Semester 2 Pharmacology Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which WBCs are considered the “soldiers” of the immune system?

A

Neutrophils

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2
Q

What is the normal range for ANC?

A

1.5 - 8 (1,500 - 8,000)

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3
Q

What is the normal range for platelets?

A

150,000 - 400,000

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4
Q

Epoetin alfa therapy is most commonly used/most successful for anemia cause by which three problems?

A

Chronic kidney disease, chemotherapy, and HIV patients taking zidovudine

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5
Q

Why are ESAs (erythropoiesis-stimulating agents) never taken PO?

A

Because digestive enzymes would destroy the drug

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6
Q

If Hgb is _____ or over or increases more than _____ in one week, decrease epoetin alfa dosage by ____%

A

12 g/dL
1 g/dL
25%

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7
Q

Which BRM is not given IM if the patient’s platelet count is <50,000 and why?

A

Interferon Alpha, because giving it IM will cause bleeding. In these cases, subQ is the preferred route

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8
Q

What blood-related adverse effect is caused by Interferon Alpha?

A

Pancytopenia (leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)

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9
Q

What are the dose-limiting adverse effects for Interferon Alpha?

A

Fatigue, anorexia, depression, SI/suicide attempts, increased BUN/Cr, proteinuria

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10
Q

What test will be done before administering Interferon Alpha and why?

A

EKG, to determine if any underlying cardiac problems (the drug can cause tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, orthostatic hypotension, MI)

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11
Q

What are the most serious adverse effects of Interleukin-2?

A

Capillary leak syndrome and sepsis/bacterial endocarditis

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12
Q

What would you monitor prior to administering Epoetin Alfa?

A

CBC, cardiac history, iron stores

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13
Q

What nursing assessments should be done when administering Epoetin Alfa?

A

Monitor BP, CBC (treatment is reduced once Hgb ≥12), signs of MI or stroke, and side effects such as n/v/d, joint pain, and headache

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14
Q

What supplement will patients also take when taking Epoetin Alfa?

A

Iron

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15
Q

What are the ESA contraindications?

A

Patients who have uncontrolled HTN or sensitivity to human albumin/polysorbate/mammalian cell-derived products

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16
Q

What are the two primary indications for filgrastim?

A

Chemo-related neutropenia and to increase stem cell production for collection in cancer patients

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17
Q

What is the only CONSISTENTLY observed side effect of filgrastim?

A

Bone pain

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18
Q

What is the dose-limiting toxicity side effect of filgrastim?

A

Fatigue

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19
Q

What is the rarest but most serious adverse effect of filgrastim?

A

Splenic enlargement/rupture

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20
Q

Filgrastim dosing is dependent on what?

A

Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)

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21
Q

Why should patients not take lithium if they are taking pegfilgrastim?

A

It increases the risk of stroke and heart attack due to the increase in WBCs

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22
Q

Which lab tests are required for monitoring function throughout administration of interferon alfa?

A

CBC, platelet count, Cr, ALT/AST

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23
Q

What is an important patient teaching point if a patient is taking ribivirin with interferon alfa?

A

Use two birth control methods–ribavirin can cause congenital anomalies if EITHER parent is taking it

24
Q

What is peginterferon alpha primarily used for?

A

Chronic hepatitis C

25
Q

Which types of proteins stimulate and regulate the growth, maturation, and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells?

A

Colony-stimulating factors (CSF)

26
Q

What is Interferon-beta primarily used for?

A

Multiple sclerosis

27
Q

What s/s indicate that a patient should immediately stop taking interleukin-2 (aldesleukin)?

A

Lethargy, hypotension, GI bleed, infection, capillary leak syndrome

28
Q

Which class of drug should be avoided when taking oprelvekin and why?

A

Diuretics. They increase the risk of hypokalemia, decreased Hgb, and increased plasma fibrinogen

29
Q

What is the most serious side effect of oprelvekin?

A

Anaphylaxis

30
Q

What s/s indicate oprelvekin should be discontinued?

A

Bronchospasm, wheezing, chest tightness, swelling of the face/lips/throat, itching, rash, or fever

31
Q

What is the most serious adverse effect of sargramostim?

A

Pleural and pericardial effusion

32
Q

Liver damage, pleural/pericardial effusion, dyspnea, and renal dysfunction are the dose-limiting toxicity adverse effects of which drug?

A

Sargramostim

33
Q

Which class of drug is oprelvekin?

A

Thrombopoietic growth factor

34
Q

What type of hormonal contraceptive is indicated for breastfeeding patients and why?

A

Progestin only, because estrogen decreases milk production

35
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for combined oral contraceptives?

A

Age ≥35 and >15 cigs a day, CV disease, hepatic disease, history of thromboembolitic events, breast cancer/estrogen-dependent cancer, liver disease, known or suspected pregnancy, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

36
Q

What is anastrazole and what is its function?

A

It inhibits the synthesis of estrogen and is used to treat breast cancer

37
Q

What type of hormonal contraceptive is used to treat endometriosis?

A

Progestin-only

38
Q

Why is estrogen-only replacement therapy ONLY appropriate for people who no longer have a uterus?

A

It increases the risk of uterine cancer

39
Q

What vitamins should be taken with hormonal contraceptives to help prevent bone density loss?

A

Calcium and Vitamin D

40
Q

Which class of drugs are most commonly used to treat endometriosis and what are they called?

A

GnRH agonists. Leuprolide and nefarelin. They cause “pseudomenopause” due to interfering with the hormones needed for ovulation.

41
Q

What are the contraindications of HRT?

A

Family history of breast cancer, hx of coagulation disorders, hx of CVD

42
Q

During which trimesters is iron taken?

A

2nd and 3rd (fetus starts storing iron during the 2nd trimester)

43
Q

What is the main side effect of iron supplements?

A

Constipation

44
Q

What is the firstline drug of choice for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Diclegis (doxylamine/pyridoxine)

45
Q

Why are NSAIDs contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

They cause fetal kidney problems, low amniotic fluid, and the ductus arteriosus to close (the blood vessel which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the lungs since they aren’t developed yet)

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of terbutaline?

A

Tachycardia, tremors, and palpitations

47
Q

What reverses the effects of terbutaline?

A

Propanalol

48
Q

What does magnesium sulfate do for the fetus when given as a drip?

A

It is a neuroprotectant and can help protect against CP and intraventricular hemorrhage

49
Q

What is the antidote to magnesium sulfate?

A

Calcium gluconate

50
Q

What VS is monitored during administration of magnesium sulfate?

A

Respiratory rate (and lung sounds)

51
Q

What is a common side effect of nifedipine if given as a tocolytic?

A

Hypotension (assess BP before administering)

52
Q

What is the purpose of administering betamethasone or dexamethasone during pregnancy?

A

To help mature the fetus’s lungs as much as possible before a premature delivery

53
Q

Why might a diabetic patient need more insulin when taking betamethasone?

A

Corticosteroids increase blood glucose levels

54
Q

What does HELLP syndrome stand for and what causes it?

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. It is caused by eclampsia