Shift Flashcards

1
Q

Atropine dosing

A

1mg IV q5min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

peds atropine dosing

A

.01-.03mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diltiazem dosing

A

.25 mg/kg IV over 2 min
repeat q15 mins at .35mg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diltiazem infusion

A

5mg/hr -> 10 -> 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACAT MUDPILES

A

alc ketoacidosis, carbon monoxide, ASA, Toluene
Methanol, uremia, DKA
Paraldehyde, iron/INH, lactic acidosis, ethylene glycol, starvation/sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do you give insulin with K+ levels in HHS

A

> 5 = nothing
4-5 = 20-30 mEq in 1st liter then 20 mEq/hr
3-4 = 40 mEq
<3 = hold insulin & give 10-20 mEq until >3.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tx for hypoglycemia

A

1.D5W
2. Octreotide
3. glucagon
***if adrenal insuff then give hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

glucagon dosing

A

0.5-2mg IV/IM/SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

peds glucagon dosing

A

.03-.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hydrocortisone dosing

A

100mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dx HHS

A
  1. pH > 7.3
  2. BG >600
  3. HCO3 >15
  4. Serum osm >320
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

purpura description

A

non-blanchable, palpable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Venous stasis MC s/sx

A

pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC location of venous stasis ulcers

A

proximal to medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DX osteomyelitis

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dx venous air embolism

A

bubble study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

churning sound on auscultation of heart

A

air embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

position for arterial air embolism

A

supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

position for venous air embolism

A

left lateral decubitus or trendelenburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pancreatitis abx

A

fluoroquinolone + metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Abx covering gram neg

A

Aminoglycosides, Monobactams, Ciprofloxacin, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Fluoroquinolones, Polymyxins, and Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

abx covering anaerobes

A

Augmentin, Unasyn, Zosyn, Cefoxitin, carbapenems, moxifloxacin, clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abx covering MRSA

A

doxycycline, vancomycin, daptomycin, TMP SMX, clindamycin, linezolid, 5th gen cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

abx covering pseudomonas

A

Zosyn, ceftazidime, Rocephin, carbapenems, quinolones, amnioglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ranson Criteria on admission

A

Age >55 yr
WBC count >16,000 mm3
Blood glucose >200 mg/dL
Serum lactate dehydrogenase >350 IU/L
AST >250 IU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

triad of Salicylate toxicity

A
  1. respiratory alkalosis (earliest sign)
  2. AG metabolic acidosis
  3. metabolic (contraction) alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tx of Salicylate toxicity

A
  1. airway - avoid intubation
    2.decontamination - charcoal vs irrigation
  2. D5W - impairs glucose metab
  3. Bicarb - NaHCO3 1-2mEq/kg IV bolus; then 3amp bicarb in 1L D5W at 2-3mL/kg/hr
  4. dialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pathophys of Salicylate tox

A

Uncouples oxidative phosphorylation → increased metabolic rate and hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

s/sx of salicylate tox

A
  1. N/V
  2. resp alkalosis
  3. AG metab acidosis
  4. hyperthermia
  5. AMS
    6.pul edema - increased pul vascularity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

anaphylaxis epi dosing

A

.3-.5mg IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

epi cardiac arrest

A

1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

push dose epi

A

10mg syringe with NS –> remove 1cc -> add 1cc epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

management of transient global amnesia

A
  1. Rule out CVA (clinically or with further workup)
  2. Neurology referral
  3. Once diagnosed, no specific treatment needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

s/sx of transient global amnesia

A

Anterograde amnesia
Unaware of their memory loss
Normal attention and social skills
Struggle with delayed recall
Periods of time typically less than 24 hrs, but typically lasts 4-6 hrs
No localizing symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

isopropyl metabs to

A

acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

isopropyl alcohol

A
  • AG metab acidosis
    +osmolar gap
    +ketones
  • ca ox stones
    + reduced vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Work up for toxic alcohols

A

Fingerstick glucose
Complete metabolic panel
Serum ketones
Serum Osmolality
Urinalysis
VBG
Aspirin/Tylenol levels
ECG
Serum alc level
Total CK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tx isopropyl toxicity

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ethylene glycol

A

+AG metab
+osmolar gap
-ketones
+ca ox stones
- reduced vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

tx ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Fomepizole, thiamine, B6, dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Methanol

A

+AG metab
-ketones
-ca ox
+ reduced vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tx methanol toxicity

A

fomepizole, etoh, folinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clinical features of CRAO

A

sudden, painless, monocular vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Work up for CRAO

A

ESR & CRP, carotid US, EKG, echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Managment of CRAO

A

high ESR/CRP -> start steroids & ophthalmology consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ativan dose for seizures

A

2mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CIWA score to start benzos

A

8-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

management of type I AC joint injury

A

rest, ice, sling
ROM and strengthening exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

management of type II AC joint injury

A

rest, ice, sling 3-7 days
ROM and strengthening exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

management of Type III AC injury

A

rest, ice, sling 2-3 weeks
ROM and strengthening exercises
return to sport/work 6-12 weeks after injury
ortho consult within one week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Type IV & V AC joint injury

A

surgery; ortho consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

RSI induction agents

A

Etomidate
Versed
Propofol
Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

etomidate dosing

A

0.2-0.4mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

etomidate onset and duration

A

onset: 1 min
duration 30-60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Versed dosing

A

0.2-0.3mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Versed onset and duration

A

onset: 1-2 mins
duration: 30-60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

propofol dosing

A

1-3mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

propofol duration

A

10-15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ketamine dosing

A

1-2 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ketamine duration

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

RSI paralytics

A

succinylcholine, rocuronium, vecuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

succinylcholine dosing

A

1.5mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

succinylcholine onset and duration

A

onset: 45 seconds
duration: 4-6 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Rocuronium dosing

A

1.2mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rocuronium onset and duration

A

onset: 60 seconds
duration: 25-60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Vecuronium dosing

A

0.1mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

vecuronium onset and duration

A

onset 60-90 seconds
duration: 65 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

COPD exacerbation tx

A

CPAP/BiPAP, Duonebs (albuterol/ipratropium), steroids, magnesium, +/- abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tx for outpatient CAP with no comorbidities

A

amoxicillin or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tx for outpatient CAP with comorbidities (chronic heart, liver, lung, and renal disease; DM, alcoholism, malignancy, or asplenia)

A

Augmentin or cephalosporin + macrolide or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tx for inpatient CAP (non-severe)

A

beta lactam + macrolide OR fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

TX for inpatient CAP (severe)

A

beta lactam + macrolide OR beta lactam + fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Causes of proctitis

A

radiation, autoimmune, vasculitis, ischemia, infectious (STI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

causes of epididymitis

A

STI ; e.coli, pseudomonas, TB, syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

tx epididymitis

A

STI: rocephin and doxy
STi and enteric: rocpehin and levofloxacin
only enteric: Levofloxacin
Peds: Bactrim or augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Bacteria that causes cellulitis

A

staph and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

COVID 19 tx outpatient

A

Paxlovid, remdesivir,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

COVID tx outpatient or inpatient requiring new or increased oxygen

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Normal vent settings

A

TV: 8
RR: 10-12
PEEP: 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

lung protective vent settings

A

TV: 6
RR:12-20
PEEP: 2-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

obstructive vent settings

A

TV: 6
RR: 5-8
PEEP: 0-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Hypovol vent settings

A

TV: 8
RR: 10-12
PEEP: 0-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

SCAPE (sympathetic crashing acute pul edema) s/sx

A

rales/crackles
SBP >180
Tachycardia
Tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Tx SCAPE

A

GOAL: vasodilate arterial side and maintain oxygenation
BiPAP
Nitroglycerin
if dehydrated: IVF
captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

acute post infectious cerebellar ataxia

A

sudden ataxia after viral infection
can be seen on MRI
onset 5-10 days after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

psychogenic non-epileptic seizures tx

A

if new: EEG
lorazepam 1-2mg or hydroxyzine 50-100mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

psychogenic non-epileptic seizures eval

A

same as seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

transient synovitis s/sx

A

unilat hip pain; children <10 yo; recent URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

transient synovitis eval

A

XR, ESR, CBC, CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

transient synovitis tx

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess s/sx

A

early: sore throat, fever, dysphagia, torticollis
Late: stridor, resp distress, chest pain, drooling, neck stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess dx

A

CT with IV contrast or XR soft tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess tx

A

ENT for I&D
clindamycin or cefoxitin or zosyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

types of supracondylar fx that needs ortho and surgery

A

type II & III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

splint for supracondylar

A

double sugar tong or long arm posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

XR findings of supracondylar fracture

A

anterior fat pad, posterior fat pad, and anterior humeral line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

tx refractory vfib

A

ap pad placement

98
Q

refractory vfib definition

A

continues after three successful shocks from a defib

99
Q

Miller fisher syndrome

A

(GBS variant) ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, areflexia

100
Q

neutropenic enterocolitis s/sx

A

10-14days after toxic drug (chemo), fever, RLQ pain, N/V

101
Q

neutropenic enterocolitis dx

A

neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
CT: cecal distention, wall thickening, pneumatosis, perf, fat stranding

102
Q

neutropenic enterocolitis tx

A

NPO, NG to suction, IVF, TPN, flagyl + cefepime or zosyn or amphotericin B

103
Q

chance fx

A

unstable; caused by flexion distraction forces (seatbelt from MVC)

104
Q

MC location for chance fx

A

T12-L2

105
Q

chance fx tx

A

if no neuro deficits: immobilize
neuro deficits: surgery

106
Q

ITP s/sx

A

petechiae, epistaxis, gingival bleeding, menorrhagia, GI bleed, intracranial bleed

107
Q

ITP tx

A

adults: high dose steroids
peds: IVIG and steroids

108
Q

tx mesenteric adenitis

A

only if ill: ciporfloxacin or TMP/SMX to cover for yersinia

109
Q

Tx HAPE

A

O2, hyperbarics, nifedipine (30mg ER)

110
Q

Tx of hypercalcemia of malignancy

A

only if s/sx or >14; fluids, calcitonin, bisphosphonates; dialysis

111
Q

when do you give dialysis for hypercalcemia

A

Anuric with renal failure
Failing all other therapy
Severe hypervolemia not amenable to diuresis
Serum Calcium level >18mg/dL
Neurologic symptoms
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (unable to provide fluids)

112
Q

refeeding syndrome electrolyte abnormalities

A

hypophos, hypomag, metab acidosis, hypokal, prolonged QT

113
Q

starting BiPAP settings

A

IPAP of 8-10 cm H2O and an EPAP of 2-4 cm H2O.

114
Q

Traditional initial mechanical vent settings

A

FiO2: 100%, rate: 8-12, PEEP 0-5, TV: 5-8, I:E: 1:2

115
Q

LVAD complications

A

pump thrombosis, batteries, suction event (cannula malposition, tamponade, or vascular resistance), arrhythmia, infection, bleeding

116
Q

how to measure BP with LVAD

A

BP cyff with doppler

117
Q

Elevated LDH >1150 for LVAD patients

A

pump thrombosis

118
Q

when to start compressions on a LVAD patient

A

patient is unresponsive with MAP less than 50mmHg, end tidal carbon dioxide level less than 20mmHg, or LVAD cannot be restarted

119
Q

NMS presentation

A

AMS, hyperthermia, lead pipe rigidity (MC), tachycardia, HTN, diaphoresis

120
Q

Tx NMS

A

benzos, IVF, cooling; +/- dantrolene and bromocriptine

121
Q

NMS cause

A

antipsychotics or DA anti nausea

122
Q

How to tell difference between NMS and serotonin syndrome

A

NMS has elevated CK, LFTs, and WBCs and decreased iron

123
Q

serotonin syndrome presentation

A

clonus (MC), more acute, hyperreflexia, AMS, tremor

124
Q

tx serotonin sydrome

A

benzos, cyproheptadine, chlorpromazine

125
Q

malignant hyperthermia causes

A

anesthesia

126
Q

malignant hyperthermia tx

A

dantrolene, O2, bicarb

127
Q

malignant hyperthermia presentation

A

fever, muscle contraction (Masseter), hypercarbia

128
Q

tx of asthma exacerbation

A

O2, albuterol, ipratropium, steroids (dexamethasone or methylprednisone), magnesium, epi (0.5mg), terbutaline,

129
Q

tx lymphadenitis

A

abx - cephalexin, augmentin

130
Q

ethylene glycol produces what stones

A

ca oxalate

131
Q

what toxic alcohols produce reduced vision

A

methanol an disopropyl

132
Q

what toxic alcohols produce ketones

A

ethanol and isopropyl

133
Q

lethal triad of trauma

A

coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis

134
Q

what is the shock index

A

HR/SBP; closer to 1 is bad

135
Q

anterior shoulder dislocation on XR

A

displaced medially and overalying glenoid

136
Q

posterior shoulder dislocations on XR

A

light bulb sign, loss of half moon, trough sign

137
Q

ABI formula

A

SBP ankle/SBP brachial

138
Q

ABI values

A

<0.4 = severe occlusion
.4-.69 = moderate occlusion
0.7-0.9 = mild occlusion
0.91-1.30 = NORMAL
>1.30 = calcified vessels

139
Q

why use delayed sequence intubation

A

to help pre-oxygenation; use ketamine 1-2mg/kg

140
Q

PAC

A

abnormal early p wave; can precipitate Afib, Aflutter, or SVT

141
Q

underlying conditions with PACs

A

chronic heart disease, chronic lung disease, and drugs: cocaine, amphetamines, caffeine, nicotine, and digoxin

142
Q

PVCs

A

broad QRS

143
Q

causes of PVCs

A

anxiety, sympathomimetics, beta agonists, caffeine, hypokalemia, hypomag, digoxin, MI

144
Q

three or more PVCs with HR >100bpm

A

non sustained VT

145
Q

premature junctional complex

A

narrow QRS without preceding p wave or retrograde p wave

146
Q

constipation tx

A

docusate (emollient), senna/Bisacodyl (stimulant), mag citrate (saline laxative, lactulose (hypersom), enema (fleet vs soap sud)

147
Q

constipation work up

A

CBC, CMP (hypokalemia and hypercalcemia), LFTS + lipase
TSh if hypothyroid
lactate if stercoral colitis concern

148
Q

stercoral colitis

A

inflammatory colitis that causing increased intraluminal pressure from impacted feces; can cause ulceration/necrosis/perforation

149
Q

stercoral colitis CT findings

A

free air

150
Q

stercoral colitis tx

A

IVF, IV rocephin + Flagyl, surgical consult , can be non-surgical if no bowel perf or ischemia

151
Q

Hard signs of neck trauma

A

airway compromise, air bubbling, expanding hematoma or pulsatile hematoma, active bleeding, shock , hematemesis, neuro deficits, or absent radial pulses

152
Q

which neck zones will CNs be injured

A

zone 2&3

153
Q

which neck zone will esophagus be injured

A

zone 1&2

154
Q

which neck zone will the subclavian artery and vein be injured

A

zone 1

155
Q

clinical features of PAD

A

shiny, hyperpigmented skin, hair loss, cap refill >3 seconds

156
Q

PAD eval

A

ABI, CTA

157
Q

PAD eval

A

manage outpatient

158
Q

phlegmasia albs vs cerulea

A

alba: white leg, acute
cerulea: painful, blue, edema -> can progress to gangrene and high risk for PE

159
Q

does hypothyroidism cause anemia

A

yes: decreased receptors on BM

160
Q

hereditary spherocytosis labs

A

increased MCHC, spectrin def

161
Q

why does renal failure cause anemia

A

decreased EPO production

162
Q

lab findings of lead poisoning

A

basophilic stippling, increased free erythrocyte protoporphyrin

163
Q

adams13 function

A

cut vWF into smaller units to prevent clotting

164
Q

TTP

A

decreased adams13; hypercoag

165
Q

vWF disease

A

increased adams13; destroy vWF

166
Q

anagrelide moa

A

inhibits megakaryocytes from making platelets

167
Q

bernard soulier disease

A

defective gp1B; floating large mass of platelets that cannot anchor

168
Q

glanzmans disease

A

defective gp2B3A; platelets cannot bind together

169
Q

ADP2 receptor inhibitors

A

clopidogrel; stops the creation of gp2B3A

170
Q

ITP tx

A

STEROIDS, ig THERAPY

171
Q

ITP presentation

A

two weeks after URI; increased BT

172
Q

TTP pentad

A

purpura, fever, renal failure, neuro changes, hemolytic anemia

173
Q

TTP smear

A

schistocytes

174
Q

autoimmune thrombocytopenia tx (under 40k)

A

steroids

175
Q

autoimmune thrombocytopenia tx (under 20k)

A

plasmapheresis or IVIG

176
Q

intrinsic clotting system lab value

A

PTT

177
Q

Extrinsic clotting system lab value

A

PT

178
Q

thrombin inhibitors

A

agatroban, dabigatran, biluvaridin

179
Q

direct xa inhibitors

A

apixaban

180
Q

tx HIT

A

24-28 hrs: obs
>5 days: stop heparin, start thrombin inhibitor or xa inhibitor

181
Q

LMWH

A

enoxaparin aka lovenox

182
Q

heparin metabolism

A

hepatic

183
Q

LMWH metabolism

A

renal

184
Q

monitor heparin with

A

PTT

185
Q

monitor warfarin with

A

PT/INR

186
Q

vitamin k affects which factors

A

X,IX, VII, II, proteinC, protein S

187
Q

vWF disease lab values

A

elevated PTT and BT

188
Q

tx vWF disease

A

mild: DDAVP
mod: cyroprecipitate (8, 5, vWF, and fibrinogen)
severe: FFP

189
Q

tx hemophilia A

A

mild: DDAVP
mod: cryoprecipitate
Severe: factor 8

190
Q

tx hemophilia B

A

FFP

191
Q

tpa reversal

A

aminocaproic acid

192
Q

tx polycythemia rubra vera

A

NS+ASA+anegrelide

193
Q

anterior mediastinum cancers

A

thymus, thyroid, t cell leukemia/lymphomas, teratomas

194
Q

kidney transplant rejection s/sx

A

HTN + decreased UOP; increased creatinine

195
Q

kidney transplant complications

A

renal artery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis, fistula, pseudoaneurysm, ureteral obstruction

196
Q

liver transplant rejection s/sx

A

malaise + ab pain; jaundice + increased LFTs

197
Q

complications of liver transplant

A

thrombosis of portal vein or hepatic artery, biliary obstruction, bile leak, biliary stricture, hemorrahge

198
Q

lung transplant rejection s/sx

A

diff breathing +xr infiltrates

199
Q

cardiac transplant rejection s/sx

A

dyspnea+ palpitations+ arrhythmia +/- syncope

200
Q

does atropine work for heart transplants

A

no; no vagus nerve

201
Q

corneal transplant rejection s/sx

A

pain + injection + decreased visual acuity

202
Q

discriminatory zone of intrauterine sac on US

A

1500 to 2000 mIU/mL

203
Q

causes of cardio syncope

A

WPW, long QT, brugada, catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, sick sinus, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

204
Q

catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

A

7-9 yo; intracell calcium dysregulation; polymorphic vtach -> syncope/presyncope, palpitations, death

205
Q

what is catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia induced by

A

exercise, emotional stress, physio stress

206
Q

tx catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

A

IV beta blockers; at home nadalol, flecainide, verapamil

207
Q

arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

A

fibro-fatty infiltrate of R vent

208
Q

hemolytic anemia labs

A

low hgb, low hemocrit, reticulocytosis, elevated indirect bilirubin

209
Q

intravascular hemolysis (cold -> IgM)

A

high LDH, low haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria

210
Q

intravascular hemolysis causes

A

mycoplasma pneumo, MM, idiopathic

211
Q

extravascular hemolysis (Warm -> IgG)

A

in spleen -> hemolysis -> unconjugated -> conjugated hyperbili

212
Q

tx warm hemolytic anemia

A

plasmapheresis if severe

213
Q

tx cold hemolytic anemia

A

prednisone, plasmapheresis, transfuse RBCs

214
Q

meningitis tx for neonates

A

ampicillin, gentamicin, vanco

215
Q

meningitis tx for 1 month - 50 yo

A

Rocephin, vanco, acyclovir

216
Q

meningitis tx for >50 yo

A

rocephin, vanco, ampicillin

217
Q

meningitis tx for post procedural or penetrating trauma

A

vanco, cefepime

218
Q

ampicillin covers for

A

listeria

219
Q

dic tx

A

tx underlying illness; fibrinogen, platelets, FFP, vit k, folate, heparin

220
Q

vitamin k dosage for warfarin

A

100mcg

221
Q

lovenox reversal

A

protamine

222
Q

indication for surgery for acute sdh

A

hematoma >10mm thick
midline shift >5mm
GCS <9 or 2 point decrease from injury to admission
ICP >20
asym or fixed pupils
lethargy or mental status changes

223
Q

neurogenic shock tx

A

IVF and NE; may add phenylephrine

224
Q

lab values of tumor lysis syndrome

A

hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphos, hypocal, ARF

225
Q

dialysis criteria for tumor lysis syndrome

A

Potassium >6
Significant renal insufficiency (Creatinine >10)
Uric Acid >10
Symptomatic hypocalcemia
Serum phosphorus >10
Volume overload

226
Q

CT imaging of typhlitis

A

cecal distention, wall thickening, pneumatosis intestinalis, intestinal perforation, fat stranding

227
Q

tx typhlitis

A

bowel rest, NG, IVF, TPN, consider GCSF (for neutropenia)
abx: flagyl + cefepime or zosyn or amphotericin B

228
Q

calcium gluconate dosage for hyperk

A

1g

229
Q

insulin/dextrose dosage for hyperk

A

insulin : 10 units
dextrose: 50g

230
Q

albuterol dosage for hyperk

A

15-20mg

231
Q

furosemide dosage for hyperk

A

40-80mg

232
Q

Lokelma dosage for hyperk

A

10mg TID

233
Q

hypokalemic periodic paralysis

A

muscle weakness (can be painful)
strenuous exercise, high carb meal, high sodium meals, suden change in temp, emotional stress

234
Q

hypokalemic periodic paralysis physical exam

A

decreased reflexes, shoulder/hips involved most often, no myoclonus or spasticity

235
Q

hypokalemic periodic paralysis tx

A

replace k, propranolol

236
Q

thyrotoxic periodic paralysis

A

mc in males and asians
painless weakness, lasts hours to days, proximal muscles > distals, hyporeflexia

237
Q

hemolysis bilirubin levels

A

total: increased
direct: -

238
Q

liver disease bilirubin levels

A

total: increased x2
direct: increased x2

239
Q

obstruction bilirubin levels

A

total: increased x3
direct: increased x3

240
Q

cirrhosis bilirubin levels

A

total: increased
direct: increased

241
Q

tx crigler nijjar

A

phenobarbital