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fall A 2024 > anatomy final > Flashcards

anatomy final Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of the thorax?

A

covers and protects major cardiopulmonary organs

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2
Q

angle of louis

A

the sternal angle

level of bifurcation of trachea into right and left main stem bronchi

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3
Q

how many true and false ribs?

A

1-7 are true
8-12 are false
11-12 are floating

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4
Q

where do you place a chest tube?

A

above the ribs to avoid trauma

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5
Q

what is the function of the lungs?

A

exchanges gases between air and blood

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6
Q

what is the homeostatic role of the lungs

A

regulates blood pH
regulates oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

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7
Q

what is external respiration?

A

exchange of gases in lungs

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8
Q

what is internal respiration?

A

exchange of gases within cells of the body

all cells require oxygen for metabolism and a means to remove carbon dioxide

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9
Q

conducting zone of the respiratory system

A

trachea
bronchi
bronchioles

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10
Q

respiratory zone of the respiratory system

A

respiratory bronchioles
alveolar ducts
alveolar sacs

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11
Q

what nerve innervates the lung?

A

phrenic nerve and vagus nerve

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12
Q

structures of the upper respiratory system

A

nose
mouth
pharynx
epiglottis
larynx
trachea

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13
Q

structures of the lower respiratory system

A

bronchial tree
lungs

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14
Q

sections of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx - posterior to nose
oropharynx - posterior to mouth
laryngopharynx - superior to larynx

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15
Q

what epiglottis?

A

lid or flap that covers that larynx and trachea so food does not enter the lungs

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16
Q

describe the trachea

A

windpipe
mucous membrane lining with cilia
c shaped cartilage rings

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17
Q

what do the bronchi terminate into

A

air sacs called alveoli

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18
Q

what are alveoli?

A

resembles a small balloon
CO2 diffuses from the blood and is exhaled
O2 diffuses form alveoli on inspiration

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19
Q

what is the parietal pleura?

A

outer most layer
inner surface of thoracic cavity and diaphragm

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20
Q

what is the visceral pleura?

A

inner layer
outer surface of the lung

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21
Q

intrapleural pressure

A

between 2 membranes
less than atmospheric pressure

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22
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have?

A

3

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23
Q

how many lobes does the left lung have?

A

2

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24
Q

where is the cardiac notch

A

only in the left lung

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25
Q

how many lobe segments does each lobe have?

A

upper - 3
middle/lingula - 2
lower - 5

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26
Q

functions of lung

A

humidifies air so that membranes don’t dry out
warms air to maintain body temperature
filters air - cilia move mucus toward oral cavity to be expelled

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27
Q

how many alveoli in the lungs

A

300 million - provide tremendous surface area

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28
Q

define compliance

A

ability of lungs to expand
inspiration
disease - emphy, asthma, pneumonia

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29
Q

define elasticity

A

ability to recoil
expiration

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30
Q

surface tension

A

force between water molecules can cause the collapse of lungs
decreases compliance

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31
Q

surfactant

A

type II cells
breaks surface tension within alveoli

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32
Q

premature babies and surfactant

A

synthesis of surfactant starts in 24-28th week of gestation

need injections of surfactant if premature - essential to breathe

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33
Q

what happens if there is less surfactant

A

more surface tension - more risk of collapse
cannot breathe without surfactant

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34
Q

restrictive lung disease

A

less compliance
greater stiffness
cannot inhale
air cannot enter

pulmonary fibrosis

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35
Q

obstructive

A

loss of recoil
cannot exhale
air cannot leave

emphy, COPD

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36
Q

increase in volume of intrathoracic cavity

A

increases lung volume
decreases intrapulmonic pressure
causes air to rush into lungs
inspiration

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37
Q

decrease in volume of intrathoracic cavity

A

decreases lung volume
increases intrapulmonic pressure
causes air to rush out of lungs
expiration

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38
Q

diaphragm

A

flattens as it contracts
causes pressure changes that cause inspiration
contraction moves abdo contents forward and down

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39
Q

muscles that elevate the ribs

A

external intercostals
scalenes
sternocleidomastoid
pectoralis minor

pulls ribs laterally and upward

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40
Q

muscles that pull the ribs downwards in forced expiration

A

internal intercostals
rectus abdominis
internal oblique muscles of abdominal wall

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41
Q

is expiration passive or active?

A

passive recoil of diaphragm decreases intrathoracic cavity volume

no muscular effort needed at rest

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42
Q

airflow resistance equation

A

airflow = P1 - P2 / resistance

larger resistance = less airflow

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43
Q

what is the biggest factor affecting airflow at rest?

A

diameter of airway

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44
Q

what does bronchodilation do in exercise?

A

decreases resistance to airflow

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45
Q

what is pulmonary ventilation (VE)

A

amount of air moved in and out of lungs in a given time period
anatomical dead space + alveolar ventilation

VE = TV x f
5000ml = 500ml x 10

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46
Q

tidal volume (TV)

A

amount of air moved per breath
600ml in men

it is greater in trained athletes

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47
Q

residual lung volume (RLV)

A

air left in lungs after max exhalation
1200 ml in men

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48
Q

inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

A

maximum inspiration at end of tidal inspiration
3000ml

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49
Q

expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

A

maximum expiration at end of tidal epiration
1200ml

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50
Q

total lung capacity (TLC)

A

volume in lungs after maximal inspiration
6000ml

TLC = IC + TV + ERV + RLV

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51
Q

forced vital capacity (FVC)

A

maximum volume expired after maximum inspiration
4800ml

FVC = IRV + TV + ERV

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52
Q

inspiratory capacity (IC)

A

max volume inspired following tidal expiration
3600ml

IC = IRV + TV

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53
Q

functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

volume in lungs after tidal expiration
2400ml

FRC = ERV + RLV

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54
Q

what happens to lung volumes during pregnancy?

A

tidal volume increases
expiratory volume decreases

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55
Q

where does fluid leak out when the heart pumps?

A

the heart squeezes some fluid out of the capillaries

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56
Q

pressure in early arteries

A

120 mmHg

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57
Q

pressure in right atrium

A

5 mmHg

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58
Q

what do B and T cells do?

A

bring cells to infection so that they can fight it.

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59
Q

function of lymphatic system

A

collect excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to bloodstream

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60
Q

what is lymph?

A

fluid that carries cells that help fight infection and disease

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61
Q

four functions of lymphatic system

A

transport clean fluid back to blood
drains excess fluids from tissues
removes debris from cells
transports fats from digestive system

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62
Q

amount of blood lost throughout capillaries

A

starts at 20 liters
ends at 17 liters
3 liters drained by lymphatic system

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63
Q

describes how blood leaves the capillaries

A

wall of capillaries have holes in them
blood oozes out
fills space between cells - called lymph

RBC, WBD, proteins are too larger to come out

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64
Q

what happens to blood when it loses its plasma?

A

gets thicker and thicker
high viscosity will cause blood clots
tissues will get puffed up and cause swelling

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65
Q

describe how lymphatic vessels flow

A

they are a one way system to the heart

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66
Q

describe the walls and valves of the collecting vessels in lymphatic

A

walls are thinner
more internal valves

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67
Q

where are capillaries absent from?

A

bones
teeth
bone marrow
entire nervous system

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68
Q

what drives movement of lymph

A

hydrostatic pressure drives entry of lymph into lymphatic capillaries

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69
Q

explain endothelial cells that form walls of lymphatic capillaries

A

not tightly joined
edges loosely overlap forming minivalves

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70
Q

size of lymph node
how many in body

A

1 to 25 mm
600 in body

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71
Q

what do WBCs do to lymph inside the nodes

A

breakdown and help with immunity

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72
Q

what cleans the lymph as it flows through the node?

A

lymphocytes
macrophages

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73
Q

how can nodes indicates infection?

A

swollen nodes are early indication of infection

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74
Q

what are lacteals

A

lymph vessels that take up lots of fats and chylomicrons

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75
Q

where does right lymphatic duct drain?

A

into junction of right internal jugular and right subclavian veins

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76
Q

where does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

left internal jugular and subclavian veins

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77
Q

what is the largest lymphatic organ

A

spleen

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78
Q

what does the spleen do?

A

filters blood
recycle old RBCs
store platelets and WBCs
fight certain bacteria like pneumonia and meningitis

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79
Q

how many lobe in thymus gland?

A

2

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80
Q

development of thymus gland

A

max size in puberty
decreased size in maturity

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81
Q

function of thymus

A

differentiation and maturation of T cells

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82
Q

what do T cells do once they leave the thymus?

A

provide immunity

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83
Q

how does edema happen?

A

when flow of lymph is interfered with

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84
Q

lymphedema

A

swelling in tissues

can be due to tumor pressure, parasites or surgery

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85
Q

describe elephantiasis

A

blockage by parasitic worms
infection acquired in childhood causing hidden damage to lymph system

manage by:
wrapping infected limbs and daily washing

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86
Q

what is the endocrine system?

A

all glands of body that secrete hormones directly into the blood stream

DO NOT CONTAIN DUCTS

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87
Q

what is the difference between endocrine and exocrine?

A

endo - no ducts
exo- has ducts

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88
Q

what stimulates endocrine glands?

A

nervous system
chemical changes in body

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89
Q

what is a gland

A

a structure that produces some substance or material

two types - endo and exo

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90
Q

explain lock and key mechanism in endocrine system

A

hormone is key
specific sit is lock

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91
Q

are all tissues that are exposed to hormones affected?

A

no. they only affect their target tissues. they bind to specific receptors and are stimulated by that reaction

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92
Q

basic hormone action

A

cells have receptors and bind only to that specific hormone type

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93
Q

do hormones carry information?

A

no, but they are only released to stimulate a chemical reaction

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94
Q

describe tropic hormones

A

secreted by endocrine to stimulate the activity of another endocrine gland

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95
Q

what is the role of the hypothalamus

A

monitors the body for temperature, pH, ect
signals pituitary gland if something needs corrected or an emergency needs a response

receives sensory info from the thalamus

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96
Q

what is the adenohypophysis?

A

anterior lobe of pituitary

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97
Q

what is the neurohypophysis?

A

posterior lobe of pituitary

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98
Q

hypothalamic control of hormone secretion from adeno:

A

has neurons that produces hormones and release them. they travel directly to anterior pituitary and release them into systemic circulation

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99
Q

location of pituitary gland

A

sits on hypophyseal fossa
connects to hypothalamus through stalk called the infundibulum

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100
Q

growth hormone (GH)

A

signals growth of body

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101
Q

prolactin

A

stimulates breast tissue to produce milk

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102
Q

thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

stimulates thyroid gland to secrete hormones that influence metabolism

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103
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

stimulates adrenal gland to signal hormones that help deal with stress

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104
Q

melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin and darken the skin

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105
Q

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

testes or ovaries to stimulate maturation of egg/sperm and induce secretion of sex hormones

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106
Q

lutinizing hormone (LH)

A

during menstrual cycle and signals ovulation

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107
Q

location of neurohyopohysis

A

part of brain and composed of neurons

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108
Q

what does neurohypophysis do?

A

stores hormones produced by hypothalamus and release when stimulated

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109
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

stimulates collecting tubules of kidney to concentrate urine to reduce water loss.

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110
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

pee alot (polyuria) and fell thirsty (Polydipsia).

not diabetes but have similar S&S

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111
Q

oxytocin

A

induces contractions of smooth muscle of sexual organs

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112
Q

describe thyroid gland

A

two lobes
butterfly shape

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113
Q

thyroid hormone

A

contain iodine
increase metabolic rate

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114
Q

calcitonin

A

reduces excessive calcium by slowing down osteoclast activity

actively secreted in childhood to increase bone formation

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115
Q

describe parathyroid gland

A

posterior to thyroid gland
2-4 pairs of glands

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116
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

opposes calcitonin
increases calcium levels in blood by activating osteoclast, stimulating kidney to reabsorb calcium, or activation of vitamin D production for calcium to be absorbed from food

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117
Q

adrenal gland

A

two glands within one structure

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118
Q

adrenal medulla

A

part of autonomic
releases adrenaline or epi to assist fight or flight

119
Q

aldosterone

A

secreted by adrenal cortex

response to decrease in blood volume or BP
stimulates kidneys to reabsorb more water

120
Q

glucocorticoids

A

secreted by adrenal cortex

keep blood glucose high to maintain brain activity during stressful situations
can direct lymphocytes or decrease inflammation

121
Q

pineal gland

A

located in brain and controlled by hypothal
composed of endocrine cells that secrete melatonin to regulate internal body clocks

122
Q

pancreas

A

produces digestive enzymes

123
Q

insulin

A

released by pancreas when BG levels are high
stimulate absorption of glucose
released by beta cells

124
Q

glucagon

A

released by pancreas wehn BG levels are low.
stimulate liver to release sugar
released by alpha cells

125
Q

thymus

A

secretes thymic hormones
T-lymphocytes become immunocompetent

126
Q

gonads

A

secrete sex hormones
androgens into test, est, progest

maintain sex characteristics involved in reproduction

127
Q

what hormone is produced in kidneys?

A

erythropoietin (EPO)
stimulates production and maintenance or RBC

released when kidney detects decres in oxygen
red bone marrow produces more RBC

128
Q

what is increased RBC called

A

polycythemia

129
Q

anterior lobe releases which hormones

A

GH
TSH
FSH
LH
prolactin
ACTH

130
Q

posterior lobe releases which hormones

A

ADH
oxytocin - stimulates uterus

131
Q

describe the kidneys

A

paired, about fist size
partially protected by the 11th and 12th ribs

132
Q

are the kidneys parallel?

A

no, left is higher than the right because the liver is below the right kidney.

133
Q

how much of cardiac output do kidneys receive?

A

25%

134
Q

2 major functions of the kidneys

A

filtration of blood
removes metabolic wastes from the body, esp those containing nirtogen

135
Q

what do the ureters connect?

A

kidneys to urinary bladder

136
Q

what is the urethra?

A

tube for excretion

137
Q

where is the kidney located?

A

under the back muscles
below the lowest ribs
underneath the adrenal gland

138
Q

renal medulla contains:

A

contains pyramids and papilla

139
Q

renal pelvis contains:

A

calyx: division of pelvis

140
Q

what is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

nephron

141
Q

what is glomerular filtration rate?

A

volume of plasma filtered / unit time
approx 180 L/day
urine output is about 1-2 L/day

142
Q

what does kidney regulate?

A

blood volume and composition
electrolytes
blood pH
blood pressure

143
Q

what do diuretics do?

A

lower BP
release everything from kidney
more water in blood = kidney working harder

144
Q

inside the renal corpuscle

A

glomerulus - capillaries
glomerular or Bowman’s capsule

145
Q

blood flow through nephron

A

enters cluster of tiny blood vessels (glom)
thin walls of glom allow smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid to pass into the tubule

larger molecules stay in blood vessel

146
Q

substances secreted from kidney

A

hydrogen
creatine
ions
other wastes such as drugs

147
Q

defne tubular secretion

A

transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to renal tubular lumen - bloodstream into filtrate

occurs mainly by active transport and passive diffusion

148
Q

define reabsorption

A

movement of essential solutes and water from filtrate back into bloodstream

149
Q

bowman’s capsule:

A

receives filtrate

150
Q

proximal convolutes tubule:

A

reabsorption of water and solutes

151
Q

nephron loop or loop of henle:

A

regulates concentration of urine

152
Q

distal convolutes tubule and collecting duct

A

reabsorption of water and electrolytes

153
Q

what is creatine

A

chemical compound left over from energy producing processes in muscles

exits body as waste in urine

154
Q

where is it abnormal for glucose to be?

A

anywhere past the proximal convolutes tubule

155
Q

what happens in kidney when decreased BP is detected?

A

adrenal gland is stimulated to release aldosterone, which increases sodium reabsorption from the urine

156
Q

hyperaldosteronism can cause:

A

high BP, low potassium and an abnormal increase in blood volume

157
Q

what does aldosterone do?

A

increase blood volume and blood pressure by causing kidney reabsorption of water and sodium

158
Q

ADH vs aldosterone

A

ADH just reabsorbs water
aldosterone reabsorbs water and sodium

159
Q

what does angiotensin II do?

A

stimulates adrenal cortical cells to secrete aldosterone

160
Q

erythropoietin (EPO):

A

produced mainly by kidneys
stimulates production and maintenance of RBC

161
Q

when is EPO released?

A

when kidney detects decrease in oxygen.
causes red bone marrow to produce more RBC

162
Q

what is the pathology of increased RBC called?

A

polycythemia

163
Q

describe the bladder

A

lined with epithelium - can stretch
lined with rugae

trigone on posterior wall where the ureters and urethra open does not have rugae. trigone is rigid

164
Q

what is micturition

A

voiding, urination

internal urinary sphincter - involuntary
external urinary sphincter - voluntary

there are stretch receptors in bladder wall

165
Q

three functions of the kidney

A

removes nitrogenous wastes
~urea
~uric acid
~creatinine
~ammonia

maintains homeostasis
~fluid balance
~electrolyte balance
~acid-base balance

excretory organ
~via blood filtration and formation of urine

166
Q

where does nitrogenous waste come from

A

primarily from breakdown of proteins

167
Q

aging and renal function

A

by age 35, begin to lose nephrons
by age 80, 30% reduction in nephron capactiy

168
Q

what does water follow?

A

sodium

169
Q

what does high sodium concentration equal?

A

more reabsorption of H2O

170
Q

afferent arteriole dilation causes (renal)

A

increase in fluid volume
overhydration
high output heart failure

171
Q

efferent arteriole constriction causes (renal)

A

kidney pathology

172
Q

afferent arteriole constriction causes (renal)

A

hypertension
arteriolar spasm

173
Q

functions of digestive system

A

ingest food
break down food into small molecules
nutrient absorption
eliminate nondigestable waste

174
Q

structures included in GI tract

A

mouth
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
rectum

175
Q

define ingestion

A

material enters mouth

176
Q

define mechanical processing

A

crushing/shearing
makes material easier to move through tract

177
Q

define digestion

A

chemical breakdown of food into small organic compounds for absorption

occurs in stomach and small intestine

178
Q

define secretion

A

release of molecules by epithelium of GI tract

179
Q

define absorption

A

movement of material across digestive epithelium

180
Q

define excretion

A

removal of waste products

181
Q

oral cavity, teeth, tongue function in digestion

A

mechanical processing

182
Q

liver function in digestion

A

secretion of bile, storage of nutrients

183
Q

gallbladder function in digestion

A

storage and concentration of bile

184
Q

pancreas function in digestion

A

exocrine - digestive enzymes
endocrine - secrete hormones

185
Q

large intestine function in digestion

A

prepare for elimination

dehydration causes compaction

186
Q

what do digestive enzymes do?

A

break molecular bonds in large organic molecules

187
Q

what is hydrolysis?

A

water is used to break down a compound

188
Q

function of carbohydrases

A

break bonds between simple sugars

189
Q

function of proteases

A

break bonds between amino acids

190
Q

function of lipases

A

separate fatty acids from glycerides

191
Q

type of muscle in digestive tract

A

smooth muscle

192
Q

what is peristalsis

A

waves of contractions that push food through the digestive tract

193
Q

longitudinal muscle in peristalsis

A

contracts backwards ahead of bolus

194
Q

circular muscle in peristalsis

A

contracts downward behind bolus
forces bolus forwards

195
Q

function of mouth and pharynx in digestion

A

mechanical processing
adding fluids - mucus and salivary gland secretion
limited digestion of carbos and lipids

196
Q

describe esophogus

A

10 in long and .8 in wide
secretes mucus
takes solid food and liquids to stom
heartburn - acid go back up
behind trachea

197
Q

major functions of the stomach

A

storage of ingested food
breakdown of ingested food
disruption of chemical bonds in food by acid and enzymes
produce hydrochloric acid to kill bacteria

198
Q

what acid does stomach produce?

A

hydrochloric acid

199
Q

how does stomach perform preliminary digestion of proteins?

A

by pepsin

200
Q

how does stomach perform preliminary digestion of carbos?

A

amylase

201
Q

how does stomach perform preliminary digestion of lipids?

A

lipase

202
Q

describe stomach contents

A

become more fluid
2.0 pH
pepsin activity increased to digest proteins

203
Q

does stomach absorb nutrients?

A

No. only digests

204
Q

how much absorption occurs in the small intestine?

A

90%

205
Q

describe the duodenum

A

closest to stom
mixing bowl - receives chyme from stom and digestive secretion from pancreas and liver
neutralizes acid before damage absorptive surfaces

206
Q

where are acids neutralized in digestive system?

A

duodenum

207
Q

describe the jejunum

A

middle segment
2.5 meters long

208
Q

the jejunum is the location of most:

A

chemical digestion
nutrient absorption

209
Q

describe the ileum

A

final seg
3.5 meters long
ends at ileocecal valve

210
Q

what does ileocecal valve do?

A

controls flow of material from ileum into large intestine

211
Q

how long does intestinal absorption take for material to pass from duodenum to end of ileum?

A

5 hours

212
Q

describe large intestine

A

horseshoe shaped
from ileum to anus
inferior to stomach and liver
frames small intestine
called large bowel
1.5 meters long, 7.5 cm wide

213
Q

large intestine functions

A

reabsorption of water
compaction of intestinal contents into feces
absorption of imp vitamins produces by bacteria
storage of fecal material prior to defecation

214
Q

describe the cecum

A

an expanded pouch
receives from the ileum
stores materials and begins compaction

215
Q

describe the appendix

A

slender and hollow
9 cm long
dominated by lymph tissue

216
Q

describe the colon

A

larger diameter and thinner wall than small intestine
wall of colon forms a series of pouches called haustra

217
Q

what do haustra permit

A

expansion and elongation of colon

218
Q

what does the appendix help do?

A

storage of good bacteria for digestion

219
Q

what is absorbed in the large intestine?

A

reabsorption of water
reabsorption of bile salts in the cecum
absorption in vitamins produced by bacteria
absorption of organic wastes

220
Q

3 vitamins produced in large intestine

A

vitamin K (fat soluble) required by liver
biotin (water soluble) in glucose metabolism
pantothenic acid B5 (water soluble) for hormones

221
Q

describe the rectum

A

last 6 inches of digestive tract
expandable for storage of feces
movement of fecal material triggers defecation

222
Q

what is the anus?

A

exit orfice

223
Q

accessory digestive organs

A

pancreas
liver
gall bladder

224
Q

where does the pancreas lie?

A

posterior to stomach
from duodenum toward spleen

225
Q

2 functions of the pancreas

A

secrete insulin and glucagon into bloodstream
exocrine cells of duct system secrete array of enzymes

226
Q

what are hepatocytes?

A

liver cells
adjust circulating levels of nutrients

227
Q

3 functions of the liver

A

metabolic function
hematological regulation cleans toxins out of blood
bile production - aids in digestion of lipids

228
Q

what does the liver regulate?

A

composition of circulating blood
nutrient metabolism
waste product removal
vitamin storage (A, D, E, K)
nutrient storage (iron)

229
Q

what is the largest reservoir in the body?

A

the liver

230
Q

how much cardiac output does the liver receive?

A

25%

231
Q

what are the functions of hematological regulation?

A

removal of circulating hormones
removal of antibodies
removal or storage of toxins
synthesis and secretion of bile

232
Q

describe the gall bladder

A

pear shaped muscular sac
stores and concentrates bile prior to excretion
located on the posterior surface of liver’s right lobe

233
Q

what is the cystic duct?

A

extends form gall bladder

234
Q

what forms the common bile duct?

A

cystic duct and common hepatic duct
dumps bile into duodenum

235
Q

what are the functions of the gall bladder?

A

stores bile
releases bile into duodenum

236
Q

what kind of diets cause gallstones?

A

fatty diets.

237
Q

what is the largest and heaviest organ in the body?

A

skin

238
Q

what are the 2 layers of skin?

A

epidermis - outer
dermis - inner

239
Q

where do the appendages of the skin develop?

A

from the epidermis

240
Q

what is beneath the dermis?

A

hypodermis
NOT part of skin

241
Q

5 functions of the skin

A

protection: kill bac, against UV, block moisture
body temp regulation
cutaneous sensation
synthesis of vitamin D
excretion - sweat

242
Q

define conduction

A

surface contacts surface

243
Q

define convection

A

fluid passing through surface

244
Q

5 layers of the epidermis

A

stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

245
Q

which layer of epidermis produces stem cells?

A

stratum basale

246
Q

what protein makes the skin waterproof?

A

keratin

247
Q

what part of skin is highly vascular and has afferent nerve endings?

A

dermis

248
Q

what is a dermal papilla?

A

cone shaped protrusion at base of follicle which feeds blood and nutrients to hair bulb

249
Q

what is a sebaceous gland?

A

lubricates and keeps hair healthy and shiny

250
Q

what are arrector pili?

A

tiny muscle anchored to hair follicle
stimulus cause them to contract and hair to stand up

251
Q

2 layers of the dermis

A

papillary
reticular

252
Q

describe the papillary layer

A

loose, areolar CT
finger like

253
Q

describe the reticular layer

A

well vascularized
elastin fibers
collagen provides structure and strength

254
Q

3 degrees of burns

A

first: superficial epi
second: epi through superficial dermis
third: entire epi and dermis

255
Q

who is most prone to integ injury

A

older people

vit D production decreases
blood supply decreases
dermis is thin

256
Q

function of vestibular system

A

maintain equilibrium of balance by detecting angular and linear acceleration of head

257
Q

what do the vibrational waves do in vestibular?

A

convey info about sound, position, balance to central sensory neural structures

258
Q

what is the utricle sensitive to?

A

change in horizontal movement

259
Q

what does the saccule do?

A

gives info about vertical acceleration

260
Q

describe push-pull systems in vestibular

A

if one canal is stimulated, the other is inhibited

261
Q

function of the semicircular canals

A

detect angular or rotational acceleration of head
filled with endolymph

262
Q

ampulla

A

bulge along canal
contains crista

263
Q

cilia

A

project into gelatinous cupula

264
Q

vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

helps stabilize visual field during head movements
leads eye opposite movement to steady gaze

265
Q

horizontal semicircular canal

A

rotation of vertical axis

266
Q

anterior SCC

A

sagittal plane

267
Q

posterior SCC

A

frontal plane

268
Q

symptoms of vestibular problems

A

vertigo
nausea
vomiting
intolerance of head motion
unsteady gait
postural instability
nystagmus - rapid eye movement

269
Q

describe angina pectoris

A

chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart
feels like squeezing, pressure, heaviness, tightness

270
Q

atherosclerosis

A

build up of plaques breaking off leading to myocardial infarction

271
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

inability of vessels to dilate and lead to MI

272
Q

congestive heart failure

A

heart is unable to pump blood

more fluid sits in R vent and heart cannot send it to lungs so it backs up into R atrium

273
Q

systolic heart faliure

A

decreased pumping function of the heart

274
Q

diastolic heart failure

A

thickened and stiffened heart
does not fill with blood properly

275
Q

elevated ST segment

A

MI

276
Q

depressed ST segment

A

ischemia

277
Q

riak factors for heart failure

A

CAD
HPTN
valvular heart disease
diabetes
congenital defects
obesity
age
smoking
high or low hematocrit

278
Q

ejection fraction

A

percentage of blood that is pumped out of heart during each beat

279
Q

preload

A

blood volume and stretch of ventricle

280
Q

afterload

A

arteriosclerosis
atherosclerosis
HPTN

281
Q

faster velocity of blood

A

decreases oxygen and nutrient uptake by tissues

282
Q

where is the most glucose stored?

A

muscles
liver

283
Q

somatostatin

A

balances insulin and glucagon

284
Q

hyperglycemia

A

acute: polyuria
profound: coma, death

285
Q

insulin resistance

A

when cells don’t respond to insulin properly

286
Q

ketones

A

produced by liver when body breaks down fat for energy

sign that body is burning fat instead to glucose

287
Q

proteinuria

A

abnormal amounts of protein in urine

288
Q

pleural effusion

A

fluid builds up in pleural space

289
Q

ascites

A

fluid builds up in abdomen

290
Q

pulmonary hypertension

A

heart’s right side works harder
blood is forced backward into tricuspid valve

291
Q

common causes of jugular vein distension

A

congestive heart failure
constrictive pericarditis
hypervolemia
superior vena cava obstruction
tricuspid valve stenosis

292
Q

underlying causes of pulmonary hypertnesion

A

high BP in lung’s arteries
CAD
high BP
liver disease
emphysema

293
Q

bronchiectasis

A

larger sized bronchioles in lungs become wider and destroyed

294
Q

bronchitis

A

cough that produces sputum
lasts 1 week to 21 days

fall A 2024 (10 decks)

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