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PGY2 > Peer Prep > Flashcards

Peer Prep Flashcards

1
Q

MC finding of cyanide poisoning

A

lactic acidosis

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2
Q

benzocaine can cause

A

methyl hemoglobinemia; benzocaine found in teething gel

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3
Q

TX methyl hemoglobinemia

A

methylene blue

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4
Q

charcoal is usually used with what overdose?

A

acetylsalicylate acid

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5
Q

phases of iron toxicity

A
  1. vom/diarrhea
    2.recovery of phase 1
  2. acidosis, liver failure, shock, seizures
    4.pyloric stenosis
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6
Q

when to give digfab

A

ventricular tachycardia present

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7
Q

systemic fluoride poisoning electrolyte abnorms

A

hypo calcium and hypomagnesium

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8
Q

drug that can cause methemoglobinemia

A

chloroquine

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9
Q

strychnine

A

like tetanus

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10
Q

rationale for hyperbaric chamber for CO poisoning

A

decrease risk for delayed neuro sequela

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11
Q

medication best for opioid withdrawal symptoms

A

buprenorphine

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12
Q

water hemlock poisoning

A

GI sx, convulsions

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13
Q

hemlock poisoning s/sx

A

like nicotine; GI sx

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14
Q

oleander poisoning

A

GI sx; hyperkalemia and dysrhythmias

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15
Q

amanita mushroom poisoning

A

delayed GI sx; hepatic failure

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16
Q

if patient on SSRI and is intubated, what post intubation sedation medication should be avoided?

A

fentanyl

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17
Q

tx of topical hydrofluoric acid exposure

A

decontamination and topical magnesium or calcium

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18
Q

absolute contraindication for physostigmine for anticholinergic toxidrome

A

widen QRS

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19
Q

ciguatera

A

cold allodynia, CNS, GI

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20
Q

why does TCAs cause QT prolongation

A

sodium channel blockers

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21
Q

imipramine can cause what toxidrome

A

anticholinergic

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22
Q

diphenhydramine overdose s/sx

A

hallucinations, seizures, adn dilated pupils

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23
Q

substance that causes lactate gap

A

ethanol glycol

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24
Q

what local anesthetic causes allergic rxns

A

proparacaine, benzocaine

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25
Q

s/sx of large ingestion of ibuprofen

A

gi upset -> seizures, coma, AKI, ACS, upper GI bleed

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26
Q

strongest predictor of intimate partner homicide

A

access to firearms

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27
Q

MC location of intimate partner violence

A

face

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28
Q

electrolyte abnormality in anorexia

A

hypophos

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29
Q

type pf vision loss in conversion disorder

A

circumferential

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30
Q

metaphyseal chip fx assoc with

A

non accidental trauma

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31
Q

MCC of PTSD

A

sex violence

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32
Q

PTSG acute tx

A

propranolol

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33
Q

absolute indication for hospitalization in anorexia

A

hypothermia

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34
Q

most strongly assoc with PTSD

A

TBI

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35
Q

patient with confusion, what findings suggest primary psych disorder

A

insidious onset

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36
Q

delirium vs dementia

A

dementia: impaired ability to learn new information,

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37
Q

symptoms expected in opioid withdrawal vs alcohol withdrawal

A

myalgias

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38
Q

tx for acute opioid withdrawal

A

buprenorphine

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39
Q

med contraindicated in preggo with opioid use disorder

A

clonidine

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40
Q

clonidine MOA

A

alpha 1 agonist

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41
Q

buprenorphine MOA

A

partial opioid agonist and weak antagonist

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42
Q

what ingestion causes mixed acid base disturbance

A

asa

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43
Q

tx for hypertensive emergency secondary to pheochromocytoma

A

phentolamine

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44
Q

hypokalemia ekg findings

A

qt prolongation, flattened t waves, u wave after every t wave

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45
Q

tx for hypercalcemia due to malignancy

A

zolendronic acid

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46
Q

tx for hyperphos

A

selevamer

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47
Q

behcet syndrome

A

stomatitis, uveitis, genital lesions

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48
Q

adult epiglottitis associated with

A

diabetes

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49
Q

tx iritis

A

cycloplegic eye drops

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50
Q

tx acute angle closure glaucoma

A

timolol and acetazolamide

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51
Q

abx for corneal abrasions

A

tobramycin 0.3% ophthalmic solution

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52
Q

acetazolamide moa for mountain sickness

A

causes metabolic acidosis

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53
Q

CRAO eye exam

A

retinal pallor adn cherry red macula

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54
Q

what artery does an embolus originate that leads to CRAO

A

internal carotid artery

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55
Q

MC complication of untreated traumatic hyphema

A

rebleeding

56
Q

tx hyphema

A

topical beta blockers, IV mannitol, topical alpha agonist, CA inhibitors, and topical steroids

57
Q

acetazolamide contraindicated in what kind of patients with hyphema

A

sickle cell; increase sickling

58
Q

lab value that increases with hemophilia A

A

PTT

59
Q

goodpasture main symptom systems

A

pulmonary and renal

60
Q

what is a possible consequence of uncontrolled bleeding in a patient with severe hemophilia A

A

compartment syndrome

61
Q

etanercept assoc with what

A

developing TB

62
Q

labs for kawasaki disease

A

CRp >3 and ESR >40
anemia
platelet >450,000
albumin <3
WBC >15,000
>10 wbc on UA

63
Q

what medication is contraindicated for vWF disease

A

ASA

64
Q

TTP

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia, AMS, fever
schistocytes

65
Q

congenital rubella s/sx

A

b/l cataracts, blueberry muffin rash, and b/l hearing loss

66
Q

when are steroids indicated for PCP infections

A

PO2 less than 70 or SpO2 less than 92%

67
Q

herpes zoster in three or more dermatomes means

A

underlying immunocompromised state

68
Q

ARDS tidal volume

A

4-8 mg/kg ideal body weight

69
Q

viral encephalitis csf labs

A

moderately elevated WBC with high lymphocyte

70
Q

travel recently from West Africa with fever, fatigue, and bleeding gums

A

ebola

71
Q

waterborne pathogen that is primarily associated with cutaneous findings

A

mycobacterium marinum

72
Q

dx giardia

A

stool antigen

73
Q

TB exposure guidelines

A

TB test immediately then in 3 months. do not start INH without confirmed dx

74
Q

tx lyme disease with CNS involvement

A

IV Rocephin

75
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever CSF findings

A

pleocytosis

76
Q

tick borne disease with spirochete

A

tick borne relapsing fever

77
Q

helminth that causes fatal hyperinfestation in immuncompromised patients

A

strongyloides stercoralkis

78
Q

chloroquine resistant tx

A

atovaquone-proguanil or quinine with doxycycline

79
Q

tx neurosyphilis

A

pencillin G IV q4h x10-14 days

80
Q

other forms of obtaining botulisms in children besides preformed toxin ingestion

A

ingestion of spores form environmental dust

81
Q

QSOFA

A

RR > 22, SBP <100, and AMS

82
Q

close contacts of N. meningitis tx

A

ciprofloxacin or rifampin or ceftriaxone

83
Q

who do you call for botulism

A

state or local health department

84
Q

MC cardiac manifestation of lyme disease

A

palpitations

85
Q

what is acute retroviral syndrome

A

early HIV; diffuse adenopathy, fever, myalgias, fatigue, nonexudative pharyngitis, HA, diarrhea

86
Q

acute radiation proctitis

A

rectal pain with tenesmus and positive occult blood with no grossly positive blood

87
Q

tx acute radiation proctitis

A

supportive, steroid enemas

88
Q

MC complication of diverticulitis

A

abscess

89
Q

giardia tx

A

metronidazole or tinidazole

90
Q

appendicitis mimic

A

Yersinia; stool culture for diagnosis

91
Q

RSI agent for neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia

A

non-depolarizing

92
Q

muscle rigidity in what condition is not reversed with non-depolarizing agent

A

malignant hyperthermia

93
Q

dry gangrene tx

A

bulky dressing

94
Q

MCC of sciatica in elderly

A

spinal stenosis

95
Q

MCC of sciatica younger pts

A

disc herniation

96
Q

earliest sign of flexor tenosynovitis

A

pain on passive extensive

97
Q

labs for rhabdomyolysis

A

hyperk, hypoca, high CK, hyperphos

98
Q

early signs of cauda equina

A

urinary retention

99
Q

abx for osteomyelitis

A

vanco + meropenem or zosyn

100
Q

MC source of osteo in children

A

hematogenous spread

101
Q

meds for acute gout flare with kidney dysfunction

A

prednisone

102
Q

imaging for avascular necrosis

A

MRI

103
Q

MC decade of life for Ewing sarcoma

A

second

104
Q

2nd line drug for seizures

A

fosphenytoin

105
Q

acute cerebellar ataxia

A

post-infectious (approx 2 weeks), less than 6 years, self resolve

106
Q

tx dyskinesia with parkinson’s

A

benzos

107
Q

MSk condition assoc with sacroiliitis

A

ankylosing spondylitis

108
Q

Virus that causes bells palsy

A

HSV

109
Q

MC pathological fracture

A

femur

110
Q

pathological fracture tx

A

ortho consult

111
Q

osteosarcoma MC characteristic

A

sunburst on XR

112
Q

MC osteochondroma location

A

distal femur; painless

113
Q

compression fracture tx

A

pain control -> surgical repair

114
Q

myositis ossificans

A

abnormal healing process with w/extraskeletal

115
Q

R/o cauda equina in ED

A

postvoid <50

116
Q

Fragility fx imaging modality of choice

A

CT

117
Q

gold standard imaging for discitis

A

MRI

118
Q

gold standard imaging for osteoporosis fx

A

MRI

119
Q

Compartment syndrome equation

A

DBP - compartment pressure
norm <10
<30 = no compartment syndrome

120
Q

Flexor tedinopathy

A

medial epicondyle; golfers elbow

121
Q

unicameral bone cyst

A

fluid filled cyst in bone
can cause pathologic fx

122
Q

Scaphoid fx location at greatest risk for avasc necrosis

A

proximal pole; arterial supply enters at distal scaphoid

123
Q

tx for cerebral vein thrombosis

A

Heparin -> endovascular intervention -> NSGY decompression

124
Q

over drainage from CSF shunt MCC

A

hematoma

125
Q

2nd line treatment for cluster HA

A

sumatripton

126
Q

when is the highest risk for a stroke after a TIA

A

first 2 days

127
Q

most important feature of NPH

A

gait disturbance

128
Q

drugs that can cause myasthenia crisis

A

aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, macrolides

129
Q

medication that does not work for TCA induced seizures

A

Phenytoin

130
Q

second line medication for cluster HA

A

subcutaneous sumatriptan

131
Q

abx class assoc with non convulsive status epi

A

beta lactams

132
Q

treat torticollis

A

benztropine

133
Q

mcc of mechanical VP shunt malfunction

A

catheter obstruction

134
Q

LVAD part most likely to become infected

A

driveline

135
Q
A

PGY2 (9 decks)

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