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Serology Flashcards

1
Q

Factors influencing antigen-antibody reactions

A

Specificity
Bonding
Concentrarion of antigen and antibody
Temperature
Time
pH
Surface charge (potentiators)

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2
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red

A

Mixed field

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3
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: TINY agglutinates, turbid/red background or supernatant

A

Weakly positive

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4
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: SMALL agglutinates, 25% agglutination

A

1+

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5
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: MEDIUM agglutinates, 50% agglutination

A

2+

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6
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: LARGE agglutinates, 75% agglutination

A

3+

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7
Q

Red cell antigen-antibody reactions: One solid agglutinate, 100% agglutination

A

4+

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8
Q

Antigens are naturally found on the SURFACE of the particle

A

Direct agglutination

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9
Q

Antigens are naturally found on the RED CELL

A

Hemagglutination

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10
Q

Antigen is attached to the CARRIER particle

A

Passive agglutination

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11
Q

ANTIBODY is attached to the CARRIER particle

A

Reverse passive agglutination

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12
Q

Example of reverse passive agglutination

A

CRP determination

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13
Q

Uses BACTERIA as inert particles to which antibodies attached

A

Coagglutination

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14
Q

Lack of agglutination is a positive reaction

A

Agglutination-inhibition

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15
Q

Antibody is incorporated into the gel medium; antigen is placed on the well; precipitation is measured

A

Radial immunodiffusion (RID)

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16
Q

Mancini / Endpoint method. How many hours

A

IgG = 24 hours
IgM = 50-72 hours

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17
Q

Fahey and Mckelvey / Kinetic method. How many hours

A

18 hours

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18
Q

In kinetic method of RID, “d” means

A

Log antigen concentration

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19
Q

Antibody is incorporated into the gel medium; antigen is applied on the medium; formation of precipitin band

A

Oudin single diffusion

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20
Q

Ouchterlony double diffusion: Smooth curve line

A

Serological identity

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21
Q

Ouchterlony double diffusion: Spur formation

A

Partial identity

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22
Q

Ouchterlony double diffusion: 2 crossed line

A

Non-identity

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23
Q

Radial immunodiffusion + electrophoresis = rocket band is formed

A

Laurell rocket immunoelectrophoresis

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24
Q

Steps in PCR

A

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension

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25
Q

PCR step wherein double stranded DNA is separated

A

Denaturation

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26
Q

PCR step wherein primers anneal to target DNA

A

Annealing

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27
Q

PCR step wherein new strands of DNA is synthesized

A

Extension

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28
Q

Anti-nuclear antibody with PERIPHERAL / RING / RIM fluorescent pattern

A

Anti-dsDNA

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29
Q

Disease associated with anti-dsDNA

A

SLE

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30
Q

Anti-nuclear antibody with SPECKLED / MOTTLED / PEPPERDOT fluorescent pattern

A

Anti-Sm (anti-smith)

31
Q

Anti-Sm and anti- RNP is associated with what disease

32
Q

Anti-nuclear antibody with CENTROMERIC (discrete) fluorescent pattern

A

Anti-centromere

33
Q

Anti- centromere is associated with what disease

A

CREST syndrome

34
Q

CREST means

A

Calcinosis
Reynaud’s phenomenon
Esophageal dysmptility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

35
Q

Interpretation of fluorescence in terms of intensity: Apple-green fluorescence

36
Q

Interpretation of fluorescence in terms of intensity: BRIGHT apple-green fluorescence

37
Q

Interpretation of fluorescence in terms of intensity: BRILLIANT apple-green fluorescence

38
Q

VDRL and RPR test detects

A

Reagin (anti-cardiolipin antibody)

39
Q

VDRL reagent that serves as the main reacting component

A

Cardiolipin

40
Q

Modified VDRL antigen that makes reaction easy to read

41
Q

Gauge of antigen delivery needle in VDRL test

42
Q

Gauge of antigen delivery needle in RPR test

43
Q

VDRL Rotation

A

180 RPM for 4 minutes

44
Q

RPR rotation

A

100 RPM for 8 minutes

45
Q

VDRL is examined

A

Microscopically

46
Q

RPR is examined

A

Macroscopically

47
Q

SLE, RA, IM, pregnancy causes what type of error in RPR test

A

False-positive

48
Q

Ineffective reagent and improper rotation causes what type of error in RPR test

A

False-negative

49
Q

Type of microscope used in FTA-ABS

50
Q

TPI result is <20% treponemes immobilized. How to report

51
Q

TPI result is >50% treponemes immobilized. How to report

52
Q

TPI result is 20-50% treponemes immobilize. How to report

53
Q

Hepatitis with FECAL ORAL mode of transmission

A

Hepatitis A and E

54
Q

VERY INFECTIOUS and also found in serum of CHRONIC CARRIER. What hepatitis marker (s) is/are present

A

HbsAg, HbeAg, Anti-HbC

55
Q

RECOVERY STATE of disease; no longer infectious. What hepatitis marker (s) is/are present

A

Anti-HBc, Anti-Hbe, Anti-HBs

56
Q

Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination. What hepatitis marker is present

57
Q

Body fluid that does not contain HBV

58
Q

Serologic test for Candida spp.

A

Latex particle agglutination

59
Q

Clinically significant result of latex particle agglutination

A

More than or equal to 1:8

60
Q

Weil-Felix test: OX-19 and OX-2 positive

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever
Endemic typhus
Epidemic typhus

61
Q

Causative agent of “rocky mountain spotted fever”

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

62
Q

Causative agent of “murine typus” / “ENDEMIC typhus”

A

Rickettsia typhi

63
Q

Murine typhus/endemic typhus vector

64
Q

Causative agent of “EPIDEMIC typhus” / “Brill-zinsser disease”

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

65
Q

Epidemic typhus / Brill-Zinsser disease vector

A

Human louse

66
Q

Weil-Felix test: OX-K positive

A

Scrub typhus

67
Q

Causative agent of crab typhus

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

68
Q

RF latex test titer reading of 20-40

A

Weakly positive

69
Q

RF latex test titer reading of <20

70
Q

RF latex test titer reading of >80

71
Q

Davidsohn differential test for heterophile antibodies: Adsorbed by beef; NOT ADSORBED by GUINEA pigs

A

Infectious mononucleosis

72
Q

Davidsohn differential test for heterophile antibodies: Adsorbed by guinea pigs; NOT ADSORBED by beef

73
Q

Davidsohn differential test for heterophile antibodies: Adsorbed by BOTH beef and guinea pigs

A

Serum sickness

Recalls (8 decks)

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