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Human Anatomy & Physiology > Skeleton - Bones and Joints > Flashcards

Skeleton - Bones and Joints Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 functions of bones.

A
  • framework for body
  • protection of organs
  • movement
  • storage of mineral salts
  • formation of blood cells
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2
Q

How many bones are their in an adult?

A

206

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3
Q

What are the divisions of the skeleton?

A
  • axial (head and trunk)

- appendicular (extremities including girdles)

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4
Q

What are the 4 bone shapes?

A
  • flat
  • short
  • irregular
  • long bones
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5
Q

What are some examples of flat bones?

A
  • ribs
  • cranium
  • scapula
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6
Q

What are some examples of short bones?

A
  • carpals of wrist
  • tarsals of ankle
  • patella
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7
Q

What are some examples of irregular bones?

A
  • vertebrae

- facial bones

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8
Q

What are some examples of long bones?

A
  • humerus
  • femur
  • other long bones of arms & legs including phalanges
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9
Q

What are the 3 components of long bone structure?

A
  • diaphysis (long narrow shaft composed of compact bone; hollow centre filled with yellow bone marrow)
  • epiphysis (ends of long bones irregularly shaped, distal and proximal)
  • epiphyseal line (remnant of the cartilage growth plate found in children’s long bones; site of growth in bone length; closes by end of puberty and replaced with bone)
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10
Q

What is the diaphysis of long bones?

A
  • long narrow shaft composed of compact bone

- hollow centre filled with yellow bone marrow

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11
Q

What is the epiphysis of long bones?

A
  • ends of the long bones irregularly shaped

- distal (far end) and proximal (near end)

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12
Q

What is the epiphyseal line in long bones?

A
  • remnant of the cartilage growth plate found in children’s long bones
  • site of growth in bone length
  • closes by end of puberty and replaced with bone
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13
Q

What is the hard, dense, outer, strong layer of all bones called?

A

compact bone

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14
Q

What is the main component of the shaft of long bones?

A

compact bone

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15
Q

Describe the structure of compact bone.

A
  • rings of mineralized collagen forming Haversian Systems (osteon)
  • osteocytes (mature cells that maintain living bone tissue)
  • lacunae (spaces around osteocytes)
  • blood vessels found in Haversian and Volkmann canals
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16
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

mature cells that maintain living bone tissue

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17
Q

What are lacunae?

A

spaces around osteocytes

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18
Q

What is the functional unit of compact bone?

A

Haversian System of osteon (long cylinder of rings of mineralized collagen)

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19
Q

Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in compact bone?

A
  • central (Haversian) canal (rings formed around)

- Volkmann canals

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20
Q

What do blood vessels and nerve fibres do in compact bone?

A
  • blood vessels supply oxygen and nutrients to bone tissue

- nerve fibres inform us of damage to bone

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21
Q

Where are osteocytes found in compact bone?

A 
in spaces (lacunae) between the rings (formed around central canal)
- when living, extend many small processes out into radiating channels
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22
Q

What is another name for spongy bone?

A

cancellous bone

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23
Q

Which type of bone is less dense with more spaces?

A

spongy (cancellous bone)

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24
Q

Where is spongy bone found?

A

within the ends of long bones (epiphyses) and at the centre of short, flat, and irregular bones

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25
Q

What is spongy (cancellous bone) made of?

A
  • a meshwork of small, bony plates filled with red bone marrow (location of blood cell production)
  • not composed of osteons
  • still has osteocytes, mineralized collagen fibers
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26
Q

What are the two types of bone marrow? Where are they found?

A
  • red; found within spongy bone (at the ends of long bones and the centre of other bones)
  • yellow (in the hollow, central cavity (diaphysis) of long bones)
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27
Q

What type of bone marrow manufactures red and white blood cells?

A

red

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28
Q

What type of bone marrow is composed mainly of fat (for energy storage)

A

yellow

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29
Q

What is the function of red bone marrow?

A

manufactures red and white blood cells

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30
Q

What is the function of yellow bone marrow?

A

composed mainly of fat, energy storage

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31
Q

What are the connective tissue membranes of bone?

A
  • periosteum

- endosteum

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32
Q

What is the periosteum (location/structure/function)?

A
  • membrane of bone that covers outside except at joint
  • has outer fibrous layer and inner cellular layer
  • inner layer contains osteoblasts which are essential for repair
  • contains blood vessels and nerves
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33
Q

What is the endosteum (location/structure/function)?

A
  • membrane of bone that is the thin, inner layer
  • lines the marrow cavity
  • contains cells for growth and repair
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34
Q

What is the embryonic skeleton composed of?

A

almost entirely composed of cartilage (can grow in both width and length)

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35
Q

What is ossification? When does it occur?

A
  • bone formation

- begins during second and third months of embryonic life

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36
Q

What bones form directly without cartilage template (embryo)?

A
  • skull bones
  • ribs
  • pelvic bones
  • shoulder blades
  • vertebrae
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37
Q

What bones replace cartilage template (embryo)?

A

long bones

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38
Q

What 3 cells are involved in bone growth and repair?

A
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclasts
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39
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A
  • bone building cells
  • manufacture the matrix (located between the cells)
  • matrix contains large amount of collagen protein fibres
  • calcium compounds deposited within matrix
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40
Q

What cells manufacture bone matrix (bone building cells)?

A

osteoblasts

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41
Q

What are the mature cells that maintain the living bone?

A

osteocytes

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42
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A
  • bone cells that breakdown (resorb) bone

- regulated by hormones (from parathyroid gland) (calcium transferred to bloodstream)

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43
Q

Why are osteoclasts important (breakdown and resorb bone)?

A
  • necessary for remodelling and repair (grown & after injury)
  • important when minerals needed by body
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44
Q

What is blood calcium homeostasis important for?

A
  • skeletal muscle contractions
  • nerve function
  • blood clotting
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45
Q

What hormones are involved in blood calcium homeostasis and what do they do?

A
  • vitamin D (promotes absorption of dietary calcium)
  • hormones from thyroid and parathyroid glands regulate blood levels of calcium which in turn regulate calcium deposition into bone
  • calcitonin (thyroid gland) produced when blood calcium levels are high; acts on osteoblasts (calcium from blood to bone)
  • parathyroid hormone (parathyroid gland) produced when blood calcium low; acts on osteoclasts (break down bone and release calcium into blood)
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46
Q

What are the 2 types of bone markings?

A
  • projections

- depressions

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47
Q

What are projections?

A

raised areas that help to form joints or serve as points for muscle attachments

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48
Q

What are 6 types of bone projections?

A
  • epicondyle
  • head
  • process
  • condyle
  • crest
  • spine
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49
Q

What is an epicondyle (with one example)?

A

a small projection above a condyle (eg on humerus)

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50
Q

What is a head projection (with one example)?

A

rounded end separated from the rest of the bone by a slender region called the neck (eg femur)

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51
Q

What is a process (with one example)?

A

large projection of bone (eg transverse process of vertebrae)

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52
Q

What is a condyle (with one example)?

A

rounded projection; joint surface (eg femur)

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53
Q

What is a crest (with one example)?

A

border or ridge (eg iliac crest)

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54
Q

What is a spine (projection) (with one example)?

A

sharp projection from the surface of a bone (eg spinous process of vertebrae)

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55
Q

What are depressions?

A

various holes that allow the passage of nerve and blood vessels

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56
Q

What are 4 types of depressions?

A
  • foramen
  • sinus
  • fossa
  • meatus
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57
Q

What is a foramen (with example)?

A

hole that allows vessels and nerves to pass through or between bones (eg vertebral foramen containing spinal cord; nutrient foramen in long bone diaphysis)

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58
Q

What is a sinus (with example)?

A

an air space found in some skull bones (paranasal sinuses for warming air)

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59
Q

What is a fossa (with example)?

A

depression on a bone surface (scapula)

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60
Q

What is a meatus (with example)?

A
  • short channel or passageway (eg external auditory meatus or channel in temporal bone of skull leading to the inner ear)
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61
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

spaces in skull bones lined with mucosa to filter, warm, and moisten incoming air

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62
Q

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses called?

A
  • frontal
  • ethmoidal
  • sphenoidal
  • maxillary
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63
Q

How many bones in each division of the skeleton?

A
  • axial 80 bones

- appendicular 126 bones

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64
Q

Which division of the skeleton includes the bones of the head (skull/cranium) and the trunk (vertebrae, sternum, ribs)?

A

axial

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65
Q

Which division of the skeleton includes the shoulders, hips, and extremities?

A

appendicular

66
Q

What is the rounded chamber of fused, flat bones that encloses and protects the brain calle?

A

the cranium

67
Q

What are the 8 distinct bones of the cranium?

A
  • frontal
  • parietal x 2
  • temporal x 2
  • occipital
  • ethmoid
  • sphenoid
68
Q

Where is the frontal bone (cranium)?

A

forms the forehead and anterior roof of the skull (paranasal sinuses communicate with nasal cavities)

69
Q

Where are the parietal bones (cranium)?

A

form most of the top and the side walls of the cranium

70
Q

Where are the temporal bones (cranium)?

A

form part of the sides and some of the base of the skull; each contains mastoid sinuses

71
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone (cranium)?

A
  • fragile bone located between the eyes forming part of the eye orbit and most of the nasal cavity roof (a thin plate-like extension forms much of the nasal septum)
  • sensory nerves from nose pass through into brain
72
Q

Where is the sphenoid bone (cranium)?

A

compound bone forms part of the eye socket

73
Q

Where is the occipital bone (cranium)

A
  • forms the posterior and part of the base of the skull
  • foramen magnum is located at the base of the occipital bone and is a large opening through which the spinal cord emerges
74
Q

What are sutures of the skull?

A

lines joining bones of skull that are composed of immovable joints

75
Q

What are the four sutures of the skull? Where are they located?

A
  • coronal (joins frontal and parietal bones)
  • sagittal (joins two parietal bones)
  • lambdoid (joins parietal bones and occipital bone)
  • squamous (joins temporal bone to parietal bone on lateral surface of cranium)
76
Q

Where are the mandible and maxillary bones located?

A

skull (facial bones)

77
Q

What is the lower jaw bone called (only moveable bone in skull)?

A

mandible

78
Q

What are the maxillary bones?

A
  • form upper jaw bone (fuse in midline) including front part of hard palate
  • each maxilla contains maxillary sinus (communicates with nasal cavity)
79
Q

What bones form the cheekbones?

A

zygomatic bones

80
Q

What bones (lying side by side) form the bridge of nose?

A

nasal bones

81
Q

Where are the lacrimal bones?

A

near inside corner of eye in front part of medial wall of orbital cavity (each the size of a fingernail)

82
Q

Where is the vomer and what is its shape?

A
  • forms lower part of nasal septum

- shaped like blade of plow

83
Q

Where are the palatine bones?

A

form back part of hard palate

84
Q

Where are the inferior nasal conchae?

A

extend along sides of nasal cavities to increase surface area

85
Q

Where are the ossicles located and how many are there? What do they do?

A
  • in the middle ear
  • three
  • transmit sound waves
86
Q

What is the hyoid bone?

A

attachment for tongue and other muscles

87
Q

What are fontanels?

A
  • spaces in infant skull due to incomplete formation of bone and sutures
  • allows skull to compress and change shape during birth and permits rapid brain growth
88
Q

What is the largest fontanel? When does it close?

A
  • anterior fontanel

- around 18 months of age

89
Q

What are the functions of the vertebral column?

A
  • supports trunk and head
  • protects spinal cord from mechanical injury
  • provides attachment for hip bones
90
Q

How many bones are in the adult vertebral column?

A

26

91
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

C1 through C7

92
Q

What is the atlas (vertebral column)?

A

C1 cervical vertebrae - skull rocks on atlas when nodding

93
Q

What is the axis (vertebral column)?

A

C2 cervical vertebrae - shaking head side to side (rotation); dens projects upward and serves as pivot

94
Q

What is the uppermost section of the spine called?

A

cervical spine

95
Q

What is the upper section of the spine below the cervical spine called (largest section)?

A

thoracic spine

96
Q

What is the bottom section of the spine called (above sacral vertebrae)?

A

lumbar spine

97
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

T1 through T12

98
Q

Where is the thoracic spine? What attaches to it?

A
  • longer spinous process below cervical vertebrae

- ribs and muscles attach here

99
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

L1 through L5

100
Q

Where is the lumbar spine? What does it do?

A
  • small of back
  • supports weight
  • largest and heaviest vertebrae (not longest section of spine, vertebrae themselves are big)
101
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5 separate bones in children fused in adults to just 1

102
Q

Where is the sacral vertebrae?

A

sacrum area (above tailbone, below small of back)

103
Q

What is another name for the tailbone?

A

coccyx

104
Q

How many bones are in the coccyx (tailbone)?

A

4 or 5 in children and fused in adults to just 1

105
Q

List structural aspects of vertebrae.

A
  • centrum
  • intervertebral discs of cartilage
  • vertebral foramen
  • spinous process
  • transverse processes
  • intervertebral foramen
106
Q

What is the centrum of the vertebrae?

A

drum-shaped body anteriorly located (weight bearing)

107
Q

What are the intervertebral disks (vertebrae)?

A
  • cartilage that lies between vertebrae

- act as shock absorbers

108
Q

What is the vertebral foramen (vertebrae)?

A

hole in which the spinal cord travels (protective)

109
Q

What is the spinous process (vertebrae)?

A

projects posteriorly from vertebrae for muscle attachment

110
Q

What are the transverse processes (vertebrae)?

A
  • lateral, paired for muscle attachments

- holes in cervical ones (transverse foramen) for blood vessels and nerves supplying the head and neck

111
Q

What are the intervertebral foramen (vertebrae)?

A

lateral openings from which spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord

112
Q

What is the thorax?

A

cone-shaped ribcage (includes sternum and ribs)

113
Q

What are the components of the sternum (breast bone)?

A
  • manubrium (clavicular notch site where it joins clavicle)
  • body (ribs 2-7 attach; sternal angle elevated landmark)
  • xiphoid process (CPR landmark; toward bottom)
114
Q

Are the true ribs above or below the false ribs?

A

above

115
Q

How do the ribs attach to the vertebrae?

A

posteriorly

116
Q

What are the spaces between ribs that contain muscles, blood vessels, and nerves called?

A

intercostal spaces

117
Q

What are the true ribs?

A

first 7 paris that attach anteriorly directly to sternum by costal cartilage

118
Q

What are the false ribs?

A
  • bottom 5 pairs (8-12)
  • 8,9,10 attached to the cartilage of ribs above
  • 11/12 are floating ribs (no anterior attachment)
119
Q

What are the two divisions of the appendicular skeleton and what do they include?

A
  • upper: shoulder (girdle), arm, forearm, wrist, hand, fingers
  • lower: hip (pelvic girdle), thigh, leg, ankle, foot, toes
120
Q

List the bones of the upper extremity (arm).

A
  • humerus (upper arm)
  • radius/ulna (forearm)
  • carpals (wrist)
  • metacarpals (palm)
  • phalanges (fingers/digits)
121
Q

What does the shoulder girdle consist of?

A
  • clavicle

- scapula

122
Q

What is the clavicle?

A
  • bone that joins sternum anteriorly and scapula laterally
  • helps support shoulder
  • most frequently broken bone
123
Q

What are the components of the scapula?

A
  • spine: raised ridge for muscles that move arm (muscles sit in fossa)
  • glenoid cavity: forms socket of the ball-and-socket joint with humerus
  • coracoid process: for muscle attachment
  • acromion: process that joins the clavicle; can be felt as the highest point of the shoulder
124
Q

What is the humerus? What are its components?

A
  • proximal bone of the arm
  • head forms ball-and-socket joint with glenoid cavity of scapula
  • medial and lateral epicondyles (tendon attachments at elbow)
125
Q

What is the ulna? Name a component.

A
  • medial side of lower arm
  • aligns with little finger
  • olecranon process (elbow/funny bone; forms joint with humerus)
126
Q

What is the radius?

A
  • lateral side of lower arm

- aligns with thumb/radial artery

127
Q

What is the olecranon?

A

funny bone

128
Q

What does the elbow joint consist of?

A

trochlea of humerus sitting in trochlear notch of ulna

129
Q

What are the bones of the wrist and hand and how many are there per hand?

A
  • carpal bones x 8 (make up wrist)
  • metacarpal bones x 5 (framework for palm)
  • phalanges x 14 (each known as phalanx; 3 per finger; 2 for thumb)
130
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the lower division of the skeleton and what do they include?

A
  • pelvis (hip, pelvic girdle)
  • lower extremity (femur - upper leg/thigh; patella - knee cap; tibia/fibula - lower leg; tarsals - ankle; metatarsals - foot; phalanges - toes/digits
131
Q

What are the three pairs of bones that make up the pelvis? Where are they fused?

A
  • ilium (iliac crest; anterior superior iliac spine - landmark)
  • ischium (lowest & strongest; ischial spine - landmark for childbirth; ischial tuberosity - sit bones)
  • pubis (anterior part; pubic symphysis)
  • fused at pubic symphysis
132
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

dorsal enclosure completed by the coccyx and sacrum plus a pair of three fused pelvic bones (ilium, ischium, pubis) (one on each side)

133
Q

What is the acetabulum?

A
  • fused ilium, ischiu, pubis on one side

- deep socket that holds the head of the femur to form the ball-and-socket hip joint

134
Q

What is the obturator foramen?

A
  • pelvic foramen
  • largest in body; partially covered by a membrane
  • passageway for blood vessels and nerves
135
Q

What is the largest foramen in the body?

A

obturator foramen in pelvis

136
Q

What are the differences between the male and female pelvises?

A
  • female adapted for pregnancy and childbirth: lighter in weight; iliac crests wider & more flared; pubic arch wider; pelvic opening/outlet wider and more oval or heart shaped; sacrum & coccyx shorter and less curved
137
Q

What is the upper leg bone?

A

femur (thigh bone)

138
Q

Describe the femur.

A
  • thigh bone
  • largest & strongest bone
  • large ball shaped head
  • medial and lateral condyles (forms joint surface with tibia)
  • medial epicondyle (tendon/ligament attachment)
  • greater trochanter (tendon/ligament attachment at hip)
139
Q

What bone is the kneecap?

A

patella

140
Q

What is the tibia?

A
  • shin bone
  • sharp anterior crest
  • weight bearing
  • medial malleolus makes up inner “ankle”
141
Q

What is the fibula?

A
  • one of two lower leg bones
  • lateral malleolus - outer “ankle”
  • does not reach knee joint
  • not weight bearing
142
Q

What are the bones of the ankle and foot and how many are there per side?

A
  • medial malleolus
  • lateral malleolus
  • tarsal bones x 7 (ankle) (weight bearing)
  • calcaneous (heel)
  • metatarsal bones x 5 (form instep and balls of feet)
  • phalanges x 14 (3 in each toe and 2 in great toe)
143
Q

What is the medial malleolus? Lateral malleolus?

A
  • ankle bones
  • medial is projection of tibia
  • lateral is projection of fibula
144
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • the significant loss of bone tissue which can lead to fractures, especially of the head of femur (hip fracture)
  • postmenopausal women most susceptible as estrogen levels decline
145
Q

What are the three abnormal spine curvatures?

A
  • kyphosis (hunchback or exaggeration of thoracic curve; associated with osteoporosis)
  • lordosis (swayback or excessive lumbar curve)
  • scoliosis (lateral curvature; occurs during rapid growth during teenage years; more in girls)
146
Q

What are the three main types of articulations or joints based on material that joins them?

A
  • fibrous joint (fibrous connective tissue)
  • cartilaginous joint (cartilage)
  • synovial joint (fluid-filled joint cavity)
147
Q

What are the three main types of joints based on degree of movement?

A
  • synarthrosis (immovable)
  • amphiarthrosis (slightly moveable)
  • diathrosis (freely movable)
148
Q

What are fibrous joints with example?

A
  • bones held together by fibrous connective tissue
  • eg sutures between skull bones (occipital and parietal bones)
  • synarthrosis (immovable)
149
Q

What are fibrous joints with example?

A
  • connected by cartilage
  • eg pubic symphysis joins the two pubic bones anteriorly in pelvis; intervertebral discs found between the bodies of vertebrae (when damaged cause herniated discs)
  • amphiarthrosis (slightly moveable)
150
Q

What are synovial joints with example?

A
  • space between two bones of joint (joint cavity) filled with synovial fluid (nourishes the articular cartilage (hyaline) on the ends of the bones forming joint)
  • eg femur and tibia - joints between long bones
  • diarthrosis (freely moveable)
  • most common type
  • ligaments join bone to bone
  • bursa prevent rubbing of tendons and ligaments
151
Q

What are 6 types of movements of synovial joints?

A
  • flexion (decreases angle between bones)
  • extension (increases angle between bones)
  • abduction (movement away from midline of body)
  • adduction (movement toward midline of body)
  • circumduction (circular - combining abduction, adduction, flexion, extension; eg arm rotation)
  • rotation (twisting or turning of a bone on its own axis; eg twisting at waist)
152
Q

What are the movements of the forearm?

A
  • supination (turning palm up or forward)

- pronation (turning palm down or backward)

153
Q

What are the movements of the ankle?

A
  • inversion (turning sole inward)
  • eversion (turning sole outward
  • dorsiflexion (foot bent upward at ankle)
  • plantar flexion (toes point downward flexing arch of the foot)
154
Q

What are the types of synovial joints with examples?

A
  • all diarthroses but range of motion varies
  • gliding joint (wrist, ankle)
  • hinge joint (between femur and tibia)
  • pivot joint (proximal radius and ulna)
  • condyloid joint (finger)
  • saddle joint (opposition of thumb)
  • ball-and-socket (shoulder joint and hip joint)
155
Q

What are herniated discs?

A
  • intervertebral discs composed of outer fibrocartilage ring (joint) and inner nucleus pulposus (gel-like, shock absorbing)
  • repetitive stresses wear down fibrocartilage and nucleus pulposa bulges out
  • can press on spinal nerve root exiting intervertebral space
  • leads to sciatica or nerve pain down the leg
  • treatment can involve surgery to remove disc then spinal fusion
156
Q

What are three disorders of joints?

A
  • herniated disc
  • osteoarthritis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
157
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A
  • age-related degenerative joint disease affecting one or a few joints
  • formation of bone spurs at edges of articular surfaces
  • thickening of synovial membrane
  • atrophy of the cartilage
  • joint could fuse (immovable)
  • caused by obesity or repeated injury (wear and tear)
  • locations: weight bearing joints (hips, knees, vertebral column), digits
158
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • swelling of multiple joints primary of hands/feet
  • due to chronic inflammation of synovial membranes
  • inflammatory chemicals destroy articular cartilage
  • joint cavity develops adhesions and scar tissue
  • joints stiffen and become non-functional
  • permanent joint deformities result
  • flare-ups and remisions
  • cause: autoimmune with genetic predisposition
  • immune cells make abnormal antibodies that circulate in the blood and attack the body’s own tissue
  • treatment: removal of antibodies and anti-inflammatory medications
159
Q

What are some skeletal changes in aging?

A
  • loss of calcium salts (osteoporosis)
  • decrease in amount of protein formed
  • reduction of collagen in bones as well as in tendons, ligaments, and skin
  • thinning of intervertebral discs (loss of height - 1.2 cm or .5 inches each 20 years beginning at 40)
  • decrease in chest diameter (rib cartilage loses flexibility as it calcifies)
160
Q

What are 3 steps towards healthy bones?

A
  • well balanced diet (calcium, protein, vitamins C and D, magnesium and phosphorus; limit phosphorus as depletes bone calcium)
  • weight bearing exercises (stronger, denser skeleton)
  • healthy lifestyle (smoking, alcohol, high caffeine levels may deplete skeleton of calcium)

Human Anatomy & Physiology (8 decks)

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