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fall A 2024 > Shetty's review questions > Flashcards

Shetty's review questions Flashcards

1
Q

during vigorous activity what action is decreased?

A

digestion of food is decreased (due to sympathetic nervous system)

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2
Q

albuterol used to treat asthma binds to … and causes bronchiole dilation

A

beta 2 (have 2 lungs)

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3
Q

the … division of the autonomic nervous system has its ganglia near the effector organs

A

parasympathetic

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4
Q

dual innervation means that …

A

both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system supply an organ

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5
Q

most postsynaptic sympathetic fibers use … as their neurotransmitter

A

norepinephrine (for excitement)

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6
Q

the autonomic nervous system differs from the somatic nervous system in all of the following characteristics EXCEPT …

A

the structural characteristics of its neurons

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7
Q

neurotransmitters released by sympathetic post-ganglionic fibers going to the heart would cause …

A

and increase in rate and force of contraction

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8
Q

the division of the autonomic nervous system that puts you into fight or flight mode is the …

A

sympathetic division

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9
Q

effectors of the somatic nervous system have …

A

receptors for acetylcholine called cholinergic receptors.

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10
Q

which of the following neurotransmitters would be the only secretion of the sympathetic preganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system?

A

all preganglionic fibers release ACh

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11
Q

which of the following would NOT take place during exercise or vigorous physical activity?

A

during increased PA such as running digestive activity is actually decreased and postponed by sympathetic activity.

directs energy to pa

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12
Q

which of the following would NOT occur when the parasympathetic system is active?

A

parasym associated with warm skin indicating there is no need to divert blood to skeletal muscles or vital organ because body is relaxing.
sym activity associated with cold, sweaty skin.

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13
Q

which of the following does NOT secrete ACh?

A

sympathetic postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine

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14
Q

the sacral part of the parasympathetic division serves which of the following organs?

A

the distala half of the large intestine

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15
Q

the vagus nerve regulates major elements of which part of the nervous system?

a. parasympathetic ns
b. enteric ns
c. sympathetic ns
d. central ns

A

parasympathetic ns

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16
Q

which of these is not a feature of postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system?

a. originating distal to the effector organ
b. unmyelinated
c. short
d. noradrenergic

A

c. short

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17
Q

activation of the sympathetic nervous system leads to the fight or flight response. which of these is not part of the process?

a. vasodilation in skeletal muscle
b. sweating
c. bladder relaxation
d. increased gut motility

A

d. increased gut motility

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18
Q

which of the following is not caused by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. an increase in Ca2+ release in cardiomyocytes
b. an increase in cardiac output
c. an increase in blood pressure
d. a decrease in heart rate

A

d. a decrease in heart rate

decrease is opposite of stress response

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19
Q

stimulation of which one of the following receptors causes vasoconstriction?

a. B1-adrenoceptors
b. B2-adrenoceptors
c. a-adrenoceptors
d. nicotinic receptors

A

c. a-adrenoceptors

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20
Q

sympathetic innervation of the liver regulates which function?

a. formation of glucose from glycogen
b. bile synthesis and production
c. iron storage
d. endocrin function

A

a. formation of glucose from glycogen

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21
Q

cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except…

a. constriction of most blood vessels
b. increase of heart rate and force
c. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
d. dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles

A

c. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

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22
Q

sympathetic division stimulation causes

a. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
b. decreased BG, increased GIP, and increased HR and BP
c. decreased BG, increased GIP, and decreased HR and BP
d. increased BG, decreased GIP, and Increased HR and BP

A

d. increased BG, decreased GIP, and Increased HR and BP

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23
Q

emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the inferior colliculus

a. hypothalamus
b. lateral horn of the spinal cord
c. lateral geniculate of the thalamus

A

a. hypothalamus

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24
Q

the parasympathetic tone

a. determines normal activity of the urinary tract
b. prevents unnecessary heart deceleration
c. accelerates activity off the digestive tract
d. causes blood pressure to rise

A

a. determines normal activity of the urinary tract

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25
Q

cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except

a. constriction of most blood vessels
b. increase of heart rate and force
c. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
d. dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles

A

c. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

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26
Q

visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that

a. visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
b. visceral arcs do not use integration centers
c. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
d. somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not

A

c. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

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27
Q

beat-blockers

a. decrease heart rate and blood pressure
b. increase in a dangerously low heart rate
c. are potent antidepressants
d. have widespread sympathetic effects

A

a. decrease heart rate and blood pressure

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28
Q

the parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is

a. the ciliary ganglion
b. otic ganglion
c. pterygopalatine ganglion
d. submandibular ganglion

A

a. the ciliary ganglion

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29
Q

the resting and digesting division of the ANS is the …

a. sympathetic division
b. parasympathetic division
c. peripheral nervous system
d. somatic division

A

b. parasympathetic division

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30
Q

the route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the …

a. sacral nerve
b. phrenic nerve
c. sympathetic trunk
d. vagus nerve

A

d. vagus nerve

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31
Q

which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

a. smooth muscle
b. skeletal muscle
c. most glands
d. cardiac muscle

A

b. skeletal muscle

skeletal is voluntary

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32
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

a. results from over excitatory input from the cortex
b. involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
c. usually precedes spinal shock
d. is also known as autonomic areflexia

A

b. involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons

cannot bring blood pressure back down below a spinal cord injury

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33
Q

an entire skeletal muscle is surrounded by

A

entire muscle surrounded by epimysium
bundles surrounded by perimysium
each fiber surrounded by endomysium

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34
Q

a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies is called a

A

motor unit

mu is a nerve-muscle functional unit

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35
Q

what is the ion released from the terminal cisternae that combines with troponin and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, resulting in the formation of cross bridges?

A

Ca2+

combines with troponin, changes shape, and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, allowing cross bridges to form

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36
Q

each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single …

A

neuromuscular junction

the axon of each motor neuron divides as it enters the muscle, and each of these axonal endings forms a branching NMJ with a single fiber. only one NMJ for each muscle.

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37
Q

in the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, the myofilaments slide over each other, resulting in the overlapping of actin and …

A

myosin

in the sliding filament model, during contraction, actin and myosin filaments overlap to a greater degree shortening the muscle fiber.

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38
Q

the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber is the …

A

sarcomere

sarcomere is the muscle segment and is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber

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39
Q

the type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens is called

A

isometric

muscles that maintain upright posture are contracting isometrically

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40
Q

the sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the

A

action potential

an ap is the result of a predictable sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the length of the sarcolemma

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41
Q

elasticity refers to the ability of a muscle fiber to

A

recoil

resume length after being stretched

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42
Q

which of the following allows recoil of the muscle fiber when contraction ends?

A

elastic filaments maintain the organization of the A band and provide for elastic recoil when muscle contraction ends.

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43
Q

a sarcomere is part of a

A

contractile unit

contractile unit of the myofibril

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44
Q

cross bridges that link between the thick and thin filaments are formed by the

A

globular head of thick filaments

myosin is the thick filament

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45
Q

the lining the the inner walls of the heart’s chambers is termed the

a. visceral pericardium
b. epicardium
c. myocardium
d. endocardium

A

d. endocardium

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46
Q

the outermost layer of the heart’s serous pericardium is termed the

a. visceral pericardium
b. parietal pericardium
c. epicardium
d. myocardium

A

b. parietal pericardium

visceral is deep
parietal is wall

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47
Q

the heart’s natural pacemaker is called

a. sinoatrial node
b. atrioventricular node
c. bundle of his/atrioventricular bundle
d. left and right bundle branches

A

`a. sinoatrial node

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48
Q

the heart’s electrical conduction network found within the ventricular myocardium is the

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. bundle of his/AV bundle
d. purkinje fibers

A

d. purkinje fibers

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49
Q

if the heart’s natural pacemaker fails to fire, then

a. not blood enters the atria
b. no blood enters the ventricles
c. the node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker
d. the node on the floor of the left ventricle would act as a secondary pacemaker

A

c. the node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker

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50
Q

which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?

a. interna
b. media
c. externa
d. adventitia

A

a. interna

externa is not real

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51
Q

the exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of

a. arterioles
b. arteries
c. capillaries
d. veins

A

c. capillaries

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52
Q

which of the following statements best describes arteries?

a. all arteries carry oxygenated blood towards the heart
b. all arteries contain valves to prevent back flow of blood
c. all arteries carry blood away from the heart
d. only large arteries are lined with endothelium

A

c. all arteries carry blood away from the heart

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53
Q

the circulatory pathway that carries blood from the digestive tract towards the liver is the

a. coronary circuit
b. cerebral
c. hepatic portal
d. pulmonary

A

c. hepatic portal circuit

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54
Q

immediately following strenuous and vigorous exercise, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a. blood will be rapidly diverted to digestive organs
b. skin will be cold and clammy
c. capillaries of active muscles will be engorged with blood
d. blood flow to kidney will quickly increase

A

c. capillaries of active muscles will be engorged with blood

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55
Q

blood returning to the heart form the inferior vena cava would enter the

a. left atrium
b. right atrium
c. left ventricle
d. right ventricle

A

b. right atrium

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56
Q

located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the

a. tricuspid AV valve
b. bicuspid/mitral AV valve
c. fossa ovalis
d. pulmonary semilunar valve

A

a. tricuspid AV valve

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57
Q

the pulmonary veins

a. carry oxygenated blood away from the heart
b. carry oxygenated blood toward the heart
c. carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart
d. carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart

A

b. carry oxygenated blood toward the heart

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58
Q

which of the following statements about veins is correct?

a. venous valves are an extension of the tunica media
b. up to 1/3 of the total blood volume is stored in the venous circulation at any given time
c. veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of its wall
d. the flow of venous blood is not a major result of one’s blood pressure

A

b. up to 1/3 of the total blood volume is stored in the venous circulation at any given time

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59
Q

peripheral resistance of blood vessels:

a. decreases as the length of the blood vessel increases
b. increases as the diameter of the blood vessel increases
c. increases as the viscosity of the blood increases
d. does not play a major role in affecting one’s blood pressure

A

c. increases as the viscosity of the blood increases

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60
Q

blood flow to the skin:

a. is regulated by a decreasing pH
b. increases when external environmental temperature rises
c. increases when internal body temperature decreases so that the skin does not freeze
d. is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells

A

b. increases when external environmental temperature rises

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61
Q

which of the following statements about the movement of materials at the ‘systemic’ capillary level is correct?

a. oxygen is actively transported up its concentration gradient
b. waste products such as CO2 follow the same general pathway as O2
c. CO2 moves from its site of production into the interstitial fluid
d. if capillary blood osmotic pressure is much greater than interstitial fluid osmotic pressure, tissue edema will likely result

A

c. CO2 moves from its site of production into the interstitial fluid

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62
Q

which arterial tunic modification is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure?

a. a thin tunica interna/intima
b. a thick tunica media
c. a thin tunica externa
d. a thick tunica adventitia

A

b. a thick tunica media

this is where smooth muscle is located

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63
Q

normally, blood leaving the right ventricle immediately flows through the:

a. tricuspid atrioventricular valve
b. bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
c. ileocecal valve
d. pulmonary semilunar valve
e. aortic semilunar valve

A

d. pulmonary semilunar valve

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64
Q

blood leaving the left atrium normally immediately flows through the:

a. tricuspid valve
b. bicuspid/mitral valve
c. ileocecal valve
d. pulmonary semilunar valve
e. aortic semilunar valve

A

b. bicuspid/mitral valve

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65
Q

deoxygenated blood is normally found only:

a. in the heart’s atria
b. in the heart’s ventricles
c. in the right side of the heart
d. in the left side of the heart

A

c. in the right side of the heart

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66
Q

closing of the … normally prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.

a. tricuspid valve
b. bicuspid valve
c. ileocecal valve
d. pulmonary semilunar valve
e. aortic semilunar valve

A

e. aortic semilunar valve

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67
Q

the influence of a blood vessel’s diameter on peripheral resistance is:

a. minimal since the diameter of a blood vessel’s lumen only has a minor affect on the peripheral resistance.
b. very large since peripheral resistance is directly influenced by the diameter of a blood vessel’s lumen
c. very small since the diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel does not vary
d. very large since the greater the diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel, the greater amount of peripheral resistance will be present

A

b. very large since peripheral resistance is directly influenced by the diameter of a blood vessel’s lumen

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68
Q

when evaluating the dynamics of capillary blood flow, capillary blood hydrostatic pressure:

a. does not play a role
b. is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than its venous end
c. forced fluid from the interstitial spaces into the capillary
d. is usually equal to and canceled out by capillary blood osmotic pressure

A

b. is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than its venous end

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69
Q

which of the flowing structures are directly involved in the pulmonary circuit?

a. superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle
b. right vent, pulmonary arteries and left atrium
c. left vent, aorta, inferior vena cava
d. right atrium, aorta and left vent

A

b. right vent, pulmonary arteries and left atrium

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70
Q

which of the following structures are directly involved in the systemic circuit?

a. superior vena cava, right vent and left ventricle
b. right vent, pulmonary arteries and left atrium
c. left vent, aorta, inferior vena cava
d. right atrium, pulmonary trunk and left vent

A

c. left vent, aorta, inferior vena cava

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71
Q

on a normal ECG/EKG, atrial repolarization occurs during the

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. P-Q interval
e. S-T segment

A

b. QRS complex

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72
Q

on a normal ECG/EKG, ventricular depolarization occurs during the

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. P-Q interval
e. S-T segment

A

b. QRS complex

73
Q

chordae tenineae

a. arise from papillary muscles in the ventricles
b. attach to the undersurface of the semilunar valves
c. get pulled taught immediately prior to ventricular systole
d. remain slack to allow the normal retrograde flow of coronary blood

A

a. arise from papillary muscles in the ventricles

74
Q

the first heart sound, ‘lub’, is a valuable aid in diagnosing:

a. semilunar valve dysfunctions
b. atrioventricular valve dysfunctions
c. ileocecal valve dysfunctions
d. pulmonary trunk wall dysfunctions
e. ascending aortic wall dysfunctions

A

b. atrioventricular valve dysfunctions

75
Q

when aortic pressure is greater than the ventricular pressure:

a. the tricuspid valve opens
b. the bicuspid valve closes
c. the aortic semilunar valve closes
d. the pulmonary semilunar valve opens

A

c. the aortic semilunar valve closes

76
Q

cerebral blood flow is regulated by

a. skin temperature
b. ADH
c. an intrinsic auto-regulatory mechanism
d. the hypothalamic ‘thermostat’

A

c. an intrinsic auto-regulatory mechanism

77
Q

a long term hypertensive person, whose BP is 200/120 mmHg, is in risk of developing all of the following changes, EXCEPT:

a. increased workload of the left ventricle
b. increased risk of coronary artery disease
c. increased risk of damage to the blood vessel’s endothelium
d. decrease size of the myocardium

A

d. decrease size of the myocardium

78
Q

the lowest venous blood pressure is found within:

a. venules
b. medium-sized veins
c. large-sized veins
d. venae cavae

A

d. venae cavae

79
Q

what is most responsible for propelling blood in the arterial system during cardiac diastole?

a. skeletal muscle contraction and breathing
b. hydrostatic blood pressure arising from ventricular contraction
c. elastic recoil of conducting (elastic) arteries
d. venous return of blood

A

c. elastic recoil of conducting (elastic) arteries

80
Q

these structures are the major determinants of vascular resistance (where resistance to blood flow is greatest)

a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins

A

b. arterioles

80
Q

on a normal ECG/EKG, atrial depolarization occur during the

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. P-Q interval
e. S-T segment

A

a. P wave

81
Q

on a normal ECG/EKG, ventricular repolarization occur during the

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. P-Q interval
e. S-T segment

A

c. T wave

82
Q

papillary muscles of the heart

a. contract to pull the AV valves shut just prior to systole
b. contract to pull the AV valves open during diastole
c. contract to hold the AV valves shut during systole
d. contract to hold the AV valves open during systole

A

c. contract to hold the AV valves shut during systole

83
Q

the second heart sound, ‘dub’, is a valuable aid in diagnosing:

a. semilunar valve dysfunctions
b. AV vale dysfunctions
c. ileocecal valve dysfunctions
d. pulmonary trunk wall dysfunctions
e. ascending aortic wall dysfunction

A

a. semilunar valve dysfunctions

84
Q

when aortic pressure is less than ventricular pressure, this causes

a. tricuspid valve to open
b. bicuspid valve to close
c. aortic semilunar valve to open
d. pulmonary semilunar valve to close

A

c. aortic semilunar valve to open

85
Q

which of the following is generally true of veins compared to arteries

a. veins tend to have smaller diameter lumens than arteries
b. veins tend to run deeper than arteries, closer to bones
c. there tends to be more veins draining blood from a region than arteries supplying that region
d. there tends to be less blood located in the veins than in the arteries when the body is at rest

A

c. there tends to be more veins draining blood from a region than arteries supplying that region

86
Q

what is the pulse pressure of a person who has an arterial blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg?

a. 160
b. 100
c. 130
d. 60

A

d. 60

87
Q

where in the body does blood flow travel the fastest?

a. capillaries
b. cerebral arteries
c. coronary arteries
d. aorta

A

d. aorta

88
Q

what is the most responsible for propelling blood in the venous system?

a. skeletal muscle contraction and breathing
b. hydrostatic blood pressure arising from ventricular contraction
c. elastic recoil of large veins
d. increased capillary resistance at the venous end

A

a. skeletal muscle contraction and breathing

89
Q

excessively high heart rate (>180) can reduce cardiac output because

a. blood is moving too fast through the lungs to pick up enough oxygen
b. it tires out the heart muscles and so they pump slower
c. it reduces the time for ventricular filling which reduces stroke volume
d. the PR-interval increases which leads to longer ventricular diastole and shorter ventricular systole

A

c. it reduces the time for ventricular filling which reduces stroke volume

90
Q

sympathetic stimulation to the heart’s natural pacemaker normally results in

a. a faster heart rate
b. a greater force of myocardial contraction
c. both a and b
d. the heart’s natural pacemaker is not influenced by sympathetic stimulation

A

c. both a and b

91
Q

the normal heart sounds (lub and dub) are produced by which of the following events?

a. sympathetic stimulation of the SA node
b. closure of the AV and SL valves
c. friction of blood flowing against the chamber walls
d. ventricular systole

A

b. closure of the AV and SL valves

92
Q

following a motor vehicle accident, a large loss of blood will initially cause

a. a lowered BP due to a decreased cardiac output
b. a higher BP due to an increased stroke volume
c. no change in BP but a slower heart rate
d. no change in BP but an increased respiration rate

A

a. a lowered BP due to a decreased cardiac output

93
Q

the left ventricle’s myocardium is thicker than the right’s in order to:

a. accommodate a greater volume of blood
b. increase in size of the thoracic cavity during diastole
c. contract with greater pressure
d. force blood through a smaller semilunar valve

A

c. contract with greater pressure

94
Q

the pain associated with decreases blood delivery to the heart’s tissues, possibly caused by a transient spasm of coronary arteries, is termed

a. ischemia
b. myocardial infarction
c. pericarditis
d. angina pectoris

A

d. angina pectoris

95
Q

a thrombus in the first branch off the aortic arch would affect the flow of blood to the:

a. left side of the head and neck, and upper left arm
b. myocardium
c. left upper arm
d. right side of the head and neck, right upper arm

A

d. right side of the head and neck, right upper arm

96
Q

at the battle of shiloh during the american civil war, confederate general albert johnston was killed when he was shot in the back of the knee and rapidly bled to death. which blood vessel was most likely to have been injured?

a. femoral artery
b. common iliac artery
c. anterior tibialis artery
d. popliteal artery

A

d. popliteal artery

97
Q

which of the following is NOT generally considered part of the Circle of Willis

a. anterior cerebral artery
b. posterior cerebral artery
c. anterior communicating artery
d. posterior communicating artery
e. vertebral artery

A

e. vertebral artery

98
Q

the longest superficial vein in the body is the

a. right brachial vein
b. left radial vein
c. superior vena cava
d. great saphenous vein
e. anterior tibialis vein

A

d. great saphenous vein

99
Q

an external ilia artery empties into the

a. common iliac artery
b. internal iliac artery
c. abdominal aorta
d. femoral artery
e. renal artery

A

d. femoral artery

100
Q

stenosis of the bicuspid valve may initially cause an increase of pressure in the

a. superior and inferior venae cava
b. left ventricle
c. pulmonary circuit
d. coronary circuit

A

c. pulmonary circuit

101
Q

if abnormally increased amount of connective tissue were to form connecting together the serous visceral and parietal pericardium, which of the following events would most likely result?

a. strengthening of the frail pericardial layers with an improvement of cardiac function
b. decreased fluid production in the pericardial cavity since it is no longer necessary
c. interference with the heart’s normal mechanical activity
d. decreased friction between the visceral and parietal pericardial layers

A

c. interference with the heart’s normal mechanical activity

102
Q

which of the following statements about cardiac output is CORRECT?

a. stroke volume can increase when the end systolic volume decreases
b. if a semilunar valve was partially obstructed, the the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would decrease
c. a decreased venous return will cause an increased end diastolic volume
d. a decreased heart rate will cause an increased end diastolic volume

A

a. stroke volume can increase when the end systolic volume decreases

also increases as end diastolic volume increases

103
Q

the coronary vessel external to the heart that empties blood into the right atrium is the

a. superior vena cava
b. inferior vena cava
c. coronary sinus
d. all of the above

A

c. coronary sinus

104
Q

the left ventricle is serviced by all of the following coronary vessels, EXCEPT the

a. left coronary artery
b. anterior interventricular artery (left anterior descending artery)
c. marginal artery
d. circumflex artery

A

c. marginal artery

105
Q

increased end-systolic volume results in

a. more blood ejected from the ventricle per beat
b. higher cardiac output
c. more blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. higher end-diastolic volume

A

c. more blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

106
Q

the superior vena cava drains all of the following organs, EXCEPT

a. arms
b. shoulder
c. abdomen
d. head
e. neck

A

c. abdomen

107
Q

an excessively shortened PR-interval can have this effect on cardiac output (CO)

a. decrease CO because it reduces ventricular contraction time
b. decrease CO because it reduces ventricular fill time
c. increase CO because it increases force of ventricular contraction
d. increase CO because it increases end-diastolic volume

A

b. decrease CO because it reduces ventricular fill time

108
Q

an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood is termed

a. a thrombus
b. an aneurysm
c. an embolus
d. a cerebrovascular accident

A

c. an embolus

109
Q

increase in afterload in the aorta can have what effect on cardiac output

a. increase CO because of increased blood pressure and blood volume
b. increase CO because of increased elastic recoil of the aorta
c. decrease CO because of increased backpressure opposing ventricular ejection of blood
d. decrease CO because of increased hydrostatic pressure and increased stroke volume

A

c. decrease CO because of increased backpressure opposing ventricular ejection of blood

110
Q

which of the following statements about the heart valves is CORRECT?

a. the bicuspid valve is intermediate to the right atrium and right ventricle
b. the tricuspid valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle
c. semilunar valves regulate the flow of blood into the heart
d. AV valves are anchored by chordae tendineae to help prevent retrograde movement into the atria during ventricular systole

A

d. AV valves are anchored by chordae tendineae to help prevent retrograde movement into the atria during ventricular systole

111
Q

select the correct statement regarding the function of myocardial cells

a. individual myocardial cells are innervated by sympathetic nerves, allowing for an increased heart rate
b. the ‘all or non principle, as applied to myocardium, means that the atria or ventricles contract as a unit, or, they do not contract at all
c. the refractory period of myocardium is much shorter than that in skeletal muscle
d. the influx of extracellular potassium ions is the initiating event resulting in myocardial contraction

A

b. the ‘all or non principle, as applied to myocardium, means that the atria or ventricles contract as a unit, or, they do not contract at all

112
Q

select the correct statement regarding the structure of the heart wall

a. the fibrous skeleton forms the majority of the heart’s wall
b. connective tissue in the heart’s wall aids in the conduction of an action potential
c. the heart’s inner chambers are lined with endomysium
d. myocardium is the layer of the heart’s wall that actually contracts

A

d. myocardium is the layer of the heart’s wall that actually contracts

113
Q

the deflection waves of an ECG/EKG include

a. the p-wave, which is only present in a person who had a heart attack
b. the Q-T interval, which indicates the time of atrial contraction
c. the PQRS complex, which immediately follows ventricular contraction
d. the T-wave, which indicates ventricular repolarization

A

d. the T-wave, which indicates ventricular repolarization

114
Q

the second heart sound, ‘dub’, is normally heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

a. just after the start of ventricular systole
b. just after the end of ventricular systole
c. just after end of atrial systole
d. just after the start of atrial diastole

A

b. just after the end of ventricular systole

115
Q

the external jugular veins immediately drain into the

a. subclavian veins
b. brachiocephalic veins
c. superior vena cava
d. coronary sinus

A

a. subclavian veins

116
Q

the internal jugular veins immediately drain into the

a. subclavian veins
b. brachiocephalic veins
c. superior vena cava
d. coronary sinus

A

b. brachiocephalic veins

117
Q

the posterior tibialis vein and anterior tibialis vein both drain into the

a. femoral vein
b. great saphenous
c. popliteal vein
d. inferior vena cava

A

c. popliteal vein

118
Q

the brachial vein immediately empties into the

a. radial vein
b. ulnar vein
c. axillary vein
d. subclavian vein

A

c. axillary vein

119
Q

which blood vessel receives blood from the right ventricle during systole?

a. superior vena cava
b. pulmonary trunk
c. aorta
d. pulmonary veins

A

b. pulmonary trunk

120
Q

as the heart approaches the end of atrial diastole

a. the atrial myocardium contracts thereby opening the semilunar valves
b. the ventricular myocardium contracts thereby opening the AV valves
c. the majority of atrial blood has entered the ventricles via gravity and elastic recoil
d. all of the heart’s valves must remain opened in order for normal blood flow

A

c. the majority of atrial blood has entered the ventricles via gravity and elastic recoil

121
Q

the tricuspid valve is normally closed

a. while the ventricles are in diastole
b. while the ventricles are in systole
c. while the atria are in systole
d. during the movement of blood from the atria into the ventricles

A

b. while the ventricles are in systole

122
Q

you are viewing a heart dissected on a mid-frontal plane. all of the vessels leading into and away form the heart have been removed. the easiest way to determine the right and left sides is to

a. find the opening of the coronary sinus
b. notice the difference in thickness of the ventricle walls
c. locate the pulmonary semilunar valves
d. trace the pattern of the serous visceral pericardium

A

b. notice the difference in thickness of the ventricle walls

123
Q

the anterior tibialis artery branches into the

a. peroneal artery
b. medial plantar artery
c. dorsalis pedis artery
d. lateral plantal artery

A

c. dorsalis pedis artery

124
Q

the axillary artery empties into the

a. brachial artery
b. subclavian artery
c. radial artery
d. brachiocephalic artery/trunk

A

a. brachial artery

125
Q

the external carotid arteries supply

a. the neck only and do not supply the head
b. the cerebellum and brainstem
c. the cerebrum and brainstem
d. the brain, eye, and orbital cavities
e. most of the head except the brain, eye and orbital cavities

A

e. most of the head except the brain, eye and orbital cavities

126
Q

to auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, one’s stethoscope should be placed in the

a. second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
b. second intercostal space left of the sternum
c. fifth intercostal space inferior to left nipple
d. in the right fifth intercostal space

A

a. second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

127
Q

blood is carried towards myocardial capillaries via

a. the coronary sinus
b. the fossa ovalis
c. coronary arteries
d. coronary veins

A

c. coronary arteries

128
Q

a heart rate of 90 bpm means the duration of the cardiac cycle is about

a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. not enough info

A

a. 0.67

60 seconds/90bpm

129
Q

a person whose heart rate is 70 bpm and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min

a. has abnormal values
b. stroke volume of 7.0 ml/beat
c. stroke volume of 7.0 liters/beat
d. stroke volume of 0.07 liters/beat

A

d. stroke volume of 0.07 liters/beat

4.9 L.min / 70 bpm

130
Q

if vagal nerves to the heart were severed, the result should be that

a. the heart would stop contracting
b. the heart rate would increase
c. the AV node would take over as the heart’s pacemaker
d. parasympathetic stimulation to the heart would increase

A

b. the heart rate would increase

131
Q

which branch of the abdominal aorta services the stomach, spleen and liver?

a. superior mesenteric artery
b. renal artery
c. celiac artery/trunk
d. inferior mesenteric artery
e. common iliac artery

A

c. celiac artery/trunk

132
Q

which branch of the abdominal aorta services the rectum, transverse colon and descending colon?

a. superior mesenteric artery
b. renal artery
c. celiac artery/trunk
d. inferior mesenteric artery
e. common iliac artery

A

d. inferior mesenteric artery

133
Q

much of the pelvis including the urinary bladder, uterus and/or prostate gland are all serviced by

a. common iliac artery
b. internal iliac artery
c. external iliac artery
d. femoral artery
e. renal artery

A

b. internal iliac artery

134
Q

the third branch off the aortic arch services the

a. left side of the head and neck, the left upper arm
b. myocardium
c. left upper shoulder and arm
d. right side of the head and neck, right upper arm

A

c. left upper shoulder and arm

135
Q

the first two branches stemming off of the ascending aorta are the

a. left common carotid and left subclavian arteries
b. right and left pulmonary arteries
c. brachiocephalic trunk and left common carotid artery
d. left and right coronary arteries

A

c. brachiocephalic trunk and left common carotid artery

136
Q

Which of the choices below is not a functional process performed by the respiratory system?

A) pulmonary ventilation
B) transport of respiratory gases
C) external respiration
D) pulmonary respiration

A

B) transport of respiratory gases

137
Q

The loudness of a person’s voice depends on the ________.

A) thickness of vestibular folds
B) length of the vocal folds
C) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles
D) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

A

D) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

138
Q

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.

A) secrete surfactant
B) trap dust and other debris
C) replace mucus in the alveoli
D) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

A

A) secrete surfactant

139
Q

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.

A

B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

140
Q

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
B) the expansion of respiratory muscles that were contracted during inspiration and the lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall
C) the negative feedback of expansion fibers used during inspiration and the outward pull of surface tension due to surfactant
D) combined amount of CO2 in the blood and air in the alveoli

A

A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid

141
Q

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A) surface tension of water
B) surfactant
C) cartilage rings
D) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

A

C) cartilage rings

142
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

A) pressure within the pleural cavity
B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
C) negative pressure in the intrapleural space
D) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

A

B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

143
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

A) humidifying the air before it enters
B) warming the air before it enters
C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
D) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations

A

C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

144
Q

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

A) at least 3 micrometers thick
B) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick
C) between 5 and 6 micrometers thick
D) The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in the efficiency of gas exchange.

A

B) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

145
Q

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.

A) decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
B) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
C) increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
D) increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

A

B) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

146
Q

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

A) loss of oxygen in tissues
B) increase of carbon dioxide
C) pH (acidosis)
D) pH (alkalosis)

A

B) increase of carbon dioxide

147
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.
C) Descent of the diaphragm results in abdominal breathing.
D) The chest wall becomes more rigid with age.

A

B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.

148
Q

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
B) compliance and transpulmonary pressures
C) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures
D) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

A

A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

149
Q

Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?

A) psychic stimuli
B) decrease in lactic acid levels
C) proprioceptors
D) simultaneous cortical motor activation of the skeletal muscles and respiratory center

A

B) decrease in lactic acid levels

150
Q

Which of the following determines lung compliance?

A) airway opening
B) flexibility of the thoracic cage
C) muscles of inspiration
D) alveolar surface tension

A

D) alveolar surface tension

151
Q

Tidal volume is air ________.

A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

A

B) exchanged during normal breathing

152
Q

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

A) solubility in water
B) partial pressure gradient
C) the temperature
D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule

A

B) partial pressure gradient

153
Q

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere
B) obstruction of the esophagus
C) taking several rapid deep breaths
D) getting very cold

A

A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere

154
Q

The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________.

A) tidal volume
B) vital capacity
C) inspiratory capacity
D) expiratory reserve volume

A

B) vital capacity

155
Q

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

A) Respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus.
B) Respiratory exchanges are not necessary.
C) Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
D) Because the lungs develop later in gestation, fetuses do not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange.

A

C) Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.

156
Q

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

A) rising carbon dioxide levels
B) rising blood pressure
C) arterial Po2 below 60 mm Hg
D) arterial pH resulting from CO2 retention

A

B) rising blood pressure

157
Q

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

A) midbrain and medulla
B) medulla and pons
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla

A

B) medulla and pons

158
Q

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.

A) reserve air
B) expiratory reserve
C) inspiratory reserve
D) vital capacity

A

C) inspiratory reserve

159
Q

Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?

A) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.
B) Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH.
C) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
D) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.

A

C) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.

160
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) filtration
D) active transport

A

B) diffusion

161
Q

The larynx contains ________.

A) the thyroid cartilage
B) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam’s apple
C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds
D) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds

A

A) the thyroid cartilage

162
Q

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

A) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
D) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax

A

B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

163
Q

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

A) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
B) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
C) as carbonic acid in the plasma
D) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin

A

B) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells

164
Q

Which of the following is not found on the right lobe of the lung?

A) middle lobe
B) cardiac notch
C) horizontal fissure
D) oblique fissure

A

B) cardiac notch

165
Q

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?

A) allows the lungs to inflate and deflate without friction
B) helps divide the thoracic cavity into three chambers
C) helps limit the spread of local infections
D) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

A

D) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

166
Q

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.

A) thalamic control
B) voluntary cortical control
C) stretch receptors in the alveoli
D) composition of alveolar air

A

B) voluntary cortical control

167
Q

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli
C) respiratory bronchioles
D) alveolar ducts

A

B) alveoli

168
Q

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

A) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
B) alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
C) atria and alveolar sacs
D) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs

A

B) alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

169
Q

Inspiratory capacity is ________.

A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
B) the total amount of exchangeable air
C) functional residual capacity
D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation

A

A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration

170
Q

The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

A) as a passageway for air movement
B) as the initiator of the cough reflex
C) warming and humidifying the air
D) cleansing the air

A

B) as the initiator of the cough reflex

171
Q

A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by ________.

A) 17 weeks
B) 24 weeks
C) 28 weeks
D) 36 weeks

A

C) 28 weeks

172
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?

A) The respiratory rate of a newborn is slow.
B) The respiratory rate of a newborn varies between male and female infants.
C) The respiratory rate of a newborn is approximately 30 respirations per minute.
D) The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute.

A

D) The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute.

173
Q

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.

A) the smooth muscles of the lung
B) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
C) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
D) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

A

D) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

174
Q

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.

A) temperature is lower at higher altitudes
B) basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

A

D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

175
Q

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose
B) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
C) porous structure of turbinate bones
D) action of the epiglottis

A

A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose

176
Q

Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.

A) A decrease in compliance causes an increase in ventilation.
B) A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation.
C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required.
D) Surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension.

A

C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required.

177
Q

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

A) pneumonia
B) tuberculosis
C) emphysema
D) coryza

A

C) emphysema

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