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Recalls > Clinical Chemistry > Flashcards

Clinical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Random errors

A

12S, 13S, R4S

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2
Q

1 control value exceeds the mean +/- 2s

A

12S / Warning rule

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3
Q

1 control value exceeds the mean +/- 3s

A

13S

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4
Q

1 control value exceeds +2s and ANOTHER value exceeds -2s

A

R4S

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5
Q

2 CONSECUTIVE control values exceeds the same mean +/- 2s

A

22S

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6
Q

8 consecutive values fall on 1 SIDE of the mean

A

8x

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7
Q

Errors that occurs BY CHANCE

A

Random errors

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8
Q

Errors that are consistent in ONE DIRECTION

A

Systematic

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9
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Pipetting errors, mixing, timing (variation in handling techniques)

A

Random

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10
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Variation in operators

A

Random

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11
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Environmental conditions

A

Random

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12
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Fluctuations in line voltage

A

Systematic

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13
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Technologist interactions

A

Systematic

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14
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Dispensing of reagents

A

Random

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15
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Aging reagents

A

Systematic

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16
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Aging calibrators

A

Systematic

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17
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Calibrator reconstitution

A

Random

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18
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Temperature analyzer

A

Random

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19
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Instability of instrument

A

Random

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20
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Wear and tear of instruments and instrument components

A

Systematic

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21
Q

ABRUPT change in the mean

A

Shift

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22
Q

Main cause of shift

A

Improper calibration of instrument

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23
Q

Drift of values to ONE SIDE of the mean

A

Trend

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24
Q

Main cause of trend

A

Deterioration of reagents

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25
Q

Variables: CHAXI

A

Concentration
Horizontal
Abscissa
X-Axis
Imdependent

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26
Q

Variables: AVOYD

A

Absorbance
Vertical
Ordinate
Y-Axis
Dependent

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27
Q

F-test

A

SD and Precision

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28
Q

T-test

A

Mean and Accuracy

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29
Q

Interlab QC; long-term monitoring; monthly or quarterly

A

External QC

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30
Q

Intralab QC; short-term monitoring; daily

A

Internal QC

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31
Q

Solution that uses 1 ANALYTE for CALIBRATION or REFERENCE

A

Standard

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32
Q

Solution that uses 2 ANALYTES to ENSURE CORRECT RESULTS

A

Control

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33
Q

Isolates specific or individual wavelength of light

A

Monochromator

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34
Q

Measures LIGHT TRANSMITTED by a solution to determine the concentration

A

Spectrophotometer

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35
Q

Determines the amount of LIGHT BLOCKED by a particulate matter in a turbid solution

A

Turbidimetry

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36
Q

Determines the amount of LIGHT SCATTERED by a particulate matter in a turbid solution

A

Nephelometry

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37
Q

Measure the amount of LIGHT EMITTED by a molecule AFTER EXCITATION by EMR, over a zero background

A

Fluorometry

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38
Q

Measures the electrical potential / DIFFERENCES BETWEEN 2 ELECTRODES in terms of voltage at constant current

A

Potentiometry

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39
Q

Samples flow through a COMMON vessel or pathway

A

Continuous Flow Analysis

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40
Q

Each sample-reagent mixture is handled SEPARATELY in its own reaction vessel

A

Discrete Analysis

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41
Q

Multiple tests one sample at a time; most popular and versatile type of automation

A

Discrete analysis

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42
Q

Uses acceleration and deceleration of ROTOR to transfer the reagents and sample

A

Centrifugal Analysis

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43
Q

Vertical when not spinning horizontal when spinning

A

Horizontal Head centrifuge / Swinging bucket centrifuge

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44
Q

Speed of swinging bucket centrifuge

A

1,650 g

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45
Q

Fixed angle centrifuge with speed of 9000

A

Angle-head centrifuge

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46
Q

Has continuous ETCHED RINGS on top; exact volume obtained when LAST DROP IS BLOWN OUT

A

Blowout pipet

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47
Q

The simplest pipet

A

Pasteur pipet

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48
Q

Relies on PISTON FOR SUCTION creation to draw sample into a DISPOSABLE TIP

A

Air displacement pipet

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49
Q

Reagent water for preparation of STANDARD SOLUTIONS

A

Type 1

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50
Q

GENERALLY USED reagent water for chemistry, microbiology, hematology, and immunology; also used for WASHING GLASSWARES

A

Type 2

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51
Q

Reagent water for urinalysis, parasitology, and histology

A

Type 3

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52
Q

Bleach inactivates HBV for how many minutes?

A

10

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53
Q

Bleach inactivates HIV for how many minutes?

A

2

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54
Q

Diurnal variation: Increase in the MORNING (AM)

A

🌞*ACIA

ACTC
Cortisol
Iron
Aldosterone

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55
Q

Diurnal variation: Increase in the AFTERNOON (PM)

A

🌛*GAPT

Growth hormone
ACP
PTH
TSH

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56
Q

Affected by posture; increases from supine to sitting / standing

A

Albumin
Calcium
Enzymes

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57
Q

*I CLAAAAAMPP
Iron, Catecholamines, CK, LD, ALT, AST, ALP, ACP, Ammonia, Magnesium, Potassium, Phosphate _____ when sample is HEMOLYZED

A

Increases

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58
Q

If antecubital veins are unsuitable for venipuncture, what are the alternative sites?

A

Wrist and hand

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59
Q

When BP cuff is used as a tourniquet, it should be inflated at ___ mmHg

A

60 mmHg

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60
Q

Blood specimens on serum separator gel tubes must be processed within _____

A

30 minutes

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61
Q

Normal BMI

A

18.5 - 24.9

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62
Q

BMI of underweight / malnourished

A

< 18.5

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63
Q

BMI of obese

A

30 and above

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64
Q

SI unit for length

A

Meter (m)

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65
Q

SI unit for mass

A

Kilogram (kg)

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66
Q

SI unit for Themodynamic temperature

A

Kelvin (K)

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67
Q

SI unit for amount of substance

A

Mole (mol)

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68
Q

10^6

A

Mega

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69
Q

10^3

A

Kilo

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70
Q

10^9

A

Giga

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71
Q

10^12

A

Tera

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72
Q

10^-3

A

Milli

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73
Q

10^-6

A

Micro

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74
Q

10^-9

A

Nano

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75
Q

10^-12

A

Pico

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76
Q

Celsius to Farenheit

A

F = (C x 1.8) + 32

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77
Q

Farenheit to Celsius

A

C = (F - 32) x 5/9

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78
Q

Conversion factor of glucose

A

0.0555

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79
Q

BUN to Urea

A

2.14

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80
Q

Conversion factor of BUN

A

0.357

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81
Q

Conversion factor of creatinine

A

88.4 umol/L

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82
Q

Conversion factor of uric acid

A

0.0595

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83
Q

Conversion factor of triglycerides

A

0.0113

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84
Q

Conversion factor of sodium, potassium, chloride

A

1

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85
Q

Conversion factor of cholesterol

A

0.026

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86
Q

Conversion factor of TPAG

A

10 (g/dL) 0.01 (mg/dL)

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87
Q

Conversion factor of bilirubin

A

17.1 umol/L

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88
Q

Conversion factor of thyroxine

A

12.9 nmol/L

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89
Q

Effect of high WBC count on blood glucose determination

A

Decreased

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90
Q

Uses arsenomolybdate reagent

A

Nelson-Somogyi

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91
Q

Uses phosphomolybdate reagent

A

Folin-Wu

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92
Q

Results produced by REDUCTION methods for glucose are _____ higher than those of ENZYMATIC methods

A

5-15 mg/dL

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93
Q

To establish Diabetes Mellitus, symptoms (3P’s) should be accompanied by RBS level of:

A

200 mg/dL

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94
Q

Beta-cells destruction

A

Type 1 DM

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95
Q

Insulin resistance

A

Type 2 DM

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96
Q

Detectable C-peptide levels

A

Type 1 DM

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97
Q

DM with Autoantibodies

A

Type 1 DM

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98
Q

Common DM

A

Type 1 DM

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99
Q

Uses oral agents as medication

A

Type 2 DM

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100
Q

Uses insulin absolute as medication

A

Type 1 DM

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101
Q

Glycogen storage disease with G6PD deficiency

A

Von Gierke

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102
Q

Most common phospholipid found in cell membranes

A

Lecithin

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103
Q

Apo A1

A

HDL

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104
Q

Apo B100

A

LDL, VLDL

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105
Q

Apo B48

A

Chylomicrons

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106
Q

Reverse cholesterol transport

A

HDL

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107
Q

Endogenous triglycerides

A

VLDL

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108
Q

Exogenous triglycerides

A

Chylomicrons

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109
Q

Least dense

A

Chylomicrons

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110
Q

Most dense

A

HDL

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111
Q

Lipoprotein that carries TRIGLYCERIDES

A

CM, VLDL

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112
Q

Lipoprotein that carries CHOLESTEROL

A

LDL

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113
Q

Lipoprotein that carries PROTEIN and PHOPHOLIPIDS

A

HDL

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114
Q

Bad cholesterol

A

LDL

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115
Q

Good cholesterol

A

HDL

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116
Q

SPE Migration Pattern of lipoproteins

A

Chylomicrons (origin)
LDL
VLDL
HDL (anode)

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117
Q

Lipoprotein ultracentrifugation pattern

A

Chylomicrons (top)
VLDL
LDL
HDL (bottom)

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118
Q

Floating B-lipoprotein

A

B-VLDL

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119
Q

Sinking Pre-B-lipoprotein

A

Lp(a)

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120
Q

Borderline value for total cholesterol

A

200-239 mg/dL

121
Q

> 240 value of TOTAL cholesterol

A

Higher risk for CHD

122
Q

SERUM cholesterol value with MODERATE RISK for age 20-29

A

> 200 mg/dL

123
Q

SERUM cholesterol value with HIGH RISK for age 20-29

A

> 220 mg/dL

124
Q

<40 HDL

A

High risk for cardiovascular disease

125
Q

> 60 HDL

A

Low risk for cardiovascular disease

126
Q

Borderline value for LDL Cholesterol

A

130-159 mg/dL

127
Q

Cholesterol determination 1-STEP method

A

Liebermann-Burchard
(Pearson/Stern/Mac-Gavack)

128
Q

Cholesterol determination 2-STEP method

A

Bloors

129
Q

< 3% CV

A

Cholesterol

130
Q

< 5% CV

A

Triglycerides

131
Q

< 4% CV

A

LDL, HDL

132
Q

Fredrickson classification: high CHYLOMICRONS

A

Type 1 (Familial LPL Deficiency)

133
Q

Fredrickson classification: high VLDL

A

Type 4 (Familial hypertriglyceridemia)

134
Q

Fredrickson classification: high CM & VLDL

A

Type 5

135
Q

Fredrickson classification: high LDL, abnormal LDL receptor gene

A

Type 2 (Familial hypercholesterolemia)

136
Q

Negative APRs

A

Prealbumin
Albumin
Transferrin

137
Q

Indicator of nutrition; binds thyroid hormone and retinol-binding protein

A

Prealbumin

138
Q

Major contributor to oncotic (osmotic pressure)

A

Albumin

139
Q

Binds copper

A

Ceruloplasmin

140
Q

Protease inhibitor

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin

141
Q

The principal use of serum protein electrophoresis is to detect

A

Monoclonal spike

142
Q

Beta-gamma bridging

A

Liver cirrhosis

143
Q

Monoclonal spike

A

Multiple myeloma

144
Q

Alpha 1 globulin flat curve

A

AAT (alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency)

145
Q

Alpha 2 globulin spike

A

Nephrotic syndrome

146
Q

Alpha 1, Alpha 2 globulin spikes

A

Acute inflammation

147
Q

Polyclonal gammopathy

A

Chronic inflammation

148
Q

Low albumin, very high alpha2-macroglobulin (10-fold or more)

A

Nephrotic syndrome

149
Q

Protein based on phenolic amino acid oxidation with the HIGHEST SENSITIVITY

A

Folin-Ciocalteu

150
Q

Biochemical marker for bone resorption

A

Cross-linked C Telopeptide

151
Q

Useful marker of nutrition

A

Fibronectin

152
Q

Most concentrated NPN

A

Urea

153
Q

2nd most concentrated NPN

A

Amino acid

154
Q

Least concentrated NPN

A

Ammonia

155
Q

Ammonia is associated with what kidney function

A

Excretion

156
Q

Osmolarity is associated with what kidney function test

A

Tubular function

157
Q

Inexpensive urea assay, LACKS specificity

A

Colorimetric: diacetyl

158
Q

More expensive urea assay; GREATER specificity

A

Enzymatic: NH3 formation

159
Q

Simple and nonspecific creatinine assay

A

Colorimetric: end point

160
Q

Uric acid assay that assess problems with turbidity

A

Colorimetric

161
Q

SPECIFIC uric acid assay which requires mercury arc vapor lamp

A

Enzymatic UV

162
Q

Azotemia caused by renal diseases, acute and chronic renal failure

A

Renal azotemia

163
Q

Azotemia caused by urinary tract obstruction, renal calculi, bladder or prostate tumors, severe UTI

A

Post-renal azotemia

164
Q

_____ is the single marker to diagnose renal failure; _____ test is used to assess the renal tubular integrity

A

Creatinine; B2-microglobulin

165
Q

Exogenous substance used as ALTERNATIVE test for creatinine clearance to screen for kidney dysfunction

A

Cystatin C

166
Q

Proteins such as albumin, cholinesterase, coagulation proteins, cholesterol, bile salts and glycogen are associated with what liver function

A

Synthetic

167
Q

Bilirubin, ammonia, and drugs are associated with what liver function *BAD

A

Detoxification

168
Q

Bile acids and bilirubin are associated with what liver function

A

Excretion

169
Q

Test for PATENCY of billiary ducts and hepatocellular metabolism of bilirubin

A

Direct and total bilirubin ratio

170
Q

Test for OVERALL patency of billiary ducts

A

Serum bile acid

171
Q

Test for abnormality of bile-duct epithelium

A

ALP “obstructive” enzymes

172
Q

Test for capacity to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile

A

Serum bilirubin level

173
Q

Test for hepatocellular damage and necrosis

A

Serum AST levels

174
Q

Bilirubin fraction covalently attached to albumin; also known as “Biliprotein”

A

Delta bilirubin

175
Q

Characterized by PARTIAL deficiency of UDPGT

A

Criggler-Najar syndrome Type II / Arias syndrome

176
Q

Principle of Malloy and Evelyn method & Jendrassik and Grof method

A

Van den Berg reaction

177
Q

Accelerator for Malloy and Evelyn method

A

Methanol

178
Q

Accelerator for Jendrassik and Grof method

A

Caffeine-Sodium benzoate

179
Q

Enzyme activity: Substrate and coenzyme _____, product and altered coenzyme _____

A

Decreases; increases

180
Q

Enzyme classifications *OTHLIL

A

Oxydoreductase
Transferase
Hydrolase
Lyase
Isomerase
Ligase

181
Q

LDH and G6PD are under what category of enzymes

A

Oxidoreductase

182
Q

AST, ALT, GGT are under what category of enzymes

A

Transferase

183
Q

Kinases (CK and HK) are under what category of enzyme

A

Transferase

184
Q

Esterases (ACP, ALP, CHS, 5-NT, LP) are under what category of enzyme

A

Hydrolase

185
Q

Trypsin and pepsin are under what category of enzyme

A

Hydrolase

186
Q

Amylase and Galactosidase are under what category of enzyme classification

A

Hydrolase

187
Q

ALDOLASE and DECARBOXYLASE are under what enzyme classification

A

Lyase

188
Q

Enzymes involved in INTRAMOLECULAR ARRANGEMENT are called

A

Isomerases

189
Q

Synthases / joining of two molecules

A

Ligase

190
Q

CK-MB onset of elevation

A

4-6 hours

191
Q

1st to elevate in AMI, but NOT cardiac-specific

A

Myoglobin

192
Q

CARDIAC-specific marker of AMI

A

Troponin

193
Q

1st to elevate in acute pancreatitis, but NOT pancreas-specific

A

Amylase

194
Q

Late marker, but PANCREAS-SPECIFIC

A

Lipase

195
Q

P-nitrophenylphosphate (PNPP) is the MOST SPECIFIC substrate used in what ALP method

A

Bowers and McComb

196
Q

Thymolphthalein monophosphate is a substrate used in what ACP method

A

Roy and Hillman

197
Q

End product of AST enzymatic method

A

Oxaloacetate

198
Q

The formation of MALTOSE is observed in what enzymatic method of AMS

A

Coupled-enzyme

199
Q

Reference method of LPS (lipase) that measures the titration of fatty acids with NaOH

A

Cherry Crandal

200
Q

Forward/direct reaction of LDH
(*FLP = lactate to pyruvate)

A

Wacker

201
Q

Reverse/indirect reaction of LDH

A

Wrobkeuski La Due

202
Q

Forward/direct method for CK

A

Tanzer-Gilvarg

203
Q

Reverse/indirect method for CK

A

Oliver-Rosalki

204
Q

Bile duct obstruction, Osteitis deformans, Billiary cirrhosis, Osteogenic sarcoma (*BOBO) is _____ elevation of _____

A

Pronounced (5x); ALP

205
Q

Pregnancy. _____ elevation of _____

A

Slight (3x) ALP

206
Q

Megaloblastic anemia and renal infaction. _____ elevation of _____

A

Pronounced (5x); LDH

207
Q

Myocardial infarction, pulmonary infarction, and hemolytic conditions. _____ elevation of _____

A

Moderate (3-5x); AST

208
Q

Cholangitis. _____ elevation of _____

A

Slight (3x); LDH

209
Q

Acute hepatocellular damage, myocardial infarction, and acute pancreatitis (*AMA) indicates _____ elevation of _____

A

Pronounced; AST

210
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is _____ elevation of _____

A

Pronounced; CK

211
Q

Major extracellular cation

A

Sodium

212
Q

Major regulator of water balance, osmolality, and osmotic pressure for electrolytes

A

Sodium

213
Q

Major intracellular cation

A

Potassium

214
Q

Countercurrent ion of sodium

A

Potassium

215
Q

Major extracellular anion

A

Chloride

216
Q

Counterion of sodium that maintains electroneutrality

A

Chloride

217
Q

Electrolytes involved in MYOCARDIAL rhythm and contractility

A

*PoMaCa

Potassium (K)
Magnesium (Mg)
Calcium (Ca)

218
Q

Electrolytes involved in volume and OSMOTIC REGULATION

A

Sodium (Na)
Potassium (K)
Chloride (Cl)

219
Q

Electrolytes that serves as COFACTORS in enzyme activation

A

*ZiMaCa

Magnesium
Calcium
Zinc

220
Q

Electrolytes involved in ACID-BASE balance

A

Chloride (Cl)
Bicarbonate (HCO3)
Potassium (K)

221
Q

Electrolytes involved in BLOOD COAGULATION

A

Calcium (Ca)
Magnesium (Mg)

222
Q

Electrolytes involved in NEUROMUSCULAR excitability

A

*PoMaCa

Potassium (K)
Magnesium (Mg)
Calcium (Ca)

223
Q

Included in the electrolyte profile

A

Na, K, Cl, HCO3

224
Q

Increased Anion Gap

A

*SEDULA & MUDPILES

Starvation
Exogenous poisons (sallicylates)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Uremic acidosis
Lactic acidosis
Alcoholic ketosis

225
Q

Normal Anion Gap

A

*HERD

Hyperalimentation
Early renal failure
Renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhea

226
Q

Decreased Anion Gap

A

*CHEE

Cationic myeloma patients
Hypercalcemia
Hyperlipidimia
Erroneous report

227
Q

Diabetes insipidus causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____

A

Hypernatremia; increased water loss

228
Q

Potassium deficiency, diuretics, and severe burns causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____

A

Hyponatremia; increased sodium loss

229
Q

Renal failure causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____

A

Hyponatremia; increased water retention

230
Q

Excess water intake, SIADH, and pseudohyponatremia causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____

A

Hyponatremia; water imbalance

231
Q

Most common cause of hyperkalemia

A

Decreased renal excretion

232
Q

Addison’s disease (hyperkalemia/hypokalemia)

A

Hyperkalemia

233
Q

Sample hemolysis, thrombocytosis, prolonged tourniquet use or excessive fist clenching causes _____ hyperkalemia

A

Artifactual

234
Q

Henderson Hasselbach Equation

A

pH = pKa + log (HCO3/H2CO3)

235
Q

Method for measurement of pH and pCO2

A

Potentiometry

236
Q

Method for measurement of pO2

A

Amperometry

237
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Alcoholism

A

Metabolic acidosis

238
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Vomiting

A

Metabolic alkalosis

239
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Diarrhea

A

Metabolic Acidosis

240
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Hyperkalemia

A

Metabolic acidosis

241
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Emphysema

A

Respiratory acidosis

242
Q

Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Hyperventilation

A

Respiratory acidosis (⬆️ CO2 loss)

243
Q

Compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis

A

Hyperventilation

244
Q

Compensatory mechanism in metabolic alkalosis

A

Hypoventilation

245
Q

Compensatory mechanism in respiratory acidosis

A

Increased HCO3 reabsorpion

246
Q

Compensatory mechanism in respiratory alkalosis

A

Decreased HCO3 reabsorption

247
Q

Acidemia occurs when the blood pH is

A

<7.35

248
Q

Alkalemia occurs when blood pH is

A

> 7.45

249
Q

Amino acids (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion

A

Stimulate

250
Q

Glucose loading (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion

A

Inhibit

251
Q

Insulin deficiency (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion

A

Inhibit

252
Q

Thyroxine deficiency (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion

A

Inhibit

253
Q

Screening test for Acromegaly

A

Somatomedin-C

254
Q

Confirmatory test for Acromegaly

A

Glucose suppression test (OGTT)

255
Q

Increased T3 and T4
Increased T3 uptake
Decreased TSH

A

Primary hyperthyroidism

256
Q

Decreased T3 and T4
Decreased T3 uptake
Decreased TSH

A

Secondary hypothyroidism

257
Q

Increased T3 and T4
Increased T3 uptake
Increased TSH

A

Secondary hyperthyroidism

258
Q

Decreased T3 and T4
Decreased T3 uptake
Increased TSH

A

Primary hypothyroisism

259
Q

Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine; polarized light

A

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

260
Q

Fluorogenic substrate-labeled thyroxine

A

Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay

261
Q

Addition of luminol; measured by luminometer

A

Chemiluminescence

262
Q

Similar to ELISA

A

Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

263
Q

Mineralocorticoids, aldosterone. What adrenal cortex layer

A

Zona glomerulosa

264
Q

First responder to stress by acting within seconds

A

Catecholamines

265
Q

Increased cortisol, increased ACTH

A

Cushing’s disease

266
Q

Screening tests for Cushing’s syndrome

A

Midnight salivary cortisol test
Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
24-hour urinary free cortisol test

267
Q

Confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome

A

LOW-dose dexamethasone suppression test

268
Q

Low testosterone, high LH and FSH

A

Primary hypogonadism / Klinefelter’s syndrome

269
Q

Low testosterone, low LH and FSH

A

Secondary hypogonadism

270
Q

TRANSPORT of drug from the site of administration to the blood

A

Absorption

271
Q

DELIVERY of the drug to the tissues

A

Distribution

272
Q

HIGHEST CONCENTRATION of a drug obtained in the dosing interval

A

Peak concentration

273
Q

Time required to reduce drug level to HALF of its initial value

A

Half-life

274
Q

Procainamide is an example of _____ drug

A

Cardioactive

275
Q

Phenobarbital (barbiturate) is an example of _____ drug

A

Anti-epileptic

276
Q

Cyclosporine, tacrolimus, rapamycin are examples of _____ drug

A

Immunosuppresive

277
Q

Aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen and salicylates are examples of _____ drug

A

Anti-inflammatory / analgesic

278
Q

Methotrexate is an example of _____ drug

A

Chemotherapeutic

279
Q

Theophyline and theobromine are what type of drug

A

Bronchodilator

280
Q

Lithium is an example of _____ drug

A

Psychoactive / antidepressant

281
Q

Treatment for petit mal (absence) and grand mal seizures

A

Valproic acid / valium

282
Q

Treatment for various seizure disorders

A

Carbamazepine

283
Q

Most commonly abused substance in the entire world

A

Alcohol

284
Q

Mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech)

A

0.18-0.30

285
Q

Unable to stand of walk, vomiting, impaired consciousness

A

0.27-0.40

286
Q

Coma and possible death

A

0.35-0.50

287
Q

Symptoms of alcohol intoxication begin

A

> 0.05%

288
Q

Legally intoxicated

A

> 100 mg/dL

289
Q

Presumptive evidence of driving under influence of alcohol

A

> 0.10%

290
Q

Not a natural opiate

A

Pentazocine

291
Q

Vitamin B9

A

Folic acid

292
Q

Vitamin C

A

Ascorbic acid

293
Q

Beri-beri is deficiency of what vitamin

A

Vitamin B1 / Thiamine

294
Q

Pellagra is deficiency of what vitamin

A

Vitamin B3 / Niacin

295
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is associated with what vitamin deficiency

A

Vitamin B9 / Folic acid

296
Q

Scurvy is associated with what vitamin deficiency

A

Vitamin C

297
Q

Serum potassium critical value

A

> 6.5 mEq/L

298
Q

Serum bicarbonate critical value

A

<10 or >40 mEq/L

299
Q

Cholesterol determination 3-STEP method

A

Abell-Kendall

Recalls (8 decks)

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