Past questions Flashcards

1
Q

A 60 year old man with symptoms/risk factors of coronary heart disease has a transmural MI. 4 days later he suddenly develops shortness of breath, orthopnoea, hypertension and is found to have pulmonary oedema (has bilateral basal creps).
Give 3 causes for his pulmonary oedema

A

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure caused by:

fluid overload from LV dysfunction, mitral regurg from MI ripping papillary muscles , hospital acquired pneumonia

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2
Q

Mechanism for breathlessness, pulmonary oedema, orthopnea & pansystolic murmur after MI

A

MI > LV dysfunction > increase pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure > oedema> decreased lung compliance> increase WOB .
MI > LV dysfunction > increase pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure > increase WOB > SOB.
Gravity when lying causes blood to pool in pulmonary circulation when lying down > increase pulmonary pressure > SOB.
murmur = MI > mitral regurgitation (common after inferior MI) > pansystloic murmur.
or IHD > LV hypertrophy > mitral Regurg > murmur
or LV failure > fluid build up in lungs > RV failure > tricuspid regurg > murmu

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3
Q

Describe how a PA chest radiograph is systematically assessed?
What would you expect patients’s to look like

A

From inside to out. Start with midline - Trachea (midline shift), spine, heart. Check that the heart to chest ratio is no more than half. Check the the lung hilum for increases in diameter pressure or lymph enlargement.
Then check lungs for fluid > check pleura >
Then thoracic wall and soft tissue > then diaphragm.

Would expect this patient to have Kerley B lines due to his pulmonary oedema. And most likely an enlarged heart as it is likely his MI was caused by coronary heart disease

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4
Q

4 causes for chronic renal failure?

A

diabetic nephropathy, hypertension, glomerularnephritis, drugs

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5
Q

skeletal bone damage in Chronic renal failure

A

the hypocalcaemia and hyperphophataemia induce hyperparathyroidism. The increase in PTH increases osteoclast activity, extracting calcium from bone to compensate. this makes the bones weaker and more likely to fracture

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6
Q

Hyperphosphatemia & hypocalcemia in renal failure

A

hyperphosphotaemia due to decreased ability of kidneys to excrete phsophate.
Hypocalcaemia due to decrease ability of kidneys to produce vitamin D3 (as it makes one of the enzymes in the process). Vitamin D3 increases calcium absorption from gut, calcium renal reabsorption and increases osteoclast activation.

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7
Q

Causes of secondary hypertension

A

Chronic renal failure > decreased fluid excretion > fluid overload > increase BP.
Renal Artery Stenosis > low GFR > RAAS > vasoconstriction, cardiac hypertrpophy, Aldosterone production > increase MAP

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8
Q

Role of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in GFR

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus responds to:

  1. Direct Sympathetic stimulation
  2. changes in renal perfusion pressure (detected directly by the granular cells)
  3. changes in NaCl concentration at the macula densa.
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9
Q

structures in danger in hemithyoidectomy? where are they and what are potential problems

A

parathyroid glands (2 sets of gland, superior + inferior on posterior surface of each lobe of thyroid gland).
Recurrent Laryng -
para will cause hypocalcaemia + hyperphosphataemia. nerve damage can cause hoarse voice or loss of voice. May also cause resp issues by paralysising the cricoartynoid muscle which opens vocal cords.

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10
Q

thyroid hormone to increase HR meachanism

A

Increase Thyroid hormone> sympathomimetic effect increases b1 adrenorecptors on SA node> increase HR

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11
Q

why does thyroid mass move on swallowing?

A

firmly connected to the larynx by the pre-tracheal fascia. when swallow the inferior constrictor muscle constricts moving the larynx up and down

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12
Q

thyroid hormone production

A

TSH binds to follicular cell > stimulates thyrglobulin synthesis in rough ER> thyroglobulin enters colloid by exocytosis > I- enters via NIS symport > Thyroid perioxidase oxidises I- to I > Iodine is added by enzymes to tyrosine to make MIT or with MIT to make DIT > DIT + DIT = T4 or DIT + MIT = T3 > taken back into follicular cell via endocytosis > enzymes separate T3 and T4 from protein into bloodstream

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13
Q

Difference between normal anxiety for anxiety about medical procedures?

A

Blood-injury phobias differ from all other phobias in that the initial sympathetic activity underpinning the flight/fight response is soon overtaken by vagal activation. Thus, initially there may be a transient rise in heart rate and blood pressure, however, this is followed my marked vasovagal slowing of heart rate, a drop in blood pressure, there is nausea, sweating and pallor, and the individual may faint.
It is worth noting that people without a blood phobia also also show vagal inhibition in response to blood-injury stimuli despite sympathetic activation. Thus individuals with blood-injury phobias differ in the degree of cardiovascular response to blood or injury, rather than the type.

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14
Q

Outline the pathogenesis of hepatitis/cirrhosis. Make reference to specific cells.

A

Cirrhosis is the conversion of the liver into a state of abnormal anatomy= nodules of regenerating heptocytes surrounded by bands of fibrous (scar tissue). It is the end stage of all chronic hepatitis.

Pathology of cirrohsis includes chronic/ persistant hepatocyte necrosis, extracellular matrix deposition (fibrosis, or scar tissue formation), remodelling of the liver vascular supply (thought to be important in the later progression of cirrohosis)
The main source of abnormal collagen is the stalite cells. Stalite cells become activated – they contract and produce collagen (they turn into myofibroblasts).cytokines from the kupfler cells activates stalite cells.

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15
Q

How does alcohol cause damage to hepatocytes?

A

The main effects of alcohol on the liver are inflammation coupled with the accumulation of fat. Histological features are hepatocellular ballooning, mallory bodies and percellular fibrosis

The accumulation has 3 key mechanisms:

1) shunting of normal substrates away from catabolism and toward lipid synthesis, as a result of increased NADH (biproducts of ADH and AHDH).
(2) impaired assembly and secretion of lipoproteins.
(3) increased peripheral catabolism of fat, thus releasing free fatty acids into the circulation.

According to Robbins the causes of inflammation “are uncertain” but the ROS as a result of Cytochrome P 450 metabolism plays a role as it reacts with proteins, damages membranes and alters cellular function.

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16
Q

(Given a picture of a cirrhotic liver) Which vessels are most likely to bleed and why? which vessesls most likely to bleed in haematemisis

A

the portal hypertension caused by the cirrhosis may results in shunting of blood at sites of porto-systemic anastamoses. the most common sites of the varices the oesophagus, rectum and paraumbilical regions.
Oesophagus most prone to bleeding. Haemmorhoids and caput medusae are less prone to bleeding

17
Q

how does cirrhosis cause portal hypertension

A
  1. Splanchnic circulation in cirrhosis is hyperdynamic, resulting in increased portal vein and hepatic arterial blood flow, contraction of vascular smooth muscle and stellate cells even before fibrosis has advanced.
  2. Hepatic vein is directly compressed by regenerating nodules’
  3. Small portal vein branches are trapped, narrowed and distorted by scar tissue.
  4. Hepatic arterial blood shunts in portal vein via arteriovenous anastomoses.
18
Q

type of genes involved in cancer?

A
  1. growth promoting proto-oncogenes.
  2. Growth inhibiting tumour suppressor gene.
  3. genes that regulate apoptosis.
  4. genes that regulate DNA repair.
19
Q

roles of cancer genes? how many mutations need for each gene

A

TSG’s - Respond to particular cellular stress via - DNA Repair, apoptosis, cell cycle arrest.

Oncogenes promote growth and proliferation.

oncogenes only need one hit, where as TSG’s need both alleles to be lost.

20
Q

What are 5 factors which may affect treatment and/or prognosis of a person with cancer?

A

Specific tumour type: Different types have different behaviours and different risks of metastases.

Tumour grade: Reflects how quickly a tumour is likely to grow and metastasise. Higher grade = more aggressive.

Tumour size: Larger size = more likely for metastases to have already occurred

Lymphovascular invasion: If present indicates increased likelihood of metastases even if no metastases detected.

Nodal metastasis: Once metastasised cure is more difficult as can’t cure surgically - need alternative therapies to treat metastases.

21
Q

Difference between fibroadenoma/adenoma

A

Fibroandenoma = a benign breast lump composed of fibrous and glandular tissue. The are solitary well circumscribed mass, and easy to move around. Usually in younger women.

Adenoma = is a benign epithelial tumour with glandular orgins and/or characterisitcs. Adenomas grow from many glandular organs and even some without. They can become malignant

22
Q

2 defining features of depression?

A

at least one of the symptoms is either (1) depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, or (2) loss of interest or pleasure.
Can be subjective or observation by others.

23
Q

What is a myotome? Which myotomes damaged in radial nerve injury?

A

The group of muscles that a single spinal nerve root innervates.
Depends where it is injured it - the higher up the limb the more motor deficit.
At Axilla Loss of extension of forearm, weakness of supination, and loss of extension of hand and fingers.
Coincides with C7,C8.

24
Q

Patient has a low blood pressure (systolic 60), high heart rate and high resp rate
What is this called?
What are the 2 major ways the body detects this?

A

cardiogenic shock. Baroreceptors in aortic and carotid sinus detect pressure. Chemoreceptors detect pH, pO2 and PCO2.
Periph = Aortic body detects changes in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide, but not pH, while carotid body detects all three.
Central = pH of CSF

25
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of a peptic ulcer.

Where are they?

A

small punched out hole with clear margins and a smooth base.

Ratio of 4:1 in D1 to antrum (lesser curve).

26
Q

What are 5 physiological ways the gastric mucosa is protected from stomach acid?

A
  1. special mucus produced by mucus cells.
  2. Bicarbonate
  3. Tight epithelial junction
  4. prostaglandins inhibit acid secretion.
  5. Neg feedback of D cells inhibits acid secretion
27
Q

explain why NSAIDs cause GIT problems

A

inhibits mucosal secretion of PGE2 and PGI2.

PGE2 induces mucus secretion + bicarb secretion, inhibits gastric acid secretion

28
Q

What types of anaemia can be caused by gastritis?

A

both iron defficeincy from excessive blood loss and
Pernicious anaemia - results from destruction of parietal cells by an autoimmune gastritis, with reduced production of intrinsic factor resulting in reduced absorption of vitamin B12.

29
Q

Definition of INR

A

international normalized ratio -
INR = (patient PT/mean normal PT) ^ISI.
ISI = international sensitivity index – reflects
the sensitivity of reagent to reduction in Vit K
dependent factors

30
Q

MOA of warfarin

A

inhibits vitamin K reductase which is needed in the recycling of vitamin K once it has been used in as a cofactor. Vitamin K needed to activate clotting factors 2,7,9, 10

31
Q

Raised ICP - Monro Kellie hypothesis

A

The pressure-volume relationship between ICP, volume of CSF, blood, and brain tissue.
Volume inside cranium is fixed and its constiuents (blood, CSF, Brain tissue) are in equilibrium. Thus an increase in one must be compensated by a decrease in one of the others

32
Q

Papilloedema – mechanism of pupil dilation in both eyes

A

optic disc swelling that is caused by increased intracranial pressure.
As the optic nerve sheath is continuous with the subarachnoid space increased pressure is transmitted through to the optic nerve.

33
Q

signs of rasied icp (6)

A

headache, decreased consciousness, vomitting, lethargy, seizures, papilloedema, other neuro symptoms (weakness, numbness, double vision) .

34
Q

13PCV, tetanus, HBV – what do the vaccines consist of

A

PCv = 13 most pathogenic capsule subtypes with a toxoid, HBV = HBs surface antigen, Tetanus = toxoid.

35
Q

3 ads and 2 disads of living vaccines

A

ads - broader immune response
• local immunity (sometimes)
• ease of administration (sometimes).
Disads - Disease (back mutation or contamination) or failure

36
Q

3 ads and 2 disads of killed vaccines

A
  • stable
  • contamination unlikely
  • safe for immune deficient.

Dis -
• weaker immune response • high dose • expensive.

37
Q

why give hep B at birth?

A

Coz can be contracted perinatally

38
Q

why conjugate as opposed to unconjugated?

A

Improved immune and memory response,
Longer lasting protection,
The protection of infants and toddlers,