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Shit gotta know - exercise + repro Flashcards

1
Q

name 3 physiological changes that can occur with exercise training

A

increased GLUT 4 expression, increased muscle blood flow, increased capillary density/recruitment

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2
Q

3 mitochondrial adaptations to exercise

A

increased density and oxidative enzymes, reduced CHO use and lactate production, increased fat oxidation

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3
Q

impact of exercise on warfarin?

A

decreased INR. Warfarin less effective so more likely to clot

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4
Q

define sarcopenia and what is needed for diagnosis?

A

age-associated loss of skeletal muscle mass and function.Diagnosis = low muscle mass + low muscle strength or low physical performance

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5
Q

what happens in regard to the muscle fibre types in sarcopenia and what age does this begin.

A

from 50 fast twitch fibres start to become replaced by slow twitch.

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6
Q

name 4 exercise types that can aid in healthy aging

A

strength training, aerobic, flexibility, balance

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7
Q

which type of hormones decline with age? list 3 and how they impact muscle wasting

A

anabolic - GH, IGF-1 and testosterone. Low levels compromise the efficiency of muscle regeneration as a consequence of damage from daily wear and tear

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8
Q

describe genetics and pathology of DMD

A

X lnked recessive causes lack of the protein dystrophin. Lack of this protein affects muscles ability to regenerate after contraction damage.

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9
Q

differences between DMD & BMD (clinical and molecular)

A

BMD less severe with later onset (adolescence or adulthood) and slower progression. Survival well into mid-late adulthood. In BMD there is abnormal, smaller amounts of dystrophin c.f. absolutely none in DMD

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10
Q

non-genomic way glucocorticoids inhibit inflammation?

A

inhibit Arachidonic acid release

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11
Q

4 adverse effects of NSAIDS

A

gastro-intestinal, increase bleeding time, renal & pulmonary

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12
Q

how may NSAIDs act on renal and pulmonary systems respectively

A

compromise renal blood flow & bronchoconstrict

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13
Q

name the 5 STIs covered in the lecture?

A

N. Gonorrhea.Clamydia Trachomatis.Trichomonis Vaginalis (protozoa).Treponeum Palladeum (syphillus).Mycoplasma Genitalium.

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14
Q

what kind of bacteria is gonrorrhea?

A

GN diplicocci

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15
Q

consequences of gonorrhea in pregnany?

A

neonatal gonococcal opthalmia. Purulent conjunctivitis. Can lead to blidness

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16
Q

treatment for gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone (500 mg IV/IM) and azythromycin

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17
Q

serovars of Clamydia?

A

A-C trachoma in eye.D-K genital Infection.

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18
Q

clamydia an neonate?

A

haemorrhagic conjunctivitis and pneumonia

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19
Q

what is trichmonas vaginalis? hallmark symptom?

A

protozoa. frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge

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20
Q

symptoms of syphillus.

A

Primary: chancre.Secondary: rash or alapaecia.Tertiary (10-30 years later): gummas, cardiac or neruoligcal pathology

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21
Q

which cell type produces testosterone?

A

leydig cell

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22
Q

cells of the seminiferous tubules?

A

sertoli, leydig and spermatagonium

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23
Q

describe the difference in cervical mucus from the ovulation phase to the luteal phase

A

ovulation = abundant, clear non viscus mucusLuteal = thick, sticky mucous

24
Q

describe 2 positive feedbacks cycle during menstruation?

A

in early to mid-follicular phase estorgen positive feedback on granulosa cells.In late follicular phase and ovulation Estrogen positive on GnRH.

25
Q

how long after fertilisation does it take to reach the uterus? what is this thing called. then what happens

A

blastocyst reaches uterus on day 4-5. implants in endometrium days 5-9.

26
Q

which fetal organs does the placenta substitute for? (3)

A

kidneys, lungs, GIT

27
Q

main hormones placenta produces (4)?

A

hCG, hPL, estrogen and progeserone

28
Q

definition of preterm labour

A

labour before 37 weeks gestation

29
Q

which hormone inhibits fetal growth? what are the implications

A

glucocorticoids. stressed mother can inhibit fetal growth

30
Q

which two subtypes of HPV are most likely causes of cervical cancer?

A

16 and 18

31
Q

what are the cytological gradings for HPV?

A

Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL).High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

32
Q

main concerning adverse outcome of pill

A

here is an increased risk of VTE (venous thromboembolism). however risk is minimal - at worst it is the same as for a pregnancy

33
Q

what converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

A

5a reductase

34
Q

Adverse effects of Androgens? (give 2 for males, 2 for children and 1 for athletes)

A

Increase LDL & decrease HDL(increase risk of coronary heart disease). Priapism.Kids = Premature closure of epiphyseal plates or abnormal sexual maturation.Athletes = Liver damage

35
Q

what class is Cyproterone? what is its main use

A

steroidal antagonist for androgens. Prostate cancer

36
Q

which tissues in the body have oesteogen receptors(5)?

A

breast, uterus, bone, CNS, Heart

37
Q

ovarian epithelium? What is underneath?

A

simple (squamous or cubdoidal). underneath is tunica albuginea (dense connective tissue).

38
Q

describe the myometrium of the uterus

A

3 layers of smooth muscle. inner and outer longitudinal and middle is circular.

39
Q

epithelium of endometrium

A

mix of ciliated and secretory simple columnar

40
Q

breast milk is high in which antibody?

A

IgA

41
Q

when do the mammary glands enlarge in the menstrual cycle? how?

A

during luteal phase. epithelial cells more columnar, some secretions (lumens appear), fluid accumulates in stroma connective tissue.

42
Q

epithelium of Seminiferous?

A

stratified squamous

43
Q

what 2 cells of significance in tunica (lamina) propria of Seminiferous?

A

myoid (smooth muscle contractile) and Leydig (

44
Q

support cells for spermatogenisis

A

Sertoli

45
Q

role of seminal vesicle

A

secrete fructose for energy. make sperm alkaline

46
Q

Differences between euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A

eu = open, relaxed. Hetero = closed, condesned

47
Q

what percentage of the human genome is responsible for protein coding seqeunces

A

1-2%

48
Q

what does biallelic mean?

A

gene is expressed from both maternal and paternal copy

49
Q

Inactivation of genes on the X chromosome and genomic imprinting is mostly determined by epigenetic mechanisms. name them (3)

A

Histone modifications, DNA methylation and Non-codingRNAs

50
Q

• Currently 2 prenatal screening tests in major use are?what conditions these tests give a risk for? what is measured? when tests are carried out? what other factors are used in providing the risk figure? the cut-off for T21?

A

First trimester combined screening. Tests for T21 and T18 defect. Blood taken at 10 weeks (measure analytes), ultrasound at 13 weeks. In ultrasound measure neuchal translucency (oedema behind head) and crown rump. other factors are maternal age, weight. Cut off for T21 is 1/300.Second trimester maternal serum screening. Test for T21, 18 and neural tube defect. Blood taken at 16 week (measure analytes). also use maternal age, weight. Cut of for T21 is 1/250.

51
Q

Fetal sampling procedures? how they differ?

A

CVS (Chorionic villus sampling) - 11 weeks, placental tissue, ultrasound, invasive - risk of miscarriage 1%.Amnio - 15 weeks, amniotic fluid, ultrasound, invasive - risk of miscarriage half of above (.5%). if TOP requested - labour induced.

52
Q

define obstetric haemorrhage

A

major = more than 1500ml blood losssever = 2500

53
Q

which extra route of excretion of drugs do pregnant women have?

A

lactation

54
Q

2 drugs used in obstetric haemorrhage and 2 other interventions. role of drugs?

A

oxytocin (contracts uterus smooth mucle) and ergometrine (contracts uterus + vascular smooth muscle.Also need IV fluid and blood transfusion

55
Q

drugs used in pre-eclampsia. roles? what is contraindicated and why

A

Labetalol (controls hypertension) and magnesium sulphate (treats and prevents seizures).ergometrine is contra (will increase BP)

SAQs (13 decks)

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