sem 2 exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Formation of what is the most important intracellular processes that require energy?
A
Peptide linkages
2
Q
How many high energy phosphate bonds are needed to form on peptide linkage?
A
4
need 48,000 form one peptide linkage but only stores 500-5,000 cal
3
Q
What steps of the Ornithine (urea) cycle are in the mitochodria?
A
ammonia + CO2 –> carbamoyl phosphate
and
carbamoyl phosphate + ornithine –> citrulline
4
Q
Most chemical reactions in the body occur in series, the slowest step in the series is called the rate-limiting step. What is the major rate-limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism of the body?
A
ADP
5
Q
What is one of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid stimulating hormone?
A
Cold
6
Q
What are factors that influence metabolic rate?
A
Arousal vs sleeping skeletal muscle age thyroid activity testosterone growth hormone fever sleep malnutrition
7
Q
What organ or tissue is most of the glucose absorbed after a meal stored as glycogen?
a. brain
b. kidney
c. Adipose tissue
d. Liver
A
D liver
8
Q
True or false: one of the most important functional roles of insulin in the body is to control from moment to moment whether fat (increase in insulin) or carbohydrate (decrease in insulin) will be used by cells for energy?
A
FALSE
Fat = decrease in insulin and Carbohydrate is increase in insulin .
the statement is opposite of the truth
9
Q
does insulin activate or inactivate liver phosphorylase?
A
inactivates
10
Q
does insulin activate or inactivate glucokinase?
A
Activates!
and enhances uptake of glucose from the bloo
11
Q
Does insulin increase or decrease activities of enzymes needed for glycogenesis?
A
Increase
12
Q
What is the correct statement about blood flow in the liver?
a. high blood flow with high vascular resistance
b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance
c. low blood flow with high vascular resistance
d. low blood flow with low vascular resistance
A
b. high blood flow with low vascular resistance
13
Q
The liver has what % of resting cardiac output?
a. 15%
b. 32%
c. 27%
d. 72%
A
c. 27%
14
Q
What is the effect of cirrhosis on blood flow?
a. increases blood resistance to blood flow
b. decreases blood resistance to blood blow
c. no effect
A
a. increases blood resistance to blood flow
15
Q
What is the effect of a cloy blocking the portal vein or a major branch?
A
blockage of return blood from spleen and intestines
–> increase in capillary pressure in intestinal wall –> loss of fluid –> death
16
Q
What condition is caused when a large amount of fluid leaks through the liver capsule into the abdominal cavity?
a. diabetes
b. cirrhosis
c. edema
d. ascites
A
d. ascites
17
Q
What organ produces and secretes hepatic bile?
a. pancreas,
b. gallbladder
c. liver
d. small intestine
A
c. liver
Gallbladder only stores and concentrates bile
18
Q
What is the major pigment if bile?
a. bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
c. heme
A
a. bilirubin
19
Q
What are the components of bile?
A
- bile acids
- water and electrolytes
- cholesterol and phospholipids (esp. lecithin)
- pigments and organic molecules
20
Q
Heme is converted into what pigment by heme oxygenase?a. bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. urobilin
d. hemoglobin
A
b. biliverdin
21
Q
In the reticuloendothelial system what is biliverdin converted into?
a. unconjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
c. conjugated bilirubin
d. urobilin
A
b. unconjugated bilirubin
22
Q
What protein transports free bilirubin to liver hepatocytes?
a. heme
b. transferrin
c. albumin
d. acute phase proteins
A
c. albumin
23
Q
What is the enzyme that conjugates bilirubin with glucuronic acid?
A
UDP glucuronyl transferase
24
Q
Most of the free bilirubin is conjugated on the lvier with what?. a, sulfate, b. albumin c. variety of things d. glucuronic acid
A
d. glucuronic acid
25
What pigment is either secreted through active transport into the intestine or excreted into the urine?
a. conjugated bilirubin
b. biliverdin
c. Urobilin
d. Stercobilin
a, conjugated bilirubin
26
What is the pigment that urobilinogen is converted to via bacterial action and oxidation?
a. stercobilin
b. Urobilin
c. bilirubin
d. conjugates bilirubin
b. urobilin
27
Metabolic syndrome
- obesity (esp. abdominal fat)
- insulin resistance
- fasting hyperglycemia
- Decreased HDL levels
- Hypertension
28
The number of active receptors may decrease because of increased hormone concentration and increasing binding to receptors to a down regulation may occur as a result of:
a. increasing the target tissue's responsiveness to the hormones
b. stimulating hormones that may induce availability of the receptor
c. greater than normal formation of receptors or signaling molecules
d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
d. inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
29
Calcium binds with what in the phospholipid second messenger system
a. calbindin
b. calmodulin
c. cAMP
d. adeynlate cyclase
b. calmodulin
30
Where are the receptors for lipid soluble hormones like thyroid hormones, located?
a. plasma membrane
b. B cells
c. intracellular
d. extracellular matrix
c. intracellular
31
When thyroid hormones bind to their intracellular receptor they activate a hormone-receptor complex that binds to promotor sequence of DNA called...
a. Transcriptions factor
b. hormone activator
c. Hormone response element
d. no special name
c. hormone response element
32
list an example of:
- somatotropes
- Corticotropes
- Thyrotropes
- Gonadotropes
- Lactotropes
- somatotropes = Human Growth Factor
- Corticotropes = ACTH
- Thyrotropes = TSH
- Gonadotropes = LH and FSH
- Lactotropes = Prolactin
33
What type of transport does the sodium-iodide symporter utilize
a. active transport
b. secondary active transport
c. facilitated transport
d. diffusion
b. secondary active transport
energy comes from a Na-K+ ATPase pump
34
Is the sodium-iodide symporter in the basal or the apical membrane?
basal membrane
35
Iodide is transported across the apical membrane of cell into follicle via chloride-iodide counter- transporter, What is the transporter called?
Pendrin
36
What membrane enzyme catalyzes conversion of iodide into iodine
peroxidase
37
Combining of iodine with tyrosine on thyroglobulin and catalysed by peroxidase results in what?
monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrpsine (DIT)
38
diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + diiodotyrpsine (DIT) = ?
Thyroxine (T4)
formed more than T3
once produced by thyroid gland
39
diiodotyrpsine (DIT) + monoiodotyrosine (MIT) = ?
triiodothyronine (T3)
T3 is the more active form (compared
40
Thyroglobulin has about 70 tyrosine amino acids that bind iodine to form ....?
Thyroid hormone
41
What type of iodine can bind directly to tyrosine?
nascent iodine (I2) or I3-
42
What is the major hormonal product of iodine metabolism?
Thyroxine (T4)
43
Does Graves' disease or adenoma cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
44
What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism
- high state of excitability
- intolerance to heat
- increased sweating
- mild to extreme weight loss
- varying degrees of diarrhea
- muscle weakness
45
What is the major mineralcorticoid?
aldosterone
46
What part of the adrenal cortex secreted aldosterone?
Zona glomerulosa
47
What effect does aldosterone have one the renal tubule?
Increases sodium reabsorption
increases potassium secretion
increases hydrogen ion secretion
48
What mainly controls aldosterone?
Angiotensin II and K+
49
What major glucocorticoid is essential in stress response?
Cortisol
50
Cortisol has negative feedback response to what
CRH and ACTH
the second messenger is cAMP
51
What are functions of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?
stimualtes Gluconeogenesis
- may lead to "adrenal diabetes"
resist stress
- resists inflammation
52
A patient walks into his the ER present with a Buffalo torso and moon face. What is his condition?
a. addison's disease
b. Cushing's disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism
Cushing's Disease
aka Hyperadrenalism
-more characteristics
-- increase in cortisol and androgen levels
acne and hirsutism
- hypertension
- increase blood glucose
- increase in protein - catabolism and muscle wasting
53
What disease is due to an injury to the adrenal cortex that causes a disturbance in melanin pigmentation, rise in RBC concentration, metabolic acidosis, and muscle weakness.
a. addison's disease
b. Cushing's disease
c. RA
d. hyperthyroidism
a. addison's disease
aka hypoadrenalism
54
Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to mineralocorticoid deficiency.
a. weightloss
b. uneven distribution of pigment
c. high susceptibility to stress
d. rise in RBC concentration
d. rise in RBC concentration
```
other symptoms include:
decrease ECF volume
- hyponatremia
- Hyperkalemia
- mild acidosis
- decrease in cardiac output
- decrease in blood pressure
- metabolic acidosis
- death from shock
```
55
Which of the following is a symptom of a disturbance due to glucocorticoid deficiency
a. decrease in cardiac output
b. hypoglycemia
c. mild acidosis
d. melanin pigmentation
b. hypoglycemia - can't maintain normal blood glucose conc. between meals
```
other are :
reduction in both proteins and fats leading to depression of other bodily functions
- weight loss, nausea, vomiting
- muscle weakness
- highly susceptible to stress
```
56
What are two symptoms of hypocalcemia?
nervous system excitement and tetany
- becomes excitable due to increased neuronal membrane permeability to sodium ions
- may also increase seizures
57
Hypocalcemia is usually lethal at what level?
4 mg/dl
58
What percent of the total body calcium is in the extracellular fluid?
0.1 % in the ECF
1% in the cells and organelles
and the rest in the bones
59
Of the 1,000 mg/day Calcium intake how much is excreted in the Feces?
900 mg/day
60
Administration of what hormone causes rapid loss of phosphate in the urine
PTH (parathyroid hormone
- due to effect of the hormone to diminish proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate ions
61
What effects does PTH on osteoclasts.
they don't have receptors for PTH but it is believed through secondary signals via osteoprotegerin ligand.
62
What is the active form of vitamin D
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
63
What type of binding domains does the vitamin D receptor have and where is it located?
a hormone-binding and DNA-binding domains
- located in nuclei of target cells
- most cells in the body have vitamin D receptors
64
Where is Vitamin D3 synthesized
skin
65
Where does activation of Vitamin D to the active form occur
Kidney
66
What inhibits PTH from activating more Vitamin D in the Kidney
Plasma calcium ion concentration
67
What calcium-binding protein in the intestinal epithelial cells promotes absorption of calcium?
calbindin
68
What type of fibers pass through the gray rami?
postganglionic sympathetic fibers
- they are type C (unmyelinated cells)
- make up about 8% of fibers in the average nerve
69
What type of fibers can synapse with postganglionic neurons upward or downward in the paravertebral chain?
preganglionic fibers
70
What type of nerves are composed of preganglionic fibers and visceral sensory fibers?
Splanchnic Nerves
71
What type of fibers control blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles?
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
72
What type of nerves supply the abdominal viscera?
Splanchnic nerves
73
Where do splanchnic nerves synapse?
prevertebral ganglia
74
Greater Splanchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae?
synapses Celiac ganglion
| - T5-T9
75
Lesser planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae
synapses in superior mesenteric ganglion
| T10-T11
76
Least planchnic Nerves synapse where and are found in what levels of vertebrae
synapses in the aorticorenal ganglion
| T12
77
What % of all parasympathetic fibers are in the vagus nerve
75%
78
What neurotransmitter is used by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Ach
the fibers are located in the wall of the organ
79
This CN supplies 4 of the 6 extrinsic muscles of the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris
CN III Oculomotor
80
This CN is the primary motor nerve to muscles of facial expression and carrier sensation of taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue
CN VII Facial Nerve
81
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei to submandibular/sublingual ganglia
CN VII facial
82
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion
CN III oculomotor
83
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the ciliary ganglion to the sphincter pupillae muscle
CN III oculomotor
84
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the inferior salivatory nucleus to otic ganglion
CN IX glossopharyngeal
85
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland, and mucous glands of mouth and nose
CN VII facial
86
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics to the parotic gland
CN IX glossopharyngeal
87
This cranial nerve carries general sensation and sensation of taste from posterior 1/3 of the tongue
CN IX glossopharyngeal
88
This CN has preganglionic parasympathetics from the dorsal motor nucleus
CN X Vagus
89
This CN has postganglionic parasympathetics from the myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube all the way to the left colic flexure
CN V Vagus
90
This CN does motor supply to muscles of the fourth and fifth pharyngeal arches and is important in swallowing and speaking
CN X Vagus
91
What cranial nerve runs parallel to and innervates the esophagus?
CN X Vagus
it also passes posterior to root of lung on each side, pierces diaphragm at T10 with the esophagus, becomes the gastric nerve and supplies viscera in thoracic cavity
92
What amino acid is norepinephrine made from through hydroxylation to dopa?
Tyrosine
Dopa is decarboxylated into dopamine, transported into the vesicles then hydroxylated
93
Where is 80% of the norephinephrine methylated to form epinephrine?
Adrenal Medulla
94
What destroys norepinephrine present in the tissues?
COMT (catechol-O-methyl transferase
95
How long does norepinephrine/epinephrine stay active?
only a few second IF secreted directly in tissues
in blood? remains active until COMT in surrounding tissues destroys it
96
What type of tissue mainly destroys norepinephrine/epinephrine when secreted into the blood with COMT?
Liver tissue
97
What destroys norepinephrine found in nerve endings?
monamine oxidase
98
What type of receptors are found on all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons
Muscarinic
99
What type of receptor is named for a poison found in toadstools
Muscarinic
Acetylcholine receptor
100
What type of receptor is present in neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles and found in autonomic ganglia at synapses between preganglionic and postgnaglionic neurons?
Nicotinic
Acetylcholine receptor
101
Norepinephrine excites mainly these types of receptors
Alpha receptors
epinephrine excited both alpha and beta equally
102
What does beta 3 adrenergic receptors do?
Thermogenesis
103
What receptor is responsible for thermogenesis?
Beta3
104
What type of receptor is responsible for cardioaceleration, increased myocardial strength, and lipolysis.
Beta1
105
What are some drugs that mimic the different aspect of sympathetics
Sympathommimetic drugs
- norepinephrine
- epinephrine
- methoxamine
- phenylephrine (allpha receptors)
- isoproterenol (beta receptors)
- Albuterol (beta2 receptors)
106
Ephedrine, Tyramine, and Amphetamine causes the release of what neurotransmitter?
Norepinephrine
107
What drug blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine ?
Reserpine
108
What drug blocks the release of norepinephrine?
Guanethidine
109
What drug blocks sympathetic alpha receptors?
phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine
110
What drug blocks sympathetics beta1 and beta2 receptors?
propranolol
111
What drug blocks mostly sympathetic beta1 receptors
Metoprolol
112
What drug blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia?
Hexamethonium
113
What type of drugs are nore rapidly destroyed by cholinesterase, incluse pilocarpine and methacholine, and act directly on muscarinic receptors?
a. parasympathomimetic drugs
b. drugs that inhibit acetylchoninesterase
c. drugs that block cholinergic activity
d. Sympathomimetic drugs
a. parasympathomimetic drugs
114
What effects does Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, Ambenonium have on the body?
they inhibit acetylcholinesterase
115
What effects does atropine, homatropine, and scopolamine on the effector organs?
Blocks cholinergic activity
116
Where are sperm cells stored until ejaculated?
Epididymis
117
How long does it take sperm cells to gain motility in the epididymis?
a. days
b. months
c. 3-4 hours
d. 18-24 hrs
18-24 hrs
passage through the epididymis requires several days
118
What type of cells forms testosterone in the male
a. sertoli
b. leydig
cells of Leydrig
119
Is there are time in the males life where testosterone is not present?
Yes, almost nonexistent in testes during childhood
120
97% of testosterone is loosely bounds with what protein after secretion
albumin
tightly bound with beta globulin
121
how long does testosterone circulate in the blood for after secretion?
30 mins to several hours
122
What happens to testosterone after secretion?
transferred to tissues
of
degraded to inactive products that are subsequently secreted
123
In what organs is testosterone mostly converted to dihydrotestosterone
prostate
| fetal external genitalia
124
What is testosterone converted to in the liver?
Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone
125
In what tissue is testosterone converted to Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone
Liver
126
Androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone is conjugates as either glucuronides or sulfates and excreted where?
gut via bile
or
urine via kidneys
127
What cells are located within the seminiferous tubules
Sertoli cells
128
Which males cell acts as nurse cells (sustentacular cells) that surround primary spermatocytes and "nurse' them through the process of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis
Sertoli cells
129
what is spermiogenesis?
differentiation of spermatids into mature sperm
130
What cells form estrogens from testosterone
Sertoli cells
131
What is thought to be important for spermiogenesis?
forming estrogens from testosterone in the sertoli cells
132
What type of cells found in interstitial spaces in the testes?
cells of leydig
133
What cells secrete testosterone?
Cells of Leydig
134
What cells are stimulated by luteinizing hormone that is secreted by anterior pituitary?
Cells of Leydig
135
Besides testosterone, what else is necessary for spermatogenesis?
FSH
136
What paired structures are located behind prostate that is a loculated tube lines with secretory epithelium?
Seminal Vesicles
137
What structure of the male anatomy secretes a mucoid material that contians fructose, citric acid, nutrients, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen?
Seminal Vesicles
138
During emission and ejaculation contents of vesicles are emptied into where? These contain sperm?
ejaculatory ducts
139
What sugar provides energy for sperm
fructose
140
What makes cervical mucous more receptive to sperm movement and may cause retroperistaltic contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes
Prostaglandins
141
30% of total volume of semen originates where?
prostate gland
142
60% of total volume of semen originates from where?
seminal vesicles
143
What forms the slightly alkaline and milky fluid containing calcium, citrate ions phosphate ions, clotting enzyme, and profibrinolysin
prostate gland
144
What 10 amino acid peptide causes the release of LH?
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
145
Where is gonadotropin-releasing hormone produced
neurons located in arcuate nuclei of hypothalamus
146
how is gonadotropin-releasing hormone transported to the anterior pituitary
hypothalamic-hypophyseal system
147
Why does gonadotropin-releasing hormone travel to the anterior pituitary?
to stimulate to produce LH and FSH
148
What hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete testosterone?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
149
Why type of feedback system does testosterone have on the hypothalamus?
Negative
150
What is secreted by Sertoli cells that inhibits the secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary?
Inhibin
It also inhibits secretion of GnRH to a lesser extent
151
What types of female cells convert progesterone to androgen?
Theca cells
152
What type of female cells convert androgens to estrogen
Granulosa cells
153
What stimulates the conversion of androgens to estrogens in granulosa cells?
FSH
154
What type of cell(s) have receptors for LH and LDL?
Theca and Granulosa cells
155
What hormone increases much less drastically than the other two sources. It is secreted in short pulses averaging once every 90 minutes, as occurs in males
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
aka hypothalamic releasing hormone
156
Where is FSH and LH made
anterior pituitary sex hormones
157
What are two examples of ovarian hormones?
estrogen and progesterone
158
What hormone(s) have almost no secretion throughout childhood in the female?
FSH , LH
159
what combines with highly specific receptors in ovarian target cells membranes?
FSH, LH
it's signal transduction involves cAMP second messenger system in most instances leading to formation of protein kinase and multiple phosphorylations
160
What hormone has a sudden increase just before ovulation?
LH
161
Primordial follicles are surrounded by single layers of what type of cells
granulosa cells
162
Throughout childhood what type of cells provide nourishment for the ovum and secrete oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in it primordial state?
granulosa cells
163
When does a slight elevation in body temperature occur in the female>
shortly after ovulation
164
What phase of the female life period happens when there is a dramatic increase in the total urinary gonadotropins
menopause
165
What hormone controls the first half the menstrual cycle
Estradiol (estrogen)
166
What hormone controls the later half of the cycle
progesterone
167
What is the stage of the menstrual called that occur before ovulation that is controlled by estrogen. It is characterized by a progressive thickening of the endometrium due to increasing number of stromal cells
Proliferative stage
168
What is the stage of the menstrual cycle called that is controlled by progesterone, It results in a highly secretory endometrium that contains large amounts of stored nutrients
secretory stage
169
This stage occurs is the ovum is not fertilized, leading to the sudden involutes of the corpus luteum, and decreased stimulation of endometrial cells
Menstruation
170
What uterine phase is from day 1-5
menstruation
171
when in the menstrual cycle does the proliferation phase occur
days 4-14
172
The secretion phase happens between what time periods?
day 14-28
173
What occurs in the ovarian phase between days 5-14
follicular growth
174
At what day during a 28 day cycles does ovulation occur in then ovarian phase?
Day 14
175
An ovarian phase that is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum occurs during what time period?
a. day 05-14
b. day 14-23
c. day 24-28
d. day- 8-17
b. day 14-23
176
What ovarian phase occurs at the end of the menstrual cycle
regression of corpus luteum
