sem 2 exam 2 Flashcards
Which reflex is responsible for polysynaptic excitation of contralateral extensors?
a. Stretch reflex b. Golgi tendon reflex c. Flexor withdrawal reflex d. Subliminal occlusion reflex
c. Flexor withdrawal reflex - associated with opp side
a. myotactic - involves muscle spindles
b. is inverse myotactic
d. who knows what that is
Which of the following is a characteristic of nuclear bag fibers?
a. They are one type of extrafusal muscle fiber
b. They detect dynamic changes in muscle length
c. They give rise to group Ib afferents
d. They are innervated by alpha-motor neurons
b. They detect dynamic changes in muscle length
Muscle stretch leads to a direct increase in firing rate of which type of nerve?
a. Alpha-motor neurons
b. Gamma-motor neurons
c. Groups Ia fibers
d. Group Ib fibers
c. Groups Ia fibers
Muscle stretch going to be in problems of muscle stretch receptors so they are going to be sensory pathways and not motor pathways so a and b can be eliminated
Which part of the cerebral cortex develops a “motor image” of the total muscle movement that is to be performed?
a. Primary motor cortex
b. Supplemental motor cortex
c. Premotor cortex
d. Supplemental sensory cortex
C. premotor cortex
technically it’s B and C premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortices generate a plan for movement
see lecture 10 slide 35
a. primary motor cortex - main output from motor cortex to skeletal; so doesn’t sound like an image to be performed
Which of the following tracts make up the medullary pyramids?
a. Rubrospinal b. Reticulospinal c. Corticospinal d. Vestibulospinal
c. Corticospinal
Which of the following structures is involved in determining the orientation of the head when the head is upright?
a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Crista
d. Semicircular canal
B. Utricle
- locates on horizontal plane
saccule is for when a person is lying down
- located in a+ vertical plane
Which of the following nuclei is not involved in the indirect pathway
a. Putamen b. Thalamic c. Globus pallidus d. Caudate
A. Putamen
Which of the following neurotransmitters is used by the thalamus to signal the motor cortex?
a. GABA b. Ach (Acetylcholine) c. Dopamine d. Glutamate
d. Glutamate
Which of the following nuclei is not involved in the direct pathway?
a. putamen
b. thalamic
c. Globus Pallidus
d. Caudate
D. Caudate
Which of the following excitatory neurotransmitters is used from the motor cortex to the putamen?
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Dopamine
d. Glutamate
B. Acetylcholine
Most of the basal nuclei utilize inhibitory Neurotransmitters. Which of the following is used by most basal nuclei
a. Glutamate
b. GABA
c. Acetylcholine
d. Norepinephrine
B, GABA
Mossy fibers in the cerebellum originate from which of the following areas of the brain?
a. Red nucleus
b. Thalamus
c. Medullary olives
d. Spinocerebellar tract
d. Spinocerebellar tract
can also come from vestiulocerebellar, and pontocerebellar traccts
Of the following pairs of deep (intracerebellar) cerebellar nuclei, which pair is related to postural activity and limb movements via reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts?
a. Dentate b. Emboliform c. Fastigial d. Globose
C. Fastigial
- project to reticular formation and vestibular nuclei
the other 3 lead to extremity ataxia and project to red nucleus
- fine manipulative movement
Climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate from which of the following areas of the brain
a. Red nucleus b. Thalamus c. Medullary olives d. Reticular nuclei
C. Medullary Olives
Which division of the cerebellum is associated with vestibular system and is thought to be the oldest?
a. Anterior lobe
d. Posterior Lobe
c. Flocculonodular
d. vermis
c. Flocculonodular
What somatosensory area of the cerebellar cortex is the location for control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders, and hips?
a. Vermis
b. intermediate zone
c. Lateral zone
d. flocculonodular
a. Vermis
What somatosensory area of the cerebellar cortex is the location concerned with controlling muscle contraction in the distal portions of the upper and lower limbs, esp hands, feet, fingers, and toes?
a. Vermis
b. intermediate zone
c. Lateral zone
d. flocculonodular
b. intermediate zone
What cells in the cerebellar cortex form parallel fibers in the cortex and are excitatory?
a. Golgi cells
b. Basket cells
c. Granular cells
d. Purkinje Cells
c. Granular cells
What type of cells give the only output from cortex and are ALWAYS inhibitory?
a. Golgi cells
b. Basket cells
c. Granular cells
d. Purkinje Cells
d. Purkinje Cells
The Nervous system uses cerebellum to coordinate motor control functions at 3 levels. What level functions in control of balance and eye movements?
a. spinocerebellum
b. cerebrocerebellum
c. vestibulocerebellum
f. reticulocerebellum
c. vestibulocerebellum
The Nervous system uses cerebellum to coordinate motor control functions at 3 levels. What level functions in synergy : control of rate, force, range, and direction of movement?
a. spinocerebellum
b. cerebrocerebellum
c. vestibulocerebellum
f. reticulocerebellum
a. spinocerebellum
The Nervous system uses cerebellum to coordinate motor control functions at 3 levels. What level is involved in coordination of skilled movement and speech?
a. spinocerebellum
b. cerebrocerebellum
c. vestibulocerebellum
f. reticulocerebellum
b. cerebrocerebellum
Which of the following statements is the true about the direct pathway?
a. overall inhibitory
b. for subconscious execution of learned patterns of movement
c. for cognitive planning of sequential and parallel motor patterns
d. tends to decrease motor activity
b. for subconscious execution of learned patterns of movement
all other answers are characteristics of indirect pathway
When Dopamine is in the indirect pathway. What type of receptors are used?
a. D2 receptors
b. D1 receptors
a. D2 receptors
It’s inhibitory!
in direct pathway would use excitatory D1 receptors
Parkinson’s Disease results in the rigidity if body musculature due to loss of dopaminergic pathways. This is a result of a lesion in which basal nuclei?
a. globus pallidus
b. striatum
c. subthalamic nuclei
d. Substantia Nigra
d. Substantia Nigra
In Huntington’s disease GABA neurons are destroyed and the indirect pathway no longer has inhibitory influence on the direct pathway and motor activity is increased leading to flicking movements of individual muscles. Where is the lesion in the basal nuclei?
a. globus pallidus
b. striatum
c. subthalamic nuclei
d. Substantia Nigra
b. striatum
the striatum is composed of the Caudate Nucleus and the Putamen
What area of the brain contains both heat-sensitive and cold sensitive neurons?
a. Anterior hypothalamic pre-optic area
b. Pre-optic area
c. posterior hypothalamus
d. dorsal medial portion of posterior hypothalamus
a. Anterior hypothalamic pre-optic area
area causes sweating
Heating this area immediately causes dilation of skin blood vessels over the entire body, profuse sweating over the entire body, and inhibition of excess heat production.
a. Anterior hypothalamic pre-optic area
b. Pre-optic area
c. posterior hypothalamus
d. none of the above
b. Pre-optic area
What is a fever?
Body temperature above the usual range of normal
avg body temp is 98.6
causes: brain abnormalities surgery in region of hypothalamus prostaglandins lipposaccharides
Interstitial cells of Cajal are associated with which of the following functions?
a. Pacemaker activity for smooth muscle cells
b. Secretory activity of the intestinal mucosa
c. Inhibition of stomach motility and secretion
d. Opening of K channels during intestinal contraction
a. Pacemaker activity for smooth muscle cells
Slow waves set max freq of contraction for GI
The voluntary stage of swallowing ends at which of the following stages?
a. Pharynx b. Upper esophagus c. Lower esophagus d. Antrum of stomach
a. Pharynx
What is the proper sequence of layers making up the gut wall from inside (lumen) toward outside
a. Lamina propria, mucosa, submucosa, circular muscle layer b. Lamina propria , mucosa, serosa, submucosa c. Mucosa, lamina propria, submucosa, serosa d. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis mucosa, circular muscle layer
c. Mucosa, lamina propria, submucosa, serosa
The submucosal (meissner’s )Plexus is primarily responsible for regulating intestinal smooth muscle
a. True b. False
False
Meissner’s controls mainly GI secretion, absorption and local blood flow
Myenteric (Auerbach’s plexus) primarily controls intestinal smooth muscle and participates in tonic and rhythmic contractions
Smooth musculature of the gut wall spike waves occur automatically when the resting membrane potential of the smooth muscle is above -40mv.
a. True b. false
True
Cells in the motor cortex are organized into vertical columns, and each column has 6 layers. What layer(s) do input signals enter?
a. layer 5
b. layer 6
c. layers 2-4
d. layers 3-6
c. layers 2-4
5th layer is pyramidal cells
6th layer have neurons that communicate with other regions of the cerebral cortex
What is true about interneurons?
a, 30x as numerous as anterior motor neurons
b. small and highly excitable
c. capable of spontaneous activity
d. responsible for most of spinal cord integrative function
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
anterior motor neurons (efferents) are _____ which give rise to A alpha fibers
a. gamma neurons
b. interneurons
c. alpha motor neurons
d. pyramidal cells
c. alpha motor neurons
Renshaw cells located in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and receive collateral branches from alpha motor neurons. What do the signals they transmit result in?
a. lateral excitability to surrounding neurons
b. lateral inhibition to surrounding motor neurons
c. recurrent inhibition to same motor neuron
d. B and C
e. A and C
d. B and C
The pyramidal system composed of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts are classified according to where they synapse in the ventral horn. What activation system is associated with distally located muscles used for fine movements?
a. medial activation system
b. nonspecific activation system
c. superior activation system
d. lateral activation system
d. lateral activation system
medial innervates postural and girdle muscles
nonspecific facilitates local reflex arcs
Lesions in this tract cause impairment of distal arm and hand movement and intention tremors (similar to celebellar lesions)
a. corticospinal tracts
b. rubrospinal tract
c. vestibulospinar tract
d. reticulospinal tract
b. rubrospinal tract
- decussates in midbrain
- descends in lateral column
- function closely related to cerebellar function
What spinal tract is primarily involved in maintenance of an upright posture?
a. corticospinal tracts
b. rubrospinal tract
c. vestibulospinar tract
d. reticulospinal tract
c. vestibulospinar tract
This tract is thought to mediate larger movements of trunk and limbs that do not require balance or fine movements of upper limbs.
a. corticospinal tracts
b. rubrospinal tract
c. vestibulospinar tract
d. reticulospinal tract
d. reticulospinal tract
Each macula is covers by a gelatinous layer and contains a large number of embedded small calcium carbonate crystals called…?
a. cilia
b. kinocilium
c. statoconia
d. hair cells
c. statoconia
they bend cilia in the direction of gravitational pull
climbing fibers make multiple synapses with Purkinje cells and “condition” the. They also play a role in motor learning. What type of spikes do they provide?
a. complex
b. simple
c. slow
d. fast
a. complex; they provide high frequency outbursts
mossy fibers result in simple spike and synapse on granule cells in glomeruli
What inhibitory neurotransmitter do Purkinje cells utilize to modulate output of cerebellum and provide synergy?
a. dopamine
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. glutamate
b. GABA
Dysmetria
subconscious motor can’t predict how far movements will go, so they overshoot and then conscious brain overcompensates
Ataxia
uncoordinated movements
disdiadochokinesia
inability to perform rapid alternating movements
- loses perception of the parts during rapid motor movements
Dysarthria
failure of progression in talking
- lack of coordination of structures used in talking => unintelligable speech
Cerebellar nystagmus
tremor of the eyeballs
- when one tries to fixates eyes on scene to side of head
A strong stimulation of sweat glands leads to ducts reabsorbing only half (50 to 60 mEq/L) of sodium and chloride ions and little water
a. True
B. false
True
Aspirin decreases the set-point temperature by inhibiting cyclooxygenase which results in a decreasing this component.
a. IL-1
b. prostaglandins
c. toxins
d. phagocytic cells
b. prostaglandins
This 17 amino acid hormone is activated after a large meal to stimulate gastric acid secretion by parietal cells and mucosal growth
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secretin
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
a. Gastrin
This 33 amino acid hormone responds to small peptides, amino acids, fatty acids, and monoglycerides. It inhibits gastric emptying and appetite but stimulates pancreatic secretions and contraction of gallbladder
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secretin
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
b. CCK
This 27 amino acid hormone is stimulated when acid and fat are in the lumen of the duodenum. It inhibits gastric acid by parietal cells but stimulates pepsin secretion, pancreatic bicarbonate and growth of exocrine pancreas
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secretin
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
c. Secretin
This 42 amino acid hormone is only GI hormone released in response to protein, fat, and carbohydrate. It’s also released in response to orally administered glucose because it stimulates insulin release while inhibiting gastric acid secretion by parietal cells
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secretin
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
What hormone factor that controls feedback from the duodenum is the most potent?
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secretin
d. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP)
b. CCK
At low flow rates saliva has the lowest sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ion concentrations with high potassium concentrations. What happens to the composition at high flow rates?
a. decrease in Na and Cl but increase in K
b. increase in everything
c. higher Na and Cl and lower K
d. no change
c. higher Na and Cl and lower K
at low flow rate have lowest osmolarity but at high rates composition closest to that of plasma
Is the flow and concentration of saliva modified in the first stage or second stage of salivary secretion?
Second stage
first stage in acini whereas second in salivary ducts
What is the main driving force for HCL secretion by parietal cells?
a. dissociation of water inside the cell
b. the exchange of HCO3- for chloride
c. Cl- ions secreted through Cl- channels into the canaliculi
d. the potassium-hydrogen pump
d. the potassium-hydrogen pump
There are two routes to parasympathetic GI innervation. to increase H+ secretion. What way utilizes Ach and muscarinic receptor by CN X innervating parietal cells.
a. indirect
b. direct
b. direct
indirect
- CN X innervates G cells
- Gastrin stimulated not directly
- uses GRP (gastrin-releasing peptide) as neurotransmitter
What gastric secretion is a direct inhibitor antagonistic to stimulatory action of histamine?
a. gastrin
b. histamine
c. Somatostatin
d. prostaglandins
c. Somatostatin
- also works indirect by inhibiting the release of histamine and gastrin
another inhibitor is prostaglandind by inhibiting the adenyl cyclase
What enzyme is a digestive enzyme for carbohydrates
a. trypsin
b. pancreatic lipase
c. chymotrypsin
d. pancreatic amylase
d. pancreatic amylase
This enzyme is secreted by glandular cells and is necessary to prevent the action of trypsin on pancreatic tissues while digesting proteins.
a. trypsin inhibitor
b. chymotrypsin
c. bicarbonate
d. pancreatic lipase
a. trypsin inhibitor
This regulator of pancreatic secretions stimulates the release of large amounts of sodium bicarbonate by ductal cells
a. Acetylcholine
b. cholecystokinin
c. secretin
c. secretin
Only the absorption of this sugar is entirely facilitated diffusion
a. glucose
b. lactose
c. galactose
d. fructose
d. fructose
What type of transport aids in the absorption of glucose and galactose?
a. active then secondary active transport
using a sodium co-transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
d. active transport
e. a and b
e. a and b
The end products of which pathway consist of 2 pyruvic acids, 4 hydrogens, and 2 ATPs?
a. glycolysis
b. Citric Acid Cycle
c. Pentose phosphate pathway
d. Oxidative Phosphorylation
a. glycolysis
What is the end products of the conversion of Pyruvic acid?
a. 2 pyruvic acids, 4 hydrogens, and 2 ATPs
b. 16 H’s, 2 ATP and 4 CO2
c. 2 Acetyl-CoA, 4 H’s and 2 CO2
d. 2 Acetyl-CoA. 6 H2O and 2 ADP
c. 2 Acetyl-CoA, 4 H’s and 2 CO2
The end products of which pathway consist of 16 H’s, 2 ATP and 4 CO2?
a. glycolysis
b. Citric Acid Cycle
c. Pentose phosphate pathway
d. Oxidative Phosphorylation
b. Citric Acid Cycle
This major component of the electron transport chain is located on the inner membrane and can give up two electrons to oxygen.
a. flavoprotein
b. Uqibuinone (Q)
c. Cytochrome A3 (cytochrome oxidase)
d. iron sulfide proteins
c. Cytochrome A3 (cytochrome oxidase)
What is the maximum number of ATPs per mole of glucose that can be produced if it completes oxdative phosphorylation?
a. 38
b. 14
c. 12
d. 16
a. 38
How efficient is the body at completely hydrolyzing 1 mole of glucose at body temperature?
a. 75%
b. 66%
c. 15%
d. 85%
b.66%
What pathway can be utilized as an alternate pathway for glucose?
a. oxidative phosphorylation
b. gluconeogenesis
c. TCA cycle
d. Pentose phosphate pathway
d. Pentose phosphate pathway
What pathway is mostly used for the synthesis of fats and other substances?
a. glycolysis
b. Citric Acid Cycle
c. Pentose phosphate pathway
d. Oxidative Phosphorylation
c. Pentose phosphate pathway
the heart, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue synthesize what enzyme that is transported to the surface of capillary epithelial cells to hydrolyze chylomicron triglycerides
a. lipoprotein lipase
b. apoprotein b
c. chylomicron hydrolase
d. HDL lipase
a. lipoprotein lipase
What type of lipoprotein is synthesized by intestinal cells?
a. VLDLs
b. HDLs
c. chylomicrons
d. LDLs
c. chylomicrons
the other 3 plus IDLs are synthesized by liver
What type of lipoprotein has a high concentration of proteins and low concentrations of cholesterol and fatty acids?
a. VLDLs
b. HDLs
c. chylomicrons
d. LDLs
b. HDLs
LDLs have high choleserol and moderate phospholipids
VLDLs have high TAGs and moderate cholesterol and phospholipids
What type of cells become foam cells and form visible fatty streaks?
a. monocytes
b. macrophages
c. adhesion cells
d. neutrophils
b. macrophages
do this from ingesting lipoproteins
What are basic causes of atherosclerosis>
a. increased LDL and great genes
b. increased HDL and defective HDL receptors
c. Increased TAGs and defective LDL receptors
d. increased LDLs and defective LDL receptors
d. increased LDLs and defective LDL receptors
defective LDL receptors known as Familial hypercholesterolemia
