Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Repro > Session 5 - Sexual function/ Fertilisation/ Infertility > Flashcards

Session 5 - Sexual function/ Fertilisation/ Infertility Flashcards

1
Q

Describe process of erection

A

Psychogenic or somatogenic stimuli activates parasympathetic NS (s2,3,4 for pelvic nerve) to inhibit the dominant sympathetic vasoconstriction. Vasodilation occurs (via ACh, binds to M3 Rs, NO released, vasodil) of arteries and corpus cavernosum and spongiosum fill with blood. Tunica albuginea is a tough membrane for them to fill against (resists so compresses venous drainage)
Also somatic involvement- ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus contract in final phase of erection to force more blood in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe process of ejaculation

A

Sympathetic mediated. Vas deferens and seminal vesicle and prostate peristaltic contractions. Also internal urethral sphincter contracts to prevent retrograde emission
Rhythmic contraction of striated muscle (pelvic floor, ischiocavernosus, bulbospongiosus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 nerves involved in ejaculation/erection

A

Parasympathetic pelvic nerve
Sympathetic hypogastric nerve
Somatic pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of erectile dysfunction

A

Psychogenic, ruptured tunica albuginea, vascular problems, antidepressants, antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does viagra work

A

slows rate of cGMP degradation so that action of NO to vasodilate lasts for longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do sperm mature in the epididymis

A

Nuclear condensation, acrosomal shaping, add a glycoprotein coat, flagellum become more rigid with a stronger beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give me some facts about sperm

A

Only 50% motile, 60% morphologically normal, >20mil/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal ejaculate volume

A

2-6ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Semen =

A

spermatozoa + seminal plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe cervical mucus changes

A

With oestrogen only, thin and stretchy

With oestrogen and progesterone, thick, sticky, plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the fern test

A

What mucus looks like at ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe process of capacitation

A

Final stage of sperm maturation in F genital tract.

Cell membrane changes to allow fusion with oocyte, whiplash beats begin and acrosome reaction now possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long does capacitation take

A

6-8hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is the fertile period

A

Up to 3 days prior to ovulation (sperm can survive 48-72 hours but eggs only 6-24hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the acrosome reaction

A
  1. Sperm pushes through corona radiata (clump of granulosa cells)
  2. Sperm binds to ZP3 of the zona pellucida
  3. Acrosome reaction is triggered
  4. Zona pellucida is digested
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Many sperm push through corona radiata, but only one penetrates the zona pellucida

A

Okay cool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the cortical reaction

A

Blocks polyspermy by egg releasing granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens after an egg penetrates the zona pellucida?

A

Egg and sperm fuse, calcium waves are activated, egg resumes Meiosis II and forms a pronucleus, joins with sperm pronucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which cell provides the mitochondria and which provides the centriole?

A

Sperm has centriole, egg has mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a morula

A

What is formed by the combined egg and sperm pronuclei, it is totipotent cells

21
Q

At what stage in IVF is the baby put into the uterus

A

When its a morula (can also take a morula cell and test it for problems before implanting, called pre-implantation genetic diagnosis)

22
Q

What must the blastocyst do before implantation

A

Hatch from the zona pellucida

23
Q

blastocyst =

A

trophoblast + embryoblast

24
Q

What controls the degree of invasion of the trophoblast

A

The endometrium

25
Q

Why can ectopic pregnancies invade

A

The endometrium isn’t there to control the invasion

26
Q

Implantation in lower uterine segment can cause…

A

placenta praevia

27
Q

Name four contraceptives using progesterone

A

Progesterone-only pill, progesterone implant, progesterone injection (Depo-provera), Mirena

28
Q

Which contraceptives can make bleeding worse

A

Progesterone implant and progesterone-only pill , IUCD

29
Q

Which contraceptives have a delay in fertility returning

A

Depo provera

30
Q

Downsides of depo provera

A

Delay in ferility return and osteoporosis

31
Q

How long do the IUD and IUCD work for

A

Mirena 3-5yrs, IUCD 5-10yrs

32
Q

Name three emergency contraceptives

A

Emergency IUD
Pill with levonorgestrel
Pill with ulipristal acetate

33
Q

Define subfertility

A

no pregnancy in couple having regular sex (2-3days) for one year

34
Q

When do you get early referral for subfertility

A

If F >36yo or known reason for infertility

35
Q

What % of infertility is both M and F

A

40% both

36
Q

Name reasons for M infertility

A

ED, torsion, chylamydia, diabetes, prolactinemia, hypothyroidism

37
Q

Name reasons for F infertility

A

PID, chylamydia, ectopic pregnancies, tubo-ovarian abscess, endometrial cancer, endometriosis, fibroids (leimyomas), cervical stenosis, Mullerian agenesis, PCOS

38
Q

How can you test ovulation has occured

A

Test progesterone at day 21 from blood

39
Q

What’s the problem with hyperprolactinemia?

A

Inhibits GnRH

40
Q

How do you treat hyperprolactinemia?

A

Dopamine agonists (Bromocriptine)

41
Q

When does physiological secondary amenorrhea occur?

A

Pregnancy and menopause

42
Q

How can you diagnose blocked uterine tubes

A

Contrast ultrasound- hysterosalpingogram

43
Q

What can cause blocked uterine tubes

A

Endometriosis and PID

44
Q

What do you give clomiphene for and how does it work

A

For anovulation
So clomiphene binds to oestrogen receptors in hypothalamus
This means the hypothalamus doesn’t get any negative feedback from oestrogen so it thinks there is very low oestrogen
This means it releases more GnRH
More FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
LH surge for ovulation

45
Q

How does PCOS work

A

Abnormal GnRH secretion
Many follicles develop but none selected as dominant
Strange GnRH secretion means more LH and less FSH produced
Means theca cells make androgens and follicles arrest in antral stage, so no corpus luteum, not much progesterone, plus unopposed oestrogen (no progesterone) and endometrial hyperplasia but no shedding so endometrial cancer risk

46
Q

What is the difference in action between the progesterone only pill and the depo provera/progest implant

A

The depo provera and progest implant are high progesterone doses therefore primary action is to prevent ovulation via negative feedback on the hypothalamus. The POP is low progesterone so works via increasing cervical mucus only

47
Q

Most common cause of female infertility?

A

Anovulation

48
Q

Most common cause of irregular upper tract bleeding?

A

Anovulation

49
Q

Mumps orchitis can result in

A

Testicular atrophy

Repro (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions