sem 2 exam 3 Flashcards
Formation of what is the most important intracellular processes that require energy?
Peptide linkages
How many high energy phosphate bonds are needed to form on peptide linkage?
4
need 48,000 form one peptide linkage but only stores 500-5,000 cal
What steps of the Ornithine (urea) cycle are in the mitochodria?
ammonia + CO2 –> carbamoyl phosphate
and
carbamoyl phosphate + ornithine –> citrulline
Most chemical reactions in the body occur in series, the slowest step in the series is called the rate-limiting step. What is the major rate-limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism of the body?
ADP
What is one of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid stimulating hormone?
Cold
What are factors that influence metabolic rate?
Arousal vs sleeping skeletal muscle age thyroid activity testosterone growth hormone fever sleep malnutrition
What organ or tissue is most of the glucose absorbed after a meal stored as glycogen?
a. brain
b. kidney
c. Adipose tissue
d. Liver
D liver
True or false: one of the most important functional roles of insulin in the body is to control from moment to moment whether fat (increase in insulin) or carbohydrate (decrease in insulin) will be used by cells for energy?
FALSE
Fat = decrease in insulin and Carbohydrate is increase in insulin .
the statement is opposite of the truth
does insulin activate or inactivate liver phosphorylase?
inactivates
does insulin activate or inactivate glucokinase?
Activates!
and enhances uptake of glucose from the bloo
Does insulin increase or decrease activities of enzymes needed for glycogenesis?
Increase
What is the correct statement about blood flow in the liver?
a. high blood flow with high vascular resistance
b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance
c. low blood flow with high vascular resistance
d. low blood flow with low vascular resistance
b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance
The liver has what % of resting cardiac output?
a. 15%
b. 32%
c. 27%
d. 72%
c. 27%
What is the effect of cirrhosis on blood flow?
a. increases blood resistance to blood flow
b. decreases blood resistance to blood blow
c. no effect
a. increases blood resistance to blood flow
What is the effect of a cloy blocking the portal vein or a major branch?
blockage of return blood from spleen and intestines
–> increase in capillary pressure in intestinal wall –> loss of fluid –> death
What condition is caused when a large amount of fluid leaks through the liver capsule into the abdominal cavity?
a. diabetes
b. cirrhosis
c. edema
d. ascites
d. ascites
What organ produces and secretes hepatic bile?
a. pancreas,
b. gallbladder
c. liver
d. small intestine
c. liver
Gallbladder only stores and concentrates bile
What is the major pigment if bile?
a. bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
c. heme
a. bilirubin
What are the components of bile?
- bile acids
- water and electrolytes
- cholesterol and phospholipids (esp. lecithin)
- pigments and organic molecules
Heme is converted into what pigment by heme oxygenase?a. bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. urobilin
d. hemoglobin
b. biliverdin
In the reticuloendothelial system what is biliverdin converted into?
a. unconjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
c. conjugated bilirubin
d. urobilin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
What protein transports free bilirubin to liver hepatocytes?
a. heme
b. transferrin
c. albumin
d. acute phase proteins
c. albumin
What is the enzyme that conjugates bilirubin with glucuronic acid?
UDP glucuronyl transferase
Most of the free bilirubin is conjugated on the lvier with what?. a, sulfate, b. albumin c. variety of things d. glucuronic acid
d. glucuronic acid
What pigment is either secreted through active transport into the intestine or excreted into the urine?
a. conjugated bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
d. Stercobilin
a, conjugated bilirubin
What is the pigment that urobilinogen is converted to via bacterial action and oxidation?
a. stercobilin
b. Urobilin
c. bilirubin
d. conjugates bilirubin
b. urobilin
Metabolic syndrome
- obesity (esp. abdominal fat)
- insulin resistance
- fasting hyperglycemia
- Decreased HDL levels
- Hypertension
The number of active receptors may decrease because of increased hormone concentration and increasing binding to receptors to a down regulation may occur as a result of:
a. increasing the target tissue’s responsiveness to the hormones
b. stimulating hormones that may induce availability of the receptor
c. greater than normal formation of receptors or signaling molecules
d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
Calcium binds with what in the phospholipid second messenger system
a. calbindin
b. calmodulin
c. cAMP
d. adeynlate cyclase
b. calmodulin
Where are the receptors for lipid soluble hormones like thyroid hormones, located?
a. plasma membrane
b. B cells
c. intracellular
d. extracellular matrix
c. intracellular
When thyroid hormones bind to their intracellular receptor they activate a hormone-receptor complex that binds to promotor sequence of DNA called…
a. Transcriptions factor
b. hormone activator
c. Hormone response element
d. no special name
c. hormone response element
list an example of:
- somatotropes
- Corticotropes
- Thyrotropes
- Gonadotropes
- Lactotropes
- somatotropes = Human Growth Factor
- Corticotropes = ACTH
- Thyrotropes = TSH
- Gonadotropes = LH and FSH
- Lactotropes = Prolactin
What type of transport does the sodium-iodide symporter utilize
a. active transport
b. secondary active transport
c. facilitated transport
d. diffusion
b. secondary active transport
energy comes from a Na-K+ ATPase pump
Is the sodium-iodide symporter in the basal or the apical membrane?
basal membrane
Iodide is transported across the apical membrane of cell into follicle via chloride-iodide counter- transporter, What is the transporter called?
Pendrin
What membrane enzyme catalyzes conversion of iodide into iodine
peroxidase
Combining of iodine with tyrosine on thyroglobulin and catalysed by peroxidase results in what?
monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrpsine (DIT)
diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + diiodotyrpsine (DIT) = ?
Thyroxine (T4)
formed more than T3
once produced by thyroid gland
diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + monoiodotyrosine (MIT) = ?
triiodothyronine (T3)
T3 is the more active form (compared
Thyroglobulin has about 70 tyrosine amino acids that bind iodine to form ….?
Thyroid hormone
What type of iodine can bind directly to tyrosine?
nascent iodine (I2) or I3-
What is the major hormonal product of iodine metabolism?
Thyroxine (T4)
Does Graves’ disease or adenoma cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism
- high state of excitability
- intolerance to heat
- increased sweating
- mild to extreme weight loss
- varying degrees of diarrhea
- muscle weakness
What is the major mineralcorticoid?
aldosterone
What part of the adrenal cortex secreted aldosterone?
Zona glomerulosa
What effect does aldosterone have one the renal tubule?
Increases sodium reabsorption
increases potassium secretion
increases hydrogen ion secretion
What mainly controls aldosterone?
Angiotensin II and K+
What major glucocorticoid is essential in stress response?
Cortisol
Cortisol has negative feedback response to what
CRH and ACTH
the second messenger is cAMP
What are functions of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?
stimualtes Gluconeogenesis
- may lead to “adrenal diabetes”
resist stress
- resists inflammation
A patient walks into his the ER present with a Buffalo torso and moon face. What is his condition?
a. addison’s disease
b. Cushing’s disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism
Cushing’s Disease
aka Hyperadrenalism
-more characteristics
– increase in cortisol and androgen levels
acne and hirsutism
- hypertension
- increase blood glucose
- increase in protein - catabolism and muscle wasting
What disease is due to an injury to the adrenal cortex that causes a disturbance in melanin pigmentation, rise in RBC concentration, metabolic acidosis, and muscle weakness.
a. addison’s disease
b. Cushing’s disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism
a. addison’s disease
aka hypoadrenalism
Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to mineralocorticoid deficiency.
a. weightloss
b. uneven distribution of pigment
c. high susceptibility to stress
d. rise in RBC concentration
d. rise in RBC concentration
other symptoms include: decrease ECF volume - hyponatremia - Hyperkalemia - mild acidosis - decrease in cardiac output - decrease in blood pressure - metabolic acidosis - death from shock
Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to glucocorticoid deficiency
a. decrease in cardiac output
b. hypoglycemia
c. mild acidosis
d. melanin pigmentation
b. hypoglycemia - can’t maintain normal blood glucose conc. between meals
other are : reduction in both proteins and fats leading to depression of other bodily functions - weight loss, nausea, vomiting - muscle weakness - highly susceptible to stress
What are two symptoms of hypocalcemia?
nervous system excitement and tetany
- becomes excitable due to increased neuronal membrane permeability to sodium ions
- may also increase seizures
Hypocalcemia is usually lethal at what level?
4 mg/dl
What percent of the total body calcium is in the extracellular fluid?
0.1 % in the ECF
1% in the cells and organelles
and the rest in the bones
Of the 1,000 mg/day Calcium intake how much is excreted in the Feces?
900 mg/day
Administration of what hormone causes rapid loss of phosphate in the urine
PTH (parathyroid hormone
- due to effect of the hormone to diminish proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate ions
What effects does PTH on osteoclasts.
they don’t have receptors for PTH but it is believed through secondary signals via osteoprotegerin ligand.
What is the active form of vitamin D
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
What type of binding domains does the vitamin D receptor have and where is it located?
a hormone-binding and DNA-binding domains
- located in nuclei of target cells
- most cells in the body have vitamin D receptors
Where is Vitamin D3 synthesized
skin
Where does activation of Vitamin D to the active form occur
Kidney
What inhibits PTH from activating more Vitamin D in the Kidney
Plasma calcium ion concentration
What calcium-binding protein in the intestinal epithelial cells promotes absorption of calcium?
calbindin
What type of fibers pass through the gray rami?
postganglionic sympathetic fibers
- they are type C (unmyelinated cells)
- make up about 8% of fibers in the average nerve
What type of fibers can synapse with postganglionic neurons upward or downward in the paravertebral chain?
preganglionic fibers
What type of nerves are composed of preganglionic fibers and visceral sensory fibers?
Splanchnic Nerves
What type of fibers control blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles?
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
What type of nerves supply the abdominal viscera?
Splanchnic nerves
Where do splanchnic nerves synapse?
prevertebral ganglia
Greater Splanchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae?
synapses Celiac ganglion
- T5-T9
Lesser planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae
synapses in superior mesenteric ganglion
T10-T11
Least planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae
synapses in the aorticorenal ganglion
T12
What % of all parasympathetic fibers are in the vagus nerve
75%
What neurotransmitter is used by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Ach
the fibers are located in the wall of the organ
This CN supplies 4 of the 6 extrinsic muscles of the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris
CN III Oculomotor
This CN is the primary motor nerve to muscles of facial expression and carrier sensation of taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue
CN VII Facial Nerve
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei to submandibular/sublingual ganglia
CN VII facial
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion
CN III oculomotor
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the ciliary ganglion to the sphincter pupillae muscle
CN III oculomotor
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the inferior salivatory nucleus to otic ganglion
CN IX glossopharyngeal
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland, and mucous glands of mouth and nose
CN VII facial
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to the parotic gland
CN IX glossopharyngeal
This cranial nerve carries general sensation and sensation of taste from posterior 1/3 of the tongue
CN IX glossopharyngeal
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the dorsal motor nucleus
CN X Vagus
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube all the way to the left colic flexure
CN V Vagus
This CN does motor supply to muscles of the fourth and fifth pharyngeal arches and is important in swallowing and speaking
CN X Vagus
What cranial nerve runs parallel to and innervates the esophagus?
CN X Vagus
it also passes posterior to root of lung on each side, pierces diaphragm at T10 with the esophagus, becomes the gastric nerve and supplies viscera in thoracic cavity
What amino acid is norepinephrine made from through hydroxylation to dopa?
Tyrosine
Dopa is decarboxylated into dopamine, transported into the vesicles then hydroxylated
Where is 80% of the norephinephrine methylated to form epinephrine?
Adrenal Medulla
What destroys norepinephrine present in the tissues?
COMT (catechol-O-methyl transferase
How long does norepinephrine/epinephrine stay active?
only a few second IF secreted directly in tissues
in blood? remains active until COMT in surrounding tissues destroys it
What type of tissue mainly destroys norepinephrine/epinephrine when secreted into the blood with COMT?
Liver tissue
What destroys norepinephrine found in nerve endings?
monamine oxidase
What type of receptors are found on all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons
Muscarinic
What type of receptor is named for a poison found in toadstools
Muscarinic
Acetylcholine receptor
What type of receptor is present in neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles and found in autonomic ganglia at synapses between preganglionic and postgnaglionic neurons?
Nicotinic
Acetylcholine receptor
Norepinephrine excites mainly these types of receptors
Alpha receptors
epinephrine excited both alpha and beta equally
What does beta 3 adrenergic receptors do?
Thermogenesis
What receptor is responsible for thermogenesis?
Beta3
What type of receptor is responsible for cardioaceleration, increased myocardial strength, and lipolysis.
Beta1
What are some drugs that mimic the different aspect of sympathetics
Sympathommimetic drugs
- norepinephrine
- epinephrine
- methoxamine
- phenylephrine (allpha receptors)
- isoproterenol (beta receptors)
- Albuterol (beta2 receptors)
Ephedrine, Tyramine, and Amphetamine causes the release of what neurotransmitter?
Norepinephrine
What drug blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine ?
Reserpine
What drug blocks the release of norepinephrine?
Guanethidine
What drug blocks sympathetic alpha receptors?
phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine
What drug blocks sympathetics beta1 and beta2 receptors?
propranolol
What drug blocks mostly sympathetic beta1 receptors
Metoprolol
What drug blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia?
Hexamethonium
What type of drugs are nore rapidly destroyed by cholinesterase, incluse pilocarpine and methacholine, and act directly on muscarinic receptors?
a. parasympathomimetic drugs
b. drugs that inhibit acetylchoninesterase
c. drugs that block cholinergic activity
d. Sympathomimetic drugs
a. parasympathomimetic drugs
What effects does Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, Ambenonium have on the body?
they inhibit acetylcholinesterase
What effects does atropine, homatropine, and scopolamine on the effector organs?
Blocks cholinergic activity
Where are sperm cells stored until ejaculated?
Epididymis
How long does it take sperm cells to gain motility in the epididymis?
a. days
b. months
c. 3-4 hours
d. 18-24 hrs
18-24 hrs
passage through the epididymis requires several days
What type of cells forms testosterone in the male
a. sertoli
b. leydig
cells of Leydrig
Is there are time in the males life where testosterone is not present?
Yes, almost nonexistent in testes during childhood
97% of testosterone is loosely bounds with what protein after secretion
albumin
tightly bound with beta globulin
how long does testosterone circulate in the blood for after secretion?
30 mins to several hours
What happens to testosterone after secretion?
transferred to tissues
of
degraded to inactive products that are subsequently secreted
In what organs is testosterone mostly converted to dihydrotestosterone
prostate
fetal external genitalia
What is testosterone converted to in the liver?
Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone
In what tissue is testosterone converted to Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone
Liver
Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone is conjugates as either glucuronides or sulfates and excreted where?
gut via bile
or
urine via kidneys
What cells are located within the seminiferous tubules
Sertoli cells
Which males cell acts as nurse cells (sustentacular cells) that surround primary spermatocytes and “nurse’ them through the process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis
Sertoli cells
what is spermiogenesis?
differentiation of spermatids into mature sperm
What cells form estrogens from testosterone
Sertoli cells
What is thought to be important for spermiogenesis?
forming estrogens from testosterone in the sertoli cells
What type of cells found in interstitial spaces in the testes?
cells of leydig
What cells secrete testosterone?
Cells of Leydig
What cells are stimulated by luteinizing hormone that is secreted by anterior pituitary?
Cells of Leydig
Besides testosterone, what else is necessary for spermatogenesis?
FSH
What paired structures are located behind prostate that is a loculated tube lines with secretory epithelium?
Seminal Vesicles
What structure of the male anatomy secretes a mucoid material that contians fructose, citric acid, nutrients, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen?
Seminal Vesicles
During emission and ejaculation contents of vesicles are emptied into where? These contain sperm?
ejaculatory ducts
What sugar provides energy for sperm
fructose
What makes cervical mucous more receptive to sperm movement and may cause retroperistaltic contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes
Prostaglandins
30% of total volume of semen originates where?
prostate gland
60% of total volume of semen originates from where?
seminal vesicles
What forms the slightly alkaline and milky fluid containing calcium, citrate ions phosphate ions, clotting enzyme, and profibrinolysin
prostate gland
What 10 amino acid peptide causes the release of LH?
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Where is gonadotropin-releasing hormone produced
neurons located in arcuate nuclei of hypothalamus
how is gonadotropin-releasing hormone transported to the anterior pituitary
hypothalamic-hypophyseal system
Why does gonadotropin-releasing hormone travel to the anterior pituitary?
to stimulate to produce LH and FSH
What hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete testosterone?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Why type of feedback system does testosterone have on the hypothalamus?
Negative
What is secreted by Sertoli cells that inhibits the secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary?
Inhibin
It also inhibits secretion of GnRH to a lesser extent
What types of female cells convert progesterone to androgen?
Theca cells
What type of female cells convert androgens to estrogen
Granulosa cells
What stimulates the conversion of androgens to estrogens in granulosa cells?
FSH
What type of cell(s) have receptors for LH and LDL?
Theca and Granulosa cells
What hormone increases much less drastically than the other two sources. It is secreted in short pulses averaging once every 90 minutes, as occurs in males
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
aka hypothalamic releasing hormone
Where is FSH and LH made
anterior pituitary sex hormones
What are two examples of ovarian hormones?
estrogen and progesterone
What hormone(s) have almost no secretion throughout childhood in the female?
FSH , LH
what combines with highly specific receptors in ovarian target cells membranes?
FSH, LH
it’s signal transduction involves cAMP second messenger system in most instances leading to formation of protein kinase and multiple phosphorylations
What hormone has a sudden increase just before ovulation?
LH
Primordial follicles are surrounded by single layers of what type of cells
granulosa cells
Throughout childhood what type of cells provide nourishment for the ovum and secrete oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in it primordial state?
granulosa cells
When does a slight elevation in body temperature occur in the female>
shortly after ovulation
What phase of the female life period happens when there is a dramatic increase in the total urinary gonadotropins
menopause
What hormone controls the first half the menstrual cycle
Estradiol (estrogen)
What hormone controls the later half of the cycle
progesterone
What is the stage of the menstrual called that occur before ovulation that is controlled by estrogen. It is characterized by a progressive thickening of the endometrium due to increasing number of stromal cells
Proliferative stage
What is the stage of the menstrual cycle called that is controlled by progesterone, It results in a highly secretory endometrium that contains large amounts of stored nutrients
secretory stage
This stage occurs is the ovum is not fertilized, leading to the sudden involutes of the corpus luteum, and decreased stimulation of endometrial cells
Menstruation
What uterine phase is from day 1-5
menstruation
when in the menstrual cycle does the proliferation phase occur
days 4-14
The secretion phase happens between what time periods?
day 14-28
What occurs in the ovarian phase between days 5-14
follicular growth
At what day during a 28 day cycles does ovulation occur in then ovarian phase?
Day 14
An ovarian phase that is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum occurs during what time period?
a. day 05-14
b. day 14-23
c. day 24-28
d. day- 8-17
b. day 14-23
What ovarian phase occurs at the end of the menstrual cycle
regression of corpus luteum
