Sexual Offenders and the Law Lecture Flashcards
Which of the following paraphilias has the highest incidence of crossover to other paraphilias?
a. Masochism
b. Bestiality
c. Male non incest pedophilia.
d. Fetishism
e. Public masturbation.
b. Bestiality
Which of the following paraphilias has the lowest incidence of crossover when compared to other paraphilias?
a. Transsexualism
b. Voyeurism
c. Exhibitionism
d. Transvestism.
e. Female non-incest pedophilia.
a. Transsexualism
Which of the following answers is correct regarding penile plethysmography and the assessment of sex offenders
a. Normative data regarding sensitivity, specificity, and efficiency have been established for the majority of paraphilias
b. Sensitivities have been established for testing persons suspected of raping adult women
c. Plethysmography Is most useful when the evaluee has a high level of deviant sexual arousal or a low level of normal sexual arousal
d. Volumetric plethysmography measurements have less validity than circumferential plethysmography.
e. It is appropriate to introduce penile plethysmography in a courtroom setting.
c. Plethysmography Is most useful when the evaluee has a high level of deviant sexual arousal or a low level of normal sexual arousal
Which of the following statements regarding Specht v. Patterson is incorrect?
a. The court found that Specht was detained on a new finding of fact not included within the original criminal charge
b. Specht was convicted under the Sex Offenders Act, which required an individual to undergo a psychiatric evaluation to determine if the person was treatable
c. The Supreme Court held that the 14th Amendment Due Process Clause was not violated as the commitment was civil, not criminal
d. The Supreme Court held that the 14th Amendment Due Process Clause was not violated because the adequate due process procedures were afforded
e. The Supreme Court held that the 14th Amendment Due Process Clause was violated.
d. The Supreme Court held that the 14th Amendment Due Process Clause was not violated because adequate due process procedures were afforded
Which of the following statements is correct regarding pedophiles and sexual offending?
a. The majority of male pedophiles molest strangers
b. The majority of pedophiles are homosexual
c. The majority of pedophiles molest children they know
d. Pedophilia refers to sexual interest in pubescent children
e. None of the above.
c. The majority of pedophiles molest children they know
Which is true in the Case of United States versus Comstock?
a. The United States Supreme Court held that civilly committing a sex offender after they had completed their sentence violated double jeopardy
b. The United States Supreme Court Held that civilly committing a sex offender after they had completed their sentence violated ex post facto
c. The United States Supreme Court held that Congress had the authority under the Necessary and Proper Clause of the Constitution to simply commit sex offenders at the completion of their incarceration
d. The United States Supreme Court held that Congress had the authority, according to the 10th Amendment, to civilly commit sex offenders at the completion of their incarceration.
c. The United States Supreme Court held that Congress had the authority under the Necessary and Proper Clause of the Constitution to simply commit sex offenders at the completion of their incarceration
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the case of Allen versus Illinois?
a. Allen protested that two court-ordered psychiatric examinations violated his Fifth Amendment
b. Allen protested that the procedures used to commit him violated the 14th Amendment. Due process
c. The United States Supreme Court held the proceedings under the ACT are not criminal
d. None of the above.
b. Allen protested that the procedures used to commit him violated the 14th Amendment. Due process
Washington State’s Community Protection Act of 1990 established all the following except:
a. Treatment takes place in lieu of punishment
b. Treatment takes place after punishment
c. A personality disorder was not a sufficient diagnosis to qualify for a sexually violent predator
d. A Personality disorder was sufficient to qualify for a sexually violent predator.
e. A&C
f. B&D.
f. B&D.
Which of the following is correct regarding the case of Kansas versus Hendricks?
a. The case strongly reflects trends established in SPECT versus Patterson.
b. The case strongly reflects trends established by Washington state’s Community Protection Act
c. The Supreme Court held that failure to offer treatment would mean the act is punitive
d. The Supreme Court held that the term mental illness, not mental abnormality, is required for purposes of the statute
e. None of the above.
b. The case strongly reflects trends established by Washington state’s Community Protection Act
Which act requires states to establish stringent registration programs for sex offenders?
Wetterling Act
Which act established the SORNA provision?
Adam Walsh Act
Which law requires mandatory community notification?
“Megan’s Law?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding penile plethysmography?
a. Normative data established a broad range of paraphilias.
b. Circumferential plethysmography has greater validity than volume plethysmography.
c. Is appropriate to use in confirming allegations of a sexual offence
d. Has similar reliability and validity to visual reaction time testing
e. None of the above.
d. Has similar reliability and validity to visual reaction time testing
All of the following are common side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) except?
a. Weight gain
b. Decrease in sperm production.
c. Reduction in sexual drive
d. Hypertension
e. Hirsutism.
e. Hirsutism.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding cyproterone acetate (CPA)?
a. commonly used in the United States
b. May enhance non-deviant arousal
c. Effects are not dose-dependent
d. Does not cause feminization
e. Has no progestinal action.
b. May enhance non deviant arousal
Which of the following statements is true regarding the recidivism of sexual offenders?
a. Incest offenders have higher recidivism than pedophiles.
b. Rapists rarely commit non sexual violent offenses.
c. Pedophilic sexual preference on phallometric testing is a strong risk factor for sexual offender recidivism.
d. Cognitive behavioral therapy has not been shown to decrease risk of sexual recidivism In meta analysis.
e. None of the above.
c. Pedophilic sexual preference on phallometric testing is a strong risk factor for sexual offender recidivism.
A man is referred to you for a sex offender evaluation because he was found by his wife having sex with her 17 year old daughter. Which of the following is the best answer in regard to your evaluation and potential recommendations?
a. Incest offers a higher rate of offense than of individuals who molest children outside of the home.
b. The man’s verbal account of a one time offense negates the need for more intensive objective assessment
c. Passing a polygraph that assesses his sexual interest in prepubertal children guarantees that he is not a pedophile.
d. A comprehensive evaluation is required that may likely include objective measures of sexual arousal combined with a detailed collateral history.
d. A comprehensive evaluation is required that may likely include objective measures of sexual arousal combined with a detailed collateral history.
Which is correct in the United States Supreme Court case of Packingham versus North Carolina?
a. The United States Supreme Court held that making it a felony for released sexual offenders to assess social media violated the 8th Amendment
b. The United States Supreme Court held that making it a felony for released sex offenders to access social media violated the 1st Amendment.
c. The United States Supreme Court held that making it a felony for released sex offenders to access social media did not violate the 1st Amendment.
d. The United States Supreme Court held that making it a felony for released sex offenders to access social media did not violate the 8th Amendment.
b. The United States Supreme Court held that making it a felony for released sex offenders to access social media violated the 1st Amendment.
Which of the answers is correct regarding the United States Supreme Court’s ruling in Kansas versus Crane?
a. The court held that the state must prove that an offender has a complete lack of control regarding his propensity to commit a sexual offence for civil commitment purposes.
b. The court held that holding an individual as a sexually violent predator passed their determinate sentence length violated ex post facto.
c. The court held that holding an individual as a sexually violent predator passed their determinate sentence At length violated double jeopardy. New line the court held that the Hendricks ruling set forth no requirement of total or complete lack of control.
d. None of the above.
d. None of the above.
Meta analysis regarding treatment and sex offender recidivism have found all of the following except:
a. Cochrane reviews of medication trials showed robust evidence that testosterone-lowering drugs dramatically decreased the risk of sexual recidivism.
b. Individuals who drop out of treatment are at higher risk of reoffending sexually when compared to individuals who refused to begin treatment.
c. In some studies, cognitive behavioral treatments appear to decrease the risk of sexual recidivism.
d. Individuals who complete sexual offender treatments have a lower risk of reoffending when compared to individuals who have not entered treatment.
e. None of the above.
a. Cochrane reviews of medication trials showed robust evidence that testosterone-lowering drugs dramatically decreased the risk of sexual recidivism.
All of the following are true in regard to the use of the polygraph except:
a. The polygraph may be useful in eliciting reports of new sexual offenses from offenders.
b. The accuracy of any polygraph test depends in large part on the examiner’s ability to properly phrase questions in language that the subject understands.
c. Is not generally admissible in court
d. The knowledge of an upcoming polygraph test helps prevent offenders from engaging in high risk behaviors
e. The polygraph may be useful in gaining additional information about an instant offense.
d. The knowledge of an upcoming polygraph test helps prevent offenders from engaging in high risk behaviors
Select the BEST statement regarding the Adam Walsh Child Protection Act of 2006:
a. It requires certain child molesters to wear a Global Positioning System as Its main focus of intervention.
b. Prohibits the federal government from civilly committing persons in the custody of the Bureau of Prisons at the end of the prison term.
c. Enhances penalties for those who sexually exploit children, expands Internet investigations and prosecution for child pornography, and creates one uniformed national sex offender register.
d. Creates a system of Road Traffic alerts for an abducted child to notify the community. New line mandates chemical castration evaluation of convicted sex offenders.
c. Enhances penalties for those who sexually exploit children, expands Internet investigations and prosecution for child pornography, and creates one uniformed national sex offender register.
