skeleton system Flashcards

1
Q

name the functions of the skeletal system

A

provides structure, support, and protection
essential for locomotion and movement
site of blood cell formation (i.e. hematopoiesis
storehouse for some inorganic minerals, especially calcium
indicator of sex, age, height, weight, racial background, and to some extent medical history

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2
Q

the bone shape classification that is longer than wide, cylindrical with a medullary cavity; main components of limbs.

A

the long bone

humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, fibula, metacarpals, metatarsals, phalanges

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3
Q

the bone shape classification that is roughly cubical, found where mobility is needed, but space is limited

A
short bones 
(carpals and tarsals)
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4
Q

the bone shape classification that are relatively thin bones, with broad surfaces for muscle attachment and/or protection of underlying organs

A

Flat Bones

frontal, parietal, innominate, ribs and scapula

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5
Q

the bone shape classification of irregular shape with numerous projections

A

Irregular bones

sphenoind and scapula

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6
Q

the bone shape classification that has bones containing sizable air spaces; only found in some bones of the skull; reduces weight of the skull, thus reducing the need for large neck muscles.

A

Pneumatic bones

frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid, temporal, mastoid process

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7
Q

the bone shape classification that are small round bones embedded within a tendon and alter the angle of muscle attachment to increase mechanical leverage

A

Sesamoid Bones

patella, and sesamoids of the hands and feet

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8
Q

the carpals and tarsals are classified as what type of bone?

A

Short bones

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9
Q

the frontal bone of the skull fits into what two types of bone?

A

flat and pneumatic bone types

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10
Q

the bone shape classification that is abnormal bone growth from existing normal bone

A

accessory bone

bone spurs

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11
Q

the bone shape classification that is abnormal bone, formed entirely within soft tissue.

A
Heterotropic bone
(some types of kidney stones, gall stones, muscle or tendon calcification)
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12
Q

what bones or groups of bones comprise the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, Hyoid, Vertebral column, Sternum, Ribs

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13
Q

how many bones comprise the Skull?

A

28 bones
Neurocranium: 8 bones
Facial skeleton: 14 bones
Auditory Ossicles: 6 bones

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14
Q

how many bones is the Hyoid?

A

1 bone

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15
Q

How many bone and what are the divisions of the vertebral column?

A
26 bones
Cervical Vertebrae: 7 bones
Thoracic Vertebrae: 12 bones
Lumbar Vertebrae: 5 bones
Sacrum: 1 bone
Coccyx: 1 bone
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16
Q

how many bones comprises the sternum and what is it divided into?

A

1 bone
Manubrium
body of sternum (gladiolus)
xiphoid process

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17
Q

what bones or group of bones comprises the appendicular skeleton?

A

Shoulder girdle
Upper Extremity
Hip
Lower Extremity

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18
Q

how many bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A

2 bones each side;

for a total of 4 bones

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19
Q

how many bones or groups of bones comprise the upper extremity?

A

Arm (brachium) 1 bone each side, 2 bones total
forearm (antebrachium) 2 bones each, 4 total
Hand (manus) 27 bones a side, 54 total
30 bones for each side of upper extremity

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20
Q

what are the bone groups of the hand and how many bones in each group?

A

wrist (carpus): 8 bones side, 16 total
Palm (metacarpals): 5 bones side, 10 total
Fingers (phalanges): 14 bones side, 28 total

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21
Q

how many bones comprise the hip?

A

1 bone side, total 2

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22
Q

what bones or groups of bones comprise the lower extremity?

A

thigh: 1 bone side, 2 total
Leg: 3 bones side, 6 total
foot: 26 bones side, 52 total
30 bones of each side of lower extremity

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23
Q

what are the bone groups of the foot and how many in each group?

A

Ankle (tarsus): 7 bones side, 14 total
Metatarsals: 5 bones side, 10 total
Toes (phalanges): 14 bones side, 28 total

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24
Q

the bone shaft, primary center of ossification is known as?

A

Diaphysis

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25
Q

The term often associated with area of articulation with another bone or site of excessive muscle tension; secondary center of ossification

A

Epiphysis

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26
Q

The term for the area separating the diaphysis and epiphysis, composed of hyaline cartilage

A

epiphyseal plate

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27
Q

The membranes covering outer and inner bone surfaces , respectively

A

Periosteum and Endosteum

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28
Q

what is the cavity at the center of a long bone?

A

Medullary Cavity

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29
Q

The covering of the bone where it articulates with other bones, it is composed of hyaline cartilage?

A

Articular Cartilage

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30
Q

the three types of surface features on bones?

A

Elevations
Indentions
Facets

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31
Q

The three kinds of bone elevations?

A

Linear
rounded
projections

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32
Q

types of linear elevations from smallest to largest?

A

line, ridge, crest

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33
Q

types of rounded elevations from smallest to largest?

A

tubercle, protuberance, tuber/tuberosity, trochanter, malleolus

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34
Q

the types of projection elevations from smallest to largest?

A

spine, process

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35
Q

the two types of indention surface features?

A

Depressions

passageway

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36
Q

the types of depression indentions from smallest to largest?

A

groove, sulcus, fossa, fovea, cavity

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37
Q

the types of passageway indentions from smallest from largest?

A

foramen, canal, meatus

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38
Q

describe the facet type of surface features?

A

flattened, smooth surfaces for bone articulation

39
Q

what two substances compose bony connective tissue?

A

collagen

hydroxyapatite

40
Q

what are the organic fibers, that gives strength under tensile forces?

A

collagen fibers

41
Q

what is the inorganic mineral substance, that gives strength under compressive forces?

A

hydroxyapatite

42
Q

what are the three types of mature bony connective tissue?

A

spongy bone
compact bone
subchondral bone

43
Q

the type of mature bony connective tissue is found in the interior of the bone?

A

spongy bone

44
Q

the type of mature bony connective tissue is composed of osteons and found on the exterior of the bone?

A

compact bone

45
Q

the type of mature boony connective tissue found underlying articular cartilage, making up the facet surface?

A

subchondral bone

46
Q

what are the five divisions of compact bone?

A

lamellae, central canal, Lacunae, canaliculi, and perforating canals

47
Q

the concentric layers of bony connective tissue that is part of compact bone?

A

Lamellae

48
Q

the part of compact bone that contains vascular structures and nerves?

A

central canal

49
Q

the holes found between lamellae?

A

the Lacunae

50
Q

The passageways connecting lacunae to each other and to the central canal?

A

canaliculi

51
Q

the canals connecting central canals to each other

A

the perforating canals

52
Q

what are the three types of bone cells?

A

osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteocytes

53
Q

what are the bone cells that lay down new bony connective tissue and are located within the central canal of osteons and beneath the periosteum and originates from embryonic cells?

A

Osteoblasts

54
Q

the bone cells that are former osteoblasts and are found residing within the Lacunae; they maintain surrounding bone tissue and regulate mineral content?

A

osteocytes

55
Q

the bone cells that destroy other bone cells. they are large and multi-nucleated

A

osteoclasts

56
Q

what is Wolf’s Law?

A

when a bone remodels its shape according to the way force is transmitted through it

57
Q

types of bone from a developmental perspective?

A

intramembranous and endochondral

58
Q

the bones at the top of the skull and the clavicle are developmentally classified as what type of bone?

A

intramembranous

59
Q

the bones at the base of the skull, all postcranial bones, including part of the clavicle are developmentally classified as what type of bone?

A

endochondral

60
Q

what is the first part of the ontongenetic process in endochondral bones?

A

cartilaginous model forms (composed of hyaline cartilage)

61
Q

(cartilage disintegrating and excavating the interior of the bone; blood vessels invade, bringing undifferentiated connective tissue cells) is what step of the ontogenetic process in endochondral bone?

A

it is the second step of the ontogenetic process

62
Q

what is the third step of the ontogenetic process of endochondral bone?

A

the connective tissue cells will differentiate into osteoblasts, which starts forming spongy bone

63
Q

the step of the enchondral otogenetic process (where the periosteum forms; and osteoblasts beneath the periosteum forms compact bone.)

A

the fourth step and ends the major steps of bone formation. the final step is further growth taking place in two directions

64
Q

the fifth and final step on the ontogenetic process of endochondral bone is further growth in what two directions?

A

Between the diaphysis and the epiphysis (interstitial growth)
And an increase in over-all size (appositional growth)

65
Q

the three divisions of the final step of the endochondral onotogenetic process, where growth is taking place between the diaphysis and the epihysis.

A
  1. blood vessels inavde the ends of bone as well, which become secondary centers of ossification…
  2. Epiphyseal plate is a zone of cartilage remaining between primary and secondary ossification centers, site of active growth…
  3. growth ceases when plate ossifies…
66
Q

the two divisions of the final step of the onotogenetic process of enchodral bone where there is an increase of over-all size?

A
  1. new compact bone deposited by osteoblasts just below the periosteum…
  2. osteoclasts at inner bone surface destroy bony connective tissue and enlarge the medullary cavity (if present); remodel compact bone/spongy bone interface…
67
Q

the first step on the ontogenetic process in intramembranous bones?

A

a membrane forms around blood vessels

68
Q

the second step of the ontogenetic process of intramembranous bone?

A

the undifferentiated connective tissue cells around blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts, which start forming spongy bone

69
Q

what is the third step of the ontogenetic process of intramembranous bone?

A

the periosteum forms and underlying connective tissue cells differentiate into osteoblasts, which start forming compact bone below the periosteum

70
Q

the fourth and final step of the ontogenetic process of intramembranous?

A

the remianing growth takes place via mechanism similar to appositional growth of endochondral bone

71
Q

the clinical nutritional disorder that is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C?

A

deficiency leads to scurvy as Vitamin C is necessary for proper collagen formation.

72
Q

the clinical nutritional disorder that is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D?

A

a deficiency leads to Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults. Vitamin D is necessary for proper bone mineralization.

73
Q

The hormone that increases the amount of calcium in the blood, and an excess of will cause bone thinning.

A

parathyroid hormone

74
Q

a disorder of the pituitary growth hormone can cause an excess or deficient, resulting in?

A

excess: leads to gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults
Deficit: leads to dwarfism in children

75
Q

the type of fracture where the bone is broken but not displaced?

A

simple

76
Q

the type of fracture where the bone breaks through the skin?

A

compound fracture

77
Q

the type of fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls bone fragment away from the site of attachment

A

avulsion

78
Q

the incomplete fracture with bending of the bone that is common in children is known as?

A

a green stick fracture

79
Q

the fracture type when the bone is fragmented

A

Comminuted…aka fucked

80
Q

the fracture type when the bone collapses under compressive forces or telescopes int itself?

A

compression

81
Q

the first step of healing a fracture?

A

a fracture hematoma is formed from ruptured blood vessels

82
Q

the second step of healing a fracture?

A

a soft callus forms (mixture of spongy bone and cartilage)

83
Q

the third step to healing a fracture?

A

a hard callus forms by mineralization of soft callus

84
Q

the fourth and final step to healing a fracture?

A

Remodeling of hard callus to mature bone

85
Q

the two types of the infectious bone disease Osteitis?

A

Periostitis: inflammation of the periosteum caused by trauma or infection
Osteomyelitis: inflammation of the bone interior caused by bacteria, usually initially entering the bone via wound or via bloodstream

86
Q

tuberculosis is an infectious disease that can spread to?

A

it spreads to spongy bone (particularly of the vertebral bodies), resulting in bone and joint destruction.

87
Q

what is periostitis?

A

inflammation of the periosteum caused by trauma or infection

88
Q

what is Osteomyelitis?

A

inflammation of the bone interior caused by bacteria, usually initially entering the bone via wound or via bloodstream

89
Q

the two types of benign bone neoplasms?

A

Osteochondroma

Osteoma

90
Q

the two types of malignant bone neoplasms?

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

Multiple Myeloma

91
Q

true or false.

women have more bone mass than men

A

false. they have less

92
Q

true or false

women start to lose bone mass earlier and faster than men

A

true..

93
Q

what age do men typically start losing bone mass?

A
  1. though a steroid used to treat prostate cancer can trigger loss of bone mass.
94
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

the reduction in bone mass, most prevalent in middle-aged and elderly women.