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Physiology- Katie > sem 2 exam 3 > Flashcards

sem 2 exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Formation of what is the most important intracellular processes that require energy?

A

Peptide linkages

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2
Q

How many high energy phosphate bonds are needed to form on peptide linkage?

A

4

need 48,000 form one peptide linkage but only stores 500-5,000 cal

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3
Q

What steps of the Ornithine (urea) cycle are in the mitochodria?

A

ammonia + CO2 –> carbamoyl phosphate

and

carbamoyl phosphate + ornithine –> citrulline

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4
Q

Most chemical reactions in the body occur in series, the slowest step in the series is called the rate-limiting step. What is the major rate-limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism of the body?

A

ADP

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5
Q

What is one of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Cold

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6
Q

What are factors that influence metabolic rate?

A 
Arousal vs sleeping 
skeletal muscle 
age
thyroid activity 
testosterone 
growth hormone
fever 
sleep 
malnutrition
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7
Q

What organ or tissue is most of the glucose absorbed after a meal stored as glycogen?

a. brain
b. kidney
c. Adipose tissue
d. Liver

A

D liver

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8
Q

True or false: one of the most important functional roles of insulin in the body is to control from moment to moment whether fat (increase in insulin) or carbohydrate (decrease in insulin) will be used by cells for energy?

A

FALSE

Fat = decrease in insulin and Carbohydrate is increase in insulin .
the statement is opposite of the truth

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9
Q

does insulin activate or inactivate liver phosphorylase?

A

inactivates

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10
Q

does insulin activate or inactivate glucokinase?

A

Activates!

and enhances uptake of glucose from the bloo

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11
Q

Does insulin increase or decrease activities of enzymes needed for glycogenesis?

A

Increase

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12
Q

What is the correct statement about blood flow in the liver?

a. high blood flow with high vascular resistance
b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance
c. low blood flow with high vascular resistance
d. low blood flow with low vascular resistance

A

b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance

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13
Q

The liver has what % of resting cardiac output?

a. 15%
b. 32%
c. 27%
d. 72%

A

c. 27%

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14
Q

What is the effect of cirrhosis on blood flow?

a. increases blood resistance to blood flow
b. decreases blood resistance to blood blow
c. no effect

A

a. increases blood resistance to blood flow

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15
Q

What is the effect of a cloy blocking the portal vein or a major branch?

A

blockage of return blood from spleen and intestines

–> increase in capillary pressure in intestinal wall –> loss of fluid –> death

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16
Q

What condition is caused when a large amount of fluid leaks through the liver capsule into the abdominal cavity?

a. diabetes
b. cirrhosis
c. edema
d. ascites

A

d. ascites

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17
Q

What organ produces and secretes hepatic bile?

a. pancreas,
b. gallbladder
c. liver
d. small intestine

A

c. liver

Gallbladder only stores and concentrates bile

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18
Q

What is the major pigment if bile?

a. bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
c. heme

A

a. bilirubin

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19
Q

What are the components of bile?

A
  • bile acids
  • water and electrolytes
  • cholesterol and phospholipids (esp. lecithin)
  • pigments and organic molecules
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20
Q

Heme is converted into what pigment by heme oxygenase?a. bilirubin

b. biliverdin
c. urobilin
d. hemoglobin

A

b. biliverdin

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21
Q

In the reticuloendothelial system what is biliverdin converted into?

a. unconjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
c. conjugated bilirubin
d. urobilin

A

b. unconjugated bilirubin

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22
Q

What protein transports free bilirubin to liver hepatocytes?

a. heme
b. transferrin
c. albumin
d. acute phase proteins

A

c. albumin

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23
Q

What is the enzyme that conjugates bilirubin with glucuronic acid?

A

UDP glucuronyl transferase

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24
Q 
Most of the free bilirubin is conjugated on the lvier with what?.
a, sulfate,
b. albumin
c. variety of things
d. glucuronic acid
A

d. glucuronic acid

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25
Q

What pigment is either secreted through active transport into the intestine or excreted into the urine?

a. conjugated bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
d. Stercobilin

A

a, conjugated bilirubin

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26
Q

What is the pigment that urobilinogen is converted to via bacterial action and oxidation?

a. stercobilin
b. Urobilin
c. bilirubin
d. conjugates bilirubin

A

b. urobilin

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27
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A
  • obesity (esp. abdominal fat)
  • insulin resistance
  • fasting hyperglycemia
  • Decreased HDL levels
  • Hypertension
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28
Q

The number of active receptors may decrease because of increased hormone concentration and increasing binding to receptors to a down regulation may occur as a result of:

a. increasing the target tissue’s responsiveness to the hormones
b. stimulating hormones that may induce availability of the receptor
c. greater than normal formation of receptors or signaling molecules
d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

A

d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

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29
Q

Calcium binds with what in the phospholipid second messenger system

a. calbindin
b. calmodulin
c. cAMP
d. adeynlate cyclase

A

b. calmodulin

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30
Q

Where are the receptors for lipid soluble hormones like thyroid hormones, located?

a. plasma membrane
b. B cells
c. intracellular
d. extracellular matrix

A

c. intracellular

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31
Q

When thyroid hormones bind to their intracellular receptor they activate a hormone-receptor complex that binds to promotor sequence of DNA called…

a. Transcriptions factor
b. hormone activator
c. Hormone response element
d. no special name

A

c. hormone response element

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32
Q

list an example of:

  • somatotropes
  • Corticotropes
  • Thyrotropes
  • Gonadotropes
  • Lactotropes
A
  • somatotropes = Human Growth Factor
  • Corticotropes = ACTH
  • Thyrotropes = TSH
  • Gonadotropes = LH and FSH
  • Lactotropes = Prolactin
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33
Q

What type of transport does the sodium-iodide symporter utilize

a. active transport
b. secondary active transport
c. facilitated transport
d. diffusion

A

b. secondary active transport

energy comes from a Na-K+ ATPase pump

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34
Q

Is the sodium-iodide symporter in the basal or the apical membrane?

A

basal membrane

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35
Q

Iodide is transported across the apical membrane of cell into follicle via chloride-iodide counter- transporter, What is the transporter called?

A

Pendrin

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36
Q

What membrane enzyme catalyzes conversion of iodide into iodine

A

peroxidase

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37
Q

Combining of iodine with tyrosine on thyroglobulin and catalysed by peroxidase results in what?

A

monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrpsine (DIT)

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38
Q

diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + diiodotyrpsine (DIT) = ?

A

Thyroxine (T4)

formed more than T3
once produced by thyroid gland

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39
Q

diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + monoiodotyrosine (MIT) = ?

A

triiodothyronine (T3)

T3 is the more active form (compared

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40
Q

Thyroglobulin has about 70 tyrosine amino acids that bind iodine to form ….?

A

Thyroid hormone

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41
Q

What type of iodine can bind directly to tyrosine?

A

nascent iodine (I2) or I3-

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42
Q

What is the major hormonal product of iodine metabolism?

A

Thyroxine (T4)

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43
Q

Does Graves’ disease or adenoma cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism

A

hyperthyroidism

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44
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A
  • high state of excitability
  • intolerance to heat
  • increased sweating
  • mild to extreme weight loss
  • varying degrees of diarrhea
  • muscle weakness
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45
Q

What is the major mineralcorticoid?

A

aldosterone

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46
Q

What part of the adrenal cortex secreted aldosterone?

A

Zona glomerulosa

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47
Q

What effect does aldosterone have one the renal tubule?

A

Increases sodium reabsorption
increases potassium secretion
increases hydrogen ion secretion

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48
Q

What mainly controls aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin II and K+

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49
Q

What major glucocorticoid is essential in stress response?

A

Cortisol

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50
Q

Cortisol has negative feedback response to what

A

CRH and ACTH

the second messenger is cAMP

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51
Q

What are functions of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?

A

stimualtes Gluconeogenesis
- may lead to “adrenal diabetes”
resist stress
- resists inflammation

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52
Q

A patient walks into his the ER present with a Buffalo torso and moon face. What is his condition?

a. addison’s disease
b. Cushing’s disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism

A

Cushing’s Disease

aka Hyperadrenalism

-more characteristics
– increase in cortisol and androgen levels
acne and hirsutism
- hypertension
- increase blood glucose
- increase in protein - catabolism and muscle wasting

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53
Q

What disease is due to an injury to the adrenal cortex that causes a disturbance in melanin pigmentation, rise in RBC concentration, metabolic acidosis, and muscle weakness.

a. addison’s disease
b. Cushing’s disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism

A

a. addison’s disease

aka hypoadrenalism

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54
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to mineralocorticoid deficiency.

a. weightloss
b. uneven distribution of pigment
c. high susceptibility to stress
d. rise in RBC concentration

A

d. rise in RBC concentration

other symptoms include:
decrease ECF volume 
- hyponatremia 
- Hyperkalemia
- mild acidosis 
- decrease in cardiac output
- decrease in blood pressure 
- metabolic acidosis 
- death from shock
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55
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to glucocorticoid deficiency

a. decrease in cardiac output
b. hypoglycemia
c. mild acidosis
d. melanin pigmentation

A

b. hypoglycemia - can’t maintain normal blood glucose conc. between meals

other are :
reduction in both proteins and fats leading to depression of other bodily functions 
- weight loss, nausea, vomiting 
- muscle weakness 
- highly susceptible to stress
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56
Q

What are two symptoms of hypocalcemia?

A

nervous system excitement and tetany

  • becomes excitable due to increased neuronal membrane permeability to sodium ions
  • may also increase seizures
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57
Q

Hypocalcemia is usually lethal at what level?

A

4 mg/dl

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58
Q

What percent of the total body calcium is in the extracellular fluid?

A

0.1 % in the ECF
1% in the cells and organelles
and the rest in the bones

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59
Q

Of the 1,000 mg/day Calcium intake how much is excreted in the Feces?

A

900 mg/day

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60
Q

Administration of what hormone causes rapid loss of phosphate in the urine

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone

  • due to effect of the hormone to diminish proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate ions
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61
Q

What effects does PTH on osteoclasts.

A

they don’t have receptors for PTH but it is believed through secondary signals via osteoprotegerin ligand.

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62
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

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63
Q

What type of binding domains does the vitamin D receptor have and where is it located?

A

a hormone-binding and DNA-binding domains

  • located in nuclei of target cells
  • most cells in the body have vitamin D receptors
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64
Q

Where is Vitamin D3 synthesized

A

skin

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65
Q

Where does activation of Vitamin D to the active form occur

A

Kidney

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66
Q

What inhibits PTH from activating more Vitamin D in the Kidney

A

Plasma calcium ion concentration

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67
Q

What calcium-binding protein in the intestinal epithelial cells promotes absorption of calcium?

A

calbindin

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68
Q

What type of fibers pass through the gray rami?

A

postganglionic sympathetic fibers

  • they are type C (unmyelinated cells)
  • make up about 8% of fibers in the average nerve
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69
Q

What type of fibers can synapse with postganglionic neurons upward or downward in the paravertebral chain?

A

preganglionic fibers

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70
Q

What type of nerves are composed of preganglionic fibers and visceral sensory fibers?

A

Splanchnic Nerves

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71
Q

What type of fibers control blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles?

A

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

72
Q

What type of nerves supply the abdominal viscera?

A

Splanchnic nerves

73
Q

Where do splanchnic nerves synapse?

A

prevertebral ganglia

74
Q

Greater Splanchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae?

A

synapses Celiac ganglion

- T5-T9

75
Q

Lesser planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae

A

synapses in superior mesenteric ganglion

T10-T11

76
Q

Least planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae

A

synapses in the aorticorenal ganglion

T12

77
Q

What % of all parasympathetic fibers are in the vagus nerve

A

75%

78
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

A

Ach

the fibers are located in the wall of the organ

79
Q

This CN supplies 4 of the 6 extrinsic muscles of the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris

A

CN III Oculomotor

80
Q

This CN is the primary motor nerve to muscles of facial expression and carrier sensation of taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue

A

CN VII Facial Nerve

81
Q

This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei to submandibular/sublingual ganglia

A

CN VII facial

82
Q

This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion

A

CN III oculomotor

83
Q

This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the ciliary ganglion to the sphincter pupillae muscle

A

CN III oculomotor

84
Q

This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the inferior salivatory nucleus to otic ganglion

A

CN IX glossopharyngeal

85
Q

This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland, and mucous glands of mouth and nose

A

CN VII facial

86
Q

This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to the parotic gland

A

CN IX glossopharyngeal

87
Q

This cranial nerve carries general sensation and sensation of taste from posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN IX glossopharyngeal

88
Q

This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the dorsal motor nucleus

A

CN X Vagus

89
Q

This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube all the way to the left colic flexure

A

CN V Vagus

90
Q

This CN does motor supply to muscles of the fourth and fifth pharyngeal arches and is important in swallowing and speaking

A

CN X Vagus

91
Q

What cranial nerve runs parallel to and innervates the esophagus?

A

CN X Vagus

it also passes posterior to root of lung on each side, pierces diaphragm at T10 with the esophagus, becomes the gastric nerve and supplies viscera in thoracic cavity

92
Q

What amino acid is norepinephrine made from through hydroxylation to dopa?

A

Tyrosine

Dopa is decarboxylated into dopamine, transported into the vesicles then hydroxylated

93
Q

Where is 80% of the norephinephrine methylated to form epinephrine?

A

Adrenal Medulla

94
Q

What destroys norepinephrine present in the tissues?

A

COMT (catechol-O-methyl transferase

95
Q

How long does norepinephrine/epinephrine stay active?

A

only a few second IF secreted directly in tissues

in blood? remains active until COMT in surrounding tissues destroys it

96
Q

What type of tissue mainly destroys norepinephrine/epinephrine when secreted into the blood with COMT?

A

Liver tissue

97
Q

What destroys norepinephrine found in nerve endings?

A

monamine oxidase

98
Q

What type of receptors are found on all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons

A

Muscarinic

99
Q

What type of receptor is named for a poison found in toadstools

A

Muscarinic

Acetylcholine receptor

100
Q

What type of receptor is present in neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles and found in autonomic ganglia at synapses between preganglionic and postgnaglionic neurons?

A

Nicotinic

Acetylcholine receptor

101
Q

Norepinephrine excites mainly these types of receptors

A

Alpha receptors

epinephrine excited both alpha and beta equally

102
Q

What does beta 3 adrenergic receptors do?

A

Thermogenesis

103
Q

What receptor is responsible for thermogenesis?

A

Beta3

104
Q

What type of receptor is responsible for cardioaceleration, increased myocardial strength, and lipolysis.

A

Beta1

105
Q

What are some drugs that mimic the different aspect of sympathetics

A

Sympathommimetic drugs

  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
  • methoxamine
  • phenylephrine (allpha receptors)
  • isoproterenol (beta receptors)
  • Albuterol (beta2 receptors)
106
Q

Ephedrine, Tyramine, and Amphetamine causes the release of what neurotransmitter?

A

Norepinephrine

107
Q

What drug blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine ?

A

Reserpine

108
Q

What drug blocks the release of norepinephrine?

A

Guanethidine

109
Q

What drug blocks sympathetic alpha receptors?

A

phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine

110
Q

What drug blocks sympathetics beta1 and beta2 receptors?

A

propranolol

111
Q

What drug blocks mostly sympathetic beta1 receptors

A

Metoprolol

112
Q

What drug blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia?

A

Hexamethonium

113
Q

What type of drugs are nore rapidly destroyed by cholinesterase, incluse pilocarpine and methacholine, and act directly on muscarinic receptors?

a. parasympathomimetic drugs
b. drugs that inhibit acetylchoninesterase
c. drugs that block cholinergic activity
d. Sympathomimetic drugs

A

a. parasympathomimetic drugs

114
Q

What effects does Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, Ambenonium have on the body?

A

they inhibit acetylcholinesterase

115
Q

What effects does atropine, homatropine, and scopolamine on the effector organs?

A

Blocks cholinergic activity

116
Q

Where are sperm cells stored until ejaculated?

A

Epididymis

117
Q

How long does it take sperm cells to gain motility in the epididymis?

a. days
b. months
c. 3-4 hours
d. 18-24 hrs

A

18-24 hrs

passage through the epididymis requires several days

118
Q

What type of cells forms testosterone in the male

a. sertoli
b. leydig

A

cells of Leydrig

119
Q

Is there are time in the males life where testosterone is not present?

A

Yes, almost nonexistent in testes during childhood

120
Q

97% of testosterone is loosely bounds with what protein after secretion

A

albumin

tightly bound with beta globulin

121
Q

how long does testosterone circulate in the blood for after secretion?

A

30 mins to several hours

122
Q

What happens to testosterone after secretion?

A

transferred to tissues
of
degraded to inactive products that are subsequently secreted

123
Q

In what organs is testosterone mostly converted to dihydrotestosterone

A

prostate

fetal external genitalia

124
Q

What is testosterone converted to in the liver?

A

Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone

125
Q

In what tissue is testosterone converted to Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone

A

Liver

126
Q

Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone is conjugates as either glucuronides or sulfates and excreted where?

A

gut via bile

or
urine via kidneys

127
Q

What cells are located within the seminiferous tubules

A

Sertoli cells

128
Q

Which males cell acts as nurse cells (sustentacular cells) that surround primary spermatocytes and “nurse’ them through the process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis

A

Sertoli cells

129
Q

what is spermiogenesis?

A

differentiation of spermatids into mature sperm

130
Q

What cells form estrogens from testosterone

A

Sertoli cells

131
Q

What is thought to be important for spermiogenesis?

A

forming estrogens from testosterone in the sertoli cells

132
Q

What type of cells found in interstitial spaces in the testes?

A

cells of leydig

133
Q

What cells secrete testosterone?

A

Cells of Leydig

134
Q

What cells are stimulated by luteinizing hormone that is secreted by anterior pituitary?

A

Cells of Leydig

135
Q

Besides testosterone, what else is necessary for spermatogenesis?

A

FSH

136
Q

What paired structures are located behind prostate that is a loculated tube lines with secretory epithelium?

A

Seminal Vesicles

137
Q

What structure of the male anatomy secretes a mucoid material that contians fructose, citric acid, nutrients, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen?

A

Seminal Vesicles

138
Q

During emission and ejaculation contents of vesicles are emptied into where? These contain sperm?

A

ejaculatory ducts

139
Q

What sugar provides energy for sperm

A

fructose

140
Q

What makes cervical mucous more receptive to sperm movement and may cause retroperistaltic contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes

A

Prostaglandins

141
Q

30% of total volume of semen originates where?

A

prostate gland

142
Q

60% of total volume of semen originates from where?

A

seminal vesicles

143
Q

What forms the slightly alkaline and milky fluid containing calcium, citrate ions phosphate ions, clotting enzyme, and profibrinolysin

A

prostate gland

144
Q

What 10 amino acid peptide causes the release of LH?

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

145
Q

Where is gonadotropin-releasing hormone produced

A

neurons located in arcuate nuclei of hypothalamus

146
Q

how is gonadotropin-releasing hormone transported to the anterior pituitary

A

hypothalamic-hypophyseal system

147
Q

Why does gonadotropin-releasing hormone travel to the anterior pituitary?

A

to stimulate to produce LH and FSH

148
Q

What hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete testosterone?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

149
Q

Why type of feedback system does testosterone have on the hypothalamus?

A

Negative

150
Q

What is secreted by Sertoli cells that inhibits the secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary?

A

Inhibin

It also inhibits secretion of GnRH to a lesser extent

151
Q

What types of female cells convert progesterone to androgen?

A

Theca cells

152
Q

What type of female cells convert androgens to estrogen

A

Granulosa cells

153
Q

What stimulates the conversion of androgens to estrogens in granulosa cells?

A

FSH

154
Q

What type of cell(s) have receptors for LH and LDL?

A

Theca and Granulosa cells

155
Q

What hormone increases much less drastically than the other two sources. It is secreted in short pulses averaging once every 90 minutes, as occurs in males

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

aka hypothalamic releasing hormone

156
Q

Where is FSH and LH made

A

anterior pituitary sex hormones

157
Q

What are two examples of ovarian hormones?

A

estrogen and progesterone

158
Q

What hormone(s) have almost no secretion throughout childhood in the female?

A

FSH , LH

159
Q

what combines with highly specific receptors in ovarian target cells membranes?

A

FSH, LH

it’s signal transduction involves cAMP second messenger system in most instances leading to formation of protein kinase and multiple phosphorylations

160
Q

What hormone has a sudden increase just before ovulation?

A

LH

161
Q

Primordial follicles are surrounded by single layers of what type of cells

A

granulosa cells

162
Q

Throughout childhood what type of cells provide nourishment for the ovum and secrete oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in it primordial state?

A

granulosa cells

163
Q

When does a slight elevation in body temperature occur in the female>

A

shortly after ovulation

164
Q

What phase of the female life period happens when there is a dramatic increase in the total urinary gonadotropins

A

menopause

165
Q

What hormone controls the first half the menstrual cycle

A

Estradiol (estrogen)

166
Q

What hormone controls the later half of the cycle

A

progesterone

167
Q

What is the stage of the menstrual called that occur before ovulation that is controlled by estrogen. It is characterized by a progressive thickening of the endometrium due to increasing number of stromal cells

A

Proliferative stage

168
Q

What is the stage of the menstrual cycle called that is controlled by progesterone, It results in a highly secretory endometrium that contains large amounts of stored nutrients

A

secretory stage

169
Q

This stage occurs is the ovum is not fertilized, leading to the sudden involutes of the corpus luteum, and decreased stimulation of endometrial cells

A

Menstruation

170
Q

What uterine phase is from day 1-5

A

menstruation

171
Q

when in the menstrual cycle does the proliferation phase occur

A

days 4-14

172
Q

The secretion phase happens between what time periods?

A

day 14-28

173
Q

What occurs in the ovarian phase between days 5-14

A

follicular growth

174
Q

At what day during a 28 day cycles does ovulation occur in then ovarian phase?

A

Day 14

175
Q

An ovarian phase that is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum occurs during what time period?

a. day 05-14
b. day 14-23
c. day 24-28
d. day- 8-17

A

b. day 14-23

176
Q

What ovarian phase occurs at the end of the menstrual cycle

A

regression of corpus luteum

Physiology- Katie (10 decks)

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