Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMBRYO Block 3 > Skeletal System > Flashcards

Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

skeletal system develops from?

A
  • paraxial and lateral mesoderm

- neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what forms the segmented series of tissue blocks on each side of the neural tube

A

paraxaial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

paraxaial froms what in the head region? what in the body region?

A
  • somitomeres

- somites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

somites differentiate into what

A
  • sclerotome

- dermomyotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is in the ventromedial part of the somite and its cells form the vertebra and the ribs?

A

sclerotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is on the dorsal lateral part of the somite that cells form into myotome region from myoblasts and dermatome region which forms fibroblast of dermis

A

dermomyotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what formes the fibroblasts of the dermis

A

dermatome region of dermomyotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what forms the myoblasts

A

myotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do bones first appear as?

A

condensations of mesenchymal cells that form bone models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what marks the beginning of selective gene activiy which precedes cell differentiation

A

condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the two types of osteogenesis

A

intramembranous and endochondral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which kind of osteogenesis is marked by mesoderm condesning into sheets of highly vascular CT and then directly forming a primary ossifcation center

seen in most flat bones

A

intramembranous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what osteogenesis is marked by mesoderm that forms from hyalin cartialge model that then develops an ossification center at the diaphysis

most long bones

A

endochondral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are multinucleated cells that originate from granulocyte macrophage progenitors

A

osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what plays a role in bone reorption

A

osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where is the primary center of ossification in long bones

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in the primary ossifiaction center of long bones what happens to chondrocytes

A

these are cartilage cells that increase in size and then the matrix become calcified and the chondrocytes die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

perchondrium in long bones going through endochondral ossification becomes what

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

lengthening of the long bone occurs where

A

at the diaphysial-epiphysial junction ( growth plate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

wat is the disease that children have when there is a deficency in vitamin D, calcium, or phospahte and can lead to fractures and deformities

A

Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if someone has knees that are widley seperated and have curved lower limbs what could they have

A

rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

axial skeleton is made up of what

A
  • cranium
  • vertebral column
  • ribs
  • sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

neurocranium develops from?

A

nerual crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

basilar part of the the occipital bone in the neurocranium develops from what

A

mesoderm of occipital sclerotomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

during fetal life and infancy the flat bones of the scull are separated by what

A

sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the five sutures

A
  1. frontal
  2. sagittal
  3. lamboid
  4. coronal
  5. squamous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sutures allow flat bones to do what when birthing

A

molding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

molding may exert alot of tension on the obstertical hinge, and cause rupture of what durring childbirth

A

great cerebral vein of Galen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the 6 large areas were sutures meet called

A

anterior and posterior fontanelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the 6 fontanelles

A
  • anterior
  • posterior
  • 2 sphenoid
  • 2 mastoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the largest fontanell

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why does the anterior fontanelle pulsate

A

because of the underlying cerebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what fontanel can be used to obtain blood sample from underlying sagittal sinus and aslo the heart rate can be taken from here

A

anterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

using the anterior fontanelle to check HR is good for what kind of baby

A

premie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how big is the A. fontanelle in early stages?posterior?

A

anterior: 3 cm
posterior: 1-2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when do anterior and mastoid fontanells close

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when do posterior and sphenoid fontanells close

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is it called when the cranial sutures fuse to quickly

A

craniosyntosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

in what anomaly is the calvaria absent and is coupled with defects of the vertebral column. meronecephaly can be present or ancephaly.

this is INCOMPATIBLE with life

A

Acrania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the skull cap called

A

calvaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the disorder when a fetus has complete absence of the cranium or calvaria, this is lethal

A

acrania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

holocrania?

A

this is when there is a membranous sac filled fluid and looks like a cyst, over the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

children with this are born with a normal sized- slightly small calvaria

A

microcephaly

44
Q

what is due to the abnormal development of the CNS in which the brain and cranium fail to grow , this child will be severely mentally retarted

A

microcephaly

45
Q

what is the most common craniosynostosis

A

Scaphocephaly

46
Q

what is marked by a long skull in the anterior and posterior plane because of the premature closure of the sagittal suture

A

Scaphocephaly

47
Q

what is it called when there is an asymmetric skull that is caused by the premature closure of the lamboid and coronal sutures on one side of the skull

A

plagiocephaly

48
Q

what is a short, square-shaped skull that is caused by premature closure of the coronal sutures

A

brachyocephaly

49
Q

what is it called when there is a tower like skull that is caused by premature closure of the lamboid and coronal sutures

A

oxycephaly (Barrell Head)

can only grow up

50
Q

what gene has receptors that are mutated when it comes to brachycephaly

A

FGF

51
Q

what is the autosomal dominant genetic disorder that has craniosynostosis, midface hypoplasia, which shallow orbits and ocular proptosis

A

crouzon syndrome

52
Q

what is the autosomal dominant genetic disorder characterized by craniosynostosis, syndactyl of hands and feet, ankyloses ( stiff joints), progressive synostoses, and turribrachycephaly

Mental retardation

A

apert syndrome

53
Q

what is the mutation gene for apert syndrome

A

FGFR2

54
Q

turribrachycephaly means

A

very tall head

55
Q

what is the autosomal dominant genetic disorder that is characterized by craniosynostosis and leads to turribrachycephal, syndactyl of hands and feet, broad thumbs and great toes

A

Pfeiffer Syndrome

56
Q

what is the mutation in the Pfeiffer Syndrome

A

FGFR2

57
Q

what is Clover Leaf Skull/ Kleeblattschadel cause by

A

the closure of all sutures so the brain is forced to grow through anterior and posterior fontanells

58
Q

the centrum forms what

A

vertebral body

59
Q

vertbral arches form what

A
  • pedicles
  • laminae
  • spinous process
60
Q

costal processes form what

A

ribs

61
Q

what vertebra has no vertebral body or spinous process

A

atlas

62
Q

nucleus pulpous is the remnant of what

A

the notocord

63
Q

at what age have all notocordal cells degenerated

A

age 20

64
Q

what is the rim of fibrocartilage around the nucleus pulpous and derived from mesoderm that is found between the vertebral bodies

A

annulus fibrosus

65
Q

what is it called when someone has shortness of neck, low hairline, and restricted neck movements. in a lot of these cases there are fewer cervical vertebrae then there are supposed to be

A

Klippel-Feil Syndrome

Congenital Brevicollis

66
Q

what is the scapula like in people with klippel fleil syndrome

A

floating

67
Q

scoliosis (lateral displacement of vertebral bodies) is common in?

A

women

68
Q

when there s a defective annulus fibrosus the nucleus pulpos can do what

A

it can prolapse through the vertebral canal and impinge the nerves and cause root pain ( Radiculopathy)

69
Q

when the pedicles fail to fuse with the vertebral body and the vertebral body moves forward causing lordosis this is called?

A

spondylolisthesis

70
Q

where does congenital spondylolisthesis usually occur

A

L5-S1 level

71
Q

when do the ribs ossify

A

durring the fetal period

72
Q

how many true ribs?

A

7

73
Q

how many false ribs

A

5 (8-12)

74
Q

how many floating ribs

A

2 (11-12)

75
Q

accessory ribs in what location can compress things?

A

cervical region

76
Q

most common accessory rib is where

A

lumbar rib

77
Q

what is it called when there is a concave depression of the lower sternum and is the most common cardiac wall defect

A

pectus excavatum (funnel chest)

78
Q

people with funnel chest

usually have

A
  • cardiopulmonary restriction
  • drooped shoulders
  • protuberant abdomen
  • scoliosis
79
Q

when do sternal celfts occur

A

when sternal bars do not fuse

80
Q

is sternal cleft common

A

yes, if it is small it is usually not a problem

81
Q

what are the 3 things that the appendicular skeleton consist of

A
  • pectoral girdle
  • pelvic girdle
  • limb bones
82
Q

when do the limbs undergo chondrification to form hyaline cartilage bone models.

A

week 6

83
Q

what week does ossification occur in the long bones

A

week 8

84
Q

by what week has primary ossification centers appeared in nearly all bones of the limbs

A

by 12 weeks

85
Q

what are the first bones to ossify

A

clavicles

86
Q

adults who measure under 100 cm have what

A

achondroplasia

87
Q

what is the most common lethal form of dwarfism

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

88
Q

type 1 thanatophoric dysplasia has what

A

short curved femurs with no clover skull

89
Q

type 2 thanatophoric dysplasia

A

clover skull and relatively long femurs

90
Q

all skeletal dyplasias present what kind of mutation

A

FGFR3

91
Q

marfan syndrome is caused by mutation in

A

fibrilin

92
Q

marfan syndrome is more common in who

A

men

93
Q

people with marfan syndrome have a high chance for what

A

aorta aneurysm

94
Q

what is the severe deficiency of fetal thyroid hormone (t3-t4) production in cretinism

this is rare except in areas where the water and soil lack iodine

A

cretinism and hypothyroidism

95
Q

coarse fascial features

umbilical hernia

cool and dry skin

developmental delay

goiter are all signs of

A

creitinism and hypothyroidism

96
Q

what is the autosomal dominant or recessive genetic disorder that is caused by the mutation of the type 1 collagen gene. there will be extreme bone fragility and spontaneous fractures

A

OI- Osteogenesis Imperfecta

97
Q

blue sclera of the eye can be associated with what

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

98
Q

which type of OI is very mild and will encourage the child to remain at home until 4-5th decade of life

A

type 1

99
Q

what is caused by congental hyperpituritarism and excessive production of growth homrone

A

acromegaly

100
Q

what are the treatment options for acromegaly?

A
  • radiation of pituitary
  • durg therapy
  • removal of tumor
101
Q

when do the terminal portion of the limb buds flatten

A

week 6

102
Q

limb outgrowth is initiated bt what

A

TBX 5 and FGF 10

103
Q

wat maintains the proliferation population of mesenchymal cells close to the ridge of the limb bud

A

FGF4 and FGF8

104
Q

meromelia

A

partial absence of limbs

105
Q

amelia

A

total absence of limbs

106
Q

thalidomide

A

the anti nause pill that causes gross deformities in long bones

EMBRYO Block 3 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions