Mostly West coast of Scotland and Shetland Isles
  • Large multinational companies mianly in Scotland
  • Juveniles (smolts) produced at specialised freshwater hatcheries, 6 months old introduced to seawater cages, harvest 2+yo (2-3kg)
97
Q

Describe trout farming in the UK

A
  • Most freshwater, river or spring sources of water
  • Can also grow in seawater (larger fish)
  • Hatcheries:specialised in producing juveniles to be sold to ongrowing farms. Number reduced
  • Ongrowing farms: produce final product, more than 300 in UK, variable size and practice
98
Q

Describe the rainbow trout broodstock

A
  • All rainbow trout stock in UK is female
  • Grow to desired weight (300-400g) without reaching sexual maturity
  • At sexual maturity growth rate slows and condition loss at spawning time
  • Males reach maturity before 300g
99
Q

What is triploidy?

A

Sterile, no sexual maturity

100
Q

How and why are rainbow trout triploids?

A
  • Eggs subjected to temperature shock in order to induce triploidy
  • Where heavier trout are required as do not want sexual maturity preventing growth past 300-400g

VPH (14 decks)

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