Juvenile Court Assessment Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements below is correct regarding the Supreme Court’s ruling in JDB v. North Carolina?

a. A determination of whether the juvenile was “in custody” in regards to the Miranda warning applies to the “reasonable person” test used for adults.
b. Determination of whether the juvenile perceived he was “in custody” in regards to the Miranda warning requires the consideration of the juveniles age.
c. A determination of whether the juvenile perceived he was “in custody” in regards to the Miranda warning does not require the consideration of the juveniles age.
d. A juvenile’s waiver of his Miranda rights equates with an understanding that he or she was “in custody” at the time of the interrogation.
e. None of the above.

A

b. Determination of whether the juvenile perceived he was “in custody” in regards to the Miranda warning requires the consideration of the juveniles age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect in regards to the emancipated minor?

a. Parent’s obligation to support and control the child is terminated.
b. An emancipated minor who commits a crime is excluded from juvenile court.
c. Being married establishes a minor’s emancipation from his parents.
d. Some jurisdictions allow a minor to petition the court for emancipation.
e. None of the above.

A

b. An emancipated minor who commits a crime is excluded from juvenile court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which term is the correct definition of the term adjudication?

a. Sentencing.
b. A person appointed by the court to protect the interests of the juvenile.
c. Arrest.
d. Trial.

A

d. Trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which term is the correct definition of the term “taken into custody?”

a. Sentencing.
b. A person appointed by the court to protect the interests of the juvenile.
c. Arrest.
d. Trial.

A

c. Arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which term is the correct definition of the term disposition?

a. Sentencing.
b. A person appointed by the court to protect the interests of the juvenile.
c. Arrest.
d. Trial.

A

a. Sentencing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which term is the correct definition of the term guardian ad litem?

a. Sentencing.
b. A person appointed by the court to protect the interests of the juvenile.
c. Arrest.
d. Trial.

A

b. A person appointed by the court to protect the interests of the juvenile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the following reflect current trends in juvenile courts except:

a. Less than 10% of cases of youth in juvenile court are petitioned to move forward to an adjudication hearing.
b. The number of juvenile arrests has shown a downward trend.
c. Judicial waiver is the most common type of waiver.
d. Juvenile courts do not provide the right to appeal for adjudicated delinquents.
e. None of the above.

A

a. Less than 10% of cases of youth in juvenile court are petitioned to move forward to an adjudication hearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the concept of mature minors is correct?

a. Parents of immature minor are not legally responsible for the child.
b. A mature minor may consent for an abortion without a parents consent.
c. A mature miner is determined if the miner is allowed a driver’s license.
d. A Mature minor has the right to vote.
e. None of the above.

A

b. A mature minor may consent for an abortion without a parents consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is cracked with youth who carry a gun?

a. One in 15 males report carrying a gun in the past 12 months.
b. One in 20 females report carrying a gun in the past 12 months.
c. Gun carrying by youth does not predict future gun violence for that youth.
d. Despite high publicity Regarding firearms, most youth homicides do not result from firearm injuries.

A

a. One in 15 males report carrying a gun in the past 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following are related to the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 except the following:

a. Established the Office of juvenile justice and delinquency prevention.
b. Emphasized community-based treatment and prevention.
c. Recommended continued court authority over status offenders.
d. Limited placement of juveniles in adult institutions.

A

c. Recommended continued court authority over status offenders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements is correct in relationship to status offenders?

a. Status offenders may also be classified as CHINS or FINS.
b. The Supreme Court has ruled on due process rights which must be afforded to status offenders.
c. In contrast to the burden of proof of beyond a reasonable doubt used in delinquency proceedings, the burden of proof for status offenders may only require preponderance of the evidence standard in some jurisdictions.
d. A&C.
e. All of the above.

A

d. A&C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding a juvenile’s waiver of his Miranda rights?

a. The US Supreme Court has held that a juvenile’s request to see his probation officer represents The invocation of Miranda rights.
b. The US Supreme Court has held that a juveniles waiver of Miranda rights may be constitutionally assessed by the same standard applicable to adults.
c. Juveniles do not have a right against self incrimination in juvenile court delinquency proceedings.
d. The standard for competency to waive Miranda rights is measured by the standard for competency to stand trial.
e. Juveniles are presumed incompetent to waive Miranda rights.

A

b. The US Supreme Court has held that a juveniles waiver of Miranda rights may be constitutionally assessed by the same standard applicable to adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding juveniles competency to stand trial?

a. Variables distinguished juveniles who are competent v. incompetent include age, intelligence, and prior arrest history.
b. The majority of juveniles ages 10 to 12 are competent to stand trial.
c. Juveniles Transferred to adult court Must face the same competency to stand trial standards as adults.
d. Approximately 21 states have recognized the legal concept of competency to stand trial in delinquency proceedings.
e. Some states dismissed charges against juveniles found incompetent to participate in juvenile court proceedings.

A

b. The majority of juveniles ages 10 to 12 are competent to stand trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An adolescent pretrial detainee needs treatment for hyperactivity and agitation. Which of the following statements is most correct?

a. Consent must be obtained from the court
b. Consent must be obtained from the parent
c. Consent is not indicated if treatment is medically indicated.
d. Consent may be obtained from the correctional officers.

A

b. Consent must be obtained from the parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The standard of proof in juvenile proceedings is:

a. Rehabilitation that is necessary with reasonable medical certainty.
b. Preponderance of the evidence.
c. Clear and convincing.
d. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
e. Judges finding of substantial probability.

A

d. Beyond a reasonable doubt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Match the term judicial waiver with the appropriate phrase:

a. “Justice on autopilot.”
b. Discretionary waiver.
c. Direct file.

A

b. Discretionary waiver.

17
Q

Match the term prosecutorial waiver with the appropriate phrase:

a. “Justice on autopilot.”
b. Discretionary waiver.
c. Direct file.

A

c. Direct file.

18
Q

Match the term legislative waiver with the appropriate phrase:

a. “Justice on autopilot.”
b. Discretionary waiver.
c. Direct file.

A

a. “Justice on autopilot.”

19
Q

In which of the following waivers are psychiatrists most likely to present testimony?

a. Judicial discretionary waiver.
b. Presumptive waiver.
c. Mandatory waiver.
d. Statutory exclusion.
e. Concurrent jurisdiction waiver.

A

a. Judicial discretionary waiver.

20
Q

What is the most common type of waiver to adult court?

a. Statutory exclusion.
b. Judicial waiver.
c. Mandatory waiver.
d. Once waved, they are always waved.

A

a. Statutory exclusion.

21
Q

Match the case of In re Gault with its associated phrase:

a. Standard established is beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. Neither the 14th Amendment nor the Bill of Rights is for adults only.
c. “Juveniles received the worst of both worlds, neither the protection accorded to adults nor the solicitous nature and regenerative treatment postulated for children.”
d. Jury trials are not constitutionally required in juvenile court

A

b. Neither the 14th Amendment nor the Bill of Rights is for adults only.

22
Q

Match the case of Kent v. the United States with the associated phrase:

a. Standard established is beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. Neither the 14th Amendment nor the Bill of Rights is for adults only.
c. “Juveniles received the worst of both worlds, neither the protection accorded to adults nor the solicitous nature and regenerative treatment postulated for children.”
d. Jury trials are not constitutionally required in juvenile court

A

c. “Juveniles received the worst of both worlds, neither the protection accorded to adults nor the solicitous nature and regenerative treatment postulated for children.”

23
Q

Match the case of McKeiver v. Pennsylvania with the associated phrase:

a. Standard established is beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. Neither the 14th Amendment nor the Bill of Rights is for adults only.
c. “Juveniles received the worst of both worlds, neither the protection accorded to adults nor the solicitous nature and regenerative treatment postulated for children.”
d. Jury trials are not constitutionally required in juvenile court

A

d. Jury trials are not constitutionally required in juvenile court

24
Q

Match the case of In re Winship with the associated phrase:

a. Standard established is beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. Neither the 14th Amendment nor the Bill of Rights is for adults only.
c. “Juveniles received the worst of both worlds, neither the protection accorded to adults nor the solicitous nature and regenerative treatment postulated for children.”
d. Jury trials are not constitutionally required in juvenile court

A

a. Standard established is beyond a reasonable doubt.

25
Which is true of the case of Graham v. Florida? a. The US Supreme Court held that sentencing juveniles to life without the possibility of parole for the non homicide crime violated substantive due process. b. The US Supreme Court held that sentencing juveniles to life without the possibility of parole for a non homicide crime violated the 8th Amendment. c. The US Supreme Court held that a mandatory sentence of a juvenile to life without the possibility of parole for a homicide offense violated substantive due process. d. The US Supreme Court held that a mandatory sentence of a juvenile to life without the possibility of parole for a homicide offense violated the 8th Amendment. e. The US Supreme Court held that sentencing juveniles to life without the possibility of parole for a non homicide crime did not violate the 8th Amendment.
b. The US Supreme Court held that sentencing juveniles to life without the possibility of parole for a nonhomicide crime violated the 8th Amendment.
26
All the following are correct in the case of Graham v. Florida, except: a. The US Supreme Court's majority primary analysis involved a categorical exclusion approach. b. The US Supreme Court's majority primary analysis involved a gross proportionality of sentence analysis. c. The US Supreme Court noted that standard theories of punishment were not applicable to juveniles facing life without parole for a non homicide offense. d. The US Supreme Court stated that some juveniles may be held for life without parole for non homicide offenses, but they cannot be given the sentence at the outset. e. The US Supreme Court cited prohibition against life without parole in other nations in their reasoning for banning life without parole for juveniles in the United States.
b. The US Supreme Court's majority primary analysis involved a gross proportionality of sentence analysis.
27
Which is correct regarding the Supreme Court's ruling in Alabama v. Miller? a. The US Supreme Court held that it violated the 8th Amendment to impose life without parole on non-homicide offenders. b. The US Supreme Court held that it violated the 6th Amendment's constitutional right to prevent a defense by not allowing consideration of a juvenile's lack of maturity in mandatory sentencing schemes. c. The US Supreme Court bars life without parole sentences for homicide juvenile offenders. d. The US Supreme Court held that the 8th Amendment prohibits mandatory life-without-parole sentencing schemes for juvenile homicide offenders.
d. The US Supreme Court held that the 8th Amendment prohibits mandatory life-without-parole sentencing schemes for juvenile homicide offenders.
28
Which is not correct in the case of Alabama v. Miller? a. Miller was a 14-year-old at the time of his offense. b. The court majority cited precedents of Roper and Graham for distinguishing youth from adults for sentencing purposes. c. The court majority stated that the Harmelin ruling applied because it set the proportionality of the punishment standard applicable to juveniles. d. The majority of state legislatures allowed life without parole for juvenile homicide offenders at the time of the US Supreme Court's ruling.
c. The court majority stated that the Harmelin ruling applied because it set the proportionality of the punishment standard applicable to juveniles.
29
Which is true regarding informed consent issues related to gender affirming care for transgender youth. a. Transgender youth, ages 13 to 17, constitute less than 0.5% of youth. b. Transgender youth have a right to gender-affirming care in all 50 states if they can demonstrate that they are a “mature minor.” c. Approximately 32% of states have passed bans on gender-affirming care. d. Transgender youth have a right to gender-affirming care in all 50 states if they have parental consent for such treatment.
c. Approximately 32% of states have passed bans on gender-affirming care.