Seizure/Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

VC is a 34 year-old female (height: 5’6”, weight: 156 lbs) who is admitted to the hospital with seizure activity.

Diagnoses
Focal aware seizures
GERD
Hypertension
Diabetes type 2
Medications
Phenytek 300 mg PO daily
Tegretol 400 mg PO daily
Depakote ER 1,500 mg PO daily
Zantac 75 mg PO PRN
Cozaar 100 mg PO daily
Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID
Labs on 4/14:
Na (mEq/L) = 129 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 26 (24 – 30) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 148 (100 – 125) 
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.0 (0.6 – 1.2) 
Ca (mg/dL) = 8.7 (8.5 – 10.5) 
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 – 2.1) 
PO4 (mg/dL) = 2.5 (2.3 – 4.7) 
AST (IU/L) = 12 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 23 (10 – 40) 
Albumin (g/dL) = 2.2 (3.5 – 5) 
A1C (%) = 8.3 
Phenytoin, total = 7.8 mcg/mL
Labs on 6/17:
Na (mEq/L) = 139 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 26 (24 – 30) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 158 (100 – 125) 
AST (IU/L) = 212 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 223 (10 – 40) 
Albumin (g/dL) = 2.5 (3.5 – 5)
Question

Which of VC’s medications is most likely causing the laboratory results on 4/14?
Answer

A
Tegretol
B
Depakote ER
C
Zantac
D
Cozaar
E
Metformin
A

Tegretol can cause hyponatremia.

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2
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Tegretol?
Answer

A
5-15 mcg/mL
B
4-8 mcg/mL
C
4-12 mcg/mL
D
20-40 mcg/mL
E
50-100 mcg/mL
A

C

4-12 mcg/mL

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3
Q

VC is a 34 year-old female (height: 5’6”, weight: 156 lbs) who is admitted to the hospital with seizure activity.

Diagnoses
Focal aware seizures
GERD
Hypertension
Diabetes type 2
Medications
Phenytek 300 mg PO daily
Tegretol 400 mg PO daily
Depakote ER 1,500 mg PO daily
Zantac 75 mg PO PRN
Cozaar 100 mg PO daily
Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID
Labs on 4/14:
Na (mEq/L) = 129 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 26 (24 – 30) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 148 (100 – 125) 
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.0 (0.6 – 1.2) 
Ca (mg/dL) = 8.7 (8.5 – 10.5) 
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 – 2.1) 
PO4 (mg/dL) = 2.5 (2.3 – 4.7) 
AST (IU/L) = 12 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 23 (10 – 40) 
Albumin (g/dL) = 2.2 (3.5 – 5) 
A1C (%) = 8.3 
Phenytoin, total = 7.8 mcg/mL
Labs on 6/17:
Na (mEq/L) = 139 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 26 (24 – 30) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 158 (100 – 125) 
AST (IU/L) = 212 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 223 (10 – 40) 
Albumin (g/dL) = 2.5 (3.5 – 5)
Question

VC is not tolerating orals. What is the equivalent total daily dose of Phenytek if given intravenous?
Answer

A
300 mg
B
450 mg
C
600 mg
D
900 mg
E
1,200 mg
A

Phenytek IV:PO ratio is 1:1. Therefore, the dose of Phenytek given IV should be 300 mg per day.

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4
Q
Labs on 6/17:
Na (mEq/L) = 139 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 26 (24 – 30) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 158 (100 – 125) 
AST (IU/L) = 212 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 223 (10 – 40) 
Albumin (g/dL) = 2.5 (3.5 – 5)
Question

Besides the labs obtained on 6/17, what other laboratory values should be monitored since VC is taking Tegretol?
Answer

A
CBC with differential
B
PFTs
C
Chest X-ray
D
CT scan
E
aPTT
A

Correct

Patients taking Tegretol should have their CBC with differential monitored.

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5
Q

Which of the following pairs of terms is not correctly matched?
Answer

A
Focal seizures - start on one side of the brain
B
Focal aware seizure - previously called generalized partial seizure
C
Focal seizure with impaired awareness - previously called complex partial seizure
D
Generalized seizures - start on both sides of the brain
E
Generalized seizure - loss of consciousness or awareness during the seizure

A

B
Focal aware seizure - previously called generalized partial seizure

Focal aware seizure is the updated term for what was previously called a simple partial seizure

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6
Q

Which of the following are boxed warnings for valproate and divalproex? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Pulmonary fibrosis
B
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
C
Teratogenicity
D
Hepatic failure
E
Pancreatitis
A
C
Teratogenicity
D
Hepatic failure
E
Pancreatitis

Incorrect
Boxed warnings include hepatic failure, pancreatitis and teratogenicity.

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7
Q

Side effects of divalproex sodium may include the following: (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Thrombocytopenia
B
Tachypnea
C
Extrapyramidal symptoms
D
Weight gain
E
Hair loss
A
A
Thrombocytopenia
D
Weight gain
E
Hair loss

Weight gain and hair loss (alopecia) are associated with divalproex. Dose-related thrombocytopenia is a warning for valproate products.

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8
Q

A 28 year-old male has been diagnosed with seizures. He continues to have seizures despite receiving multiple antiepileptic drugs. His doctor has prescribed a specific diet that can help reduce seizures in patients who are refractory. Which of the following diets is used for this purpose?
Answer

A
Low sodium
B
Mediterranean
C
Low cholesterol
D
Ketogenic
E
High carbohydrate
A

D
Ketogenic

The ketogenic diet is high in fats and low in carbohydrates (4:1 fat to carb+protein) and induces a state of ketosis that can decrease seizure frequency.

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9
Q

Which of the following side effects/adverse drug reactions are possible with the use of zonisamide? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Pancreatitis
B
Contraindicated in sulfa allergy
C
Weight loss
D
Decreased sweating
E
Kidney stones
A
B
Contraindicated in sulfa allergy
C
Weight loss
D
Decreased sweating
E
Kidney stones

Incorrect
Zonisamide is a sulfonamide and is contraindicated in sulfonamide allergy.

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10
Q

Which of the following anticonvulsants are associated with oligohydrosis?
Answer

A
Topiramate
B
Phenytoin
C
Carbamazepine
D
Lamotrigine
E
Lacosamide
A

A
Topiramate

Topiramate and zonisamide can cause oligohydrosis (decreased sweating). Oligohydrosis is most prominent in children.

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11
Q

JW comes to pick up her seizure medication, Lamictal. Which of the following statements concerning Lamictal is true?
Answer

A
This medication can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
B
This medication can cause reductions in vitamin D.
C
This medication requires monthly monitoring of platelet counts.
D
This medication requires a slow dose titration.
E
The brand name is Keppra.

A

D
This medication requires a slow dose titration.

Lamictal requires a slow dose titration to reduce the risk of rash.

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12
Q

A patient who started taking antiepileptic drugs 2 years ago commented to her prescriber that she has seen an increase in body hair. Which antiepileptic drug is associated with this effect?
Answer

A
Carbamazapine
B
Lamotrigine
C
Phenobarbital
D
Phenytoin
E
Valproate
A

D
Phenytoin

Long-term complications of phenytoin therapy can include hirsutism (increased hair growth), gingival hyperplasia, osteoporosis, and peripheral neuropathy.

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13
Q

A hospital pharmacist is preparing a phenytoin injection. The pharmacist should use the following diluent:
Answer

A
Lactated ringers
B
Sterile water
C
D5W
D
D20W
E
NS
A

E
NS

Phenytoin should be diluted in NS only. It is administered in a large vein (extravasation can cause tissue necrosis), with an inline 0.22 micron filter.

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes the kinetics of phenytoin?
Answer

A
Phenytoin exhibits kinetics consistent with the Frank-Starling curve.
B
Phenytoin exhibits first order kinetics only.
C
Phenytoin exhibits second order kinetics only.
D
Phenytoin exhibits first order, then zero order kinetics.
E
Phenytoin exhibits zero order, then first order kinetics.

A

D
Phenytoin exhibits first order, then zero order kinetics.

Incorrect
Phenytoin exhibits first order, followed by zero order kinetics (also known as saturable or Michaelis-Menten kinetics)

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15
Q

Which of the following statements concerning oxcarbazepine is correct?
Answer

A
The brand name is Tegretol.
B
Serum sodium levels need to be monitored for the first 3 months of therapy.
C
If patients have a hypersensitivity reaction on carbamazepine, there is little-to-no risk of the same reaction if switched to oxcarbazepine.
D
IV to oral ratio is 1:1.
E
This medication is not associated with osteoporosis.

A

B
Serum sodium levels need to be monitored for the first 3 months of therapy.
Due to the risk of hyponatremia, serum sodium needs to be monitored for the first 3 months of oxcarbazepine therapy.

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16
Q

Which anticonvulsant requires genetic testing prior to use in persons of Asian descent?
Answer

A
Divalproex sodium
B
Zonisamide
C
Carbamazepine
D
Levetiracetam
E
Gabapentin
Correct
Carbamazepine has boxed warnings for serious skin reactions, including SJS and TEN. If of Asian descent, the patient should be tested prior to therapy.
A

C
Carbamazepine

Correct
Carbamazepine has boxed warnings for serious skin reactions, including SJS and TEN. If of Asian descent, the patient should be tested prior to therapy.

17
Q

A young woman has been using Topamax for migraine prophylaxis. She may be interested to know that the FDA has issued a warning regarding the risk for this type of birth defect in children born to women taking Topamax during pregnancy. The warning concerned the following birth defect:
Answer

A
Shortened stature
B
Mental retardation
C
Spina bifida
D
Tetralogy of Fallot
E
Cleft lip and/or palate
A

E

Cleft lip and/or palate

18
Q

Claire Biao, a thirteen year old Asian female, has been prescribed carbamazepine. Which allele should be tested prior to initiation of therapy?
Answer

A
1502
B
1503
C
5701
D
3103
E
2C19*2
A

A

1502

19
Q

An 8 year old girl is prescribed Zarontin. She has 2 to 3 Hertz spiking wave discharge on her EEG. Zarontin is primarily used for this type of seizure:
Answer

A
Generalized seizures
B
Partial seizures
C
Complex partial seizures
D
Absence seizures
E
Status epilepticus
A

D
Absence seizures

Zarontin is indicated for the control of absence seizures. Electroencephalogram (EEG) is commonly used to diagnose epilepsy.

20
Q

Which of the following medications are known to cause seizures? (Select ALL that apply).
Answer

A
Demerol
B
Ultram
C
Cleocin
D
Primaxin
E
Zyban
Incorrect
The risk is often dose-related; do not exceed maximum dosage limits. The meperidine metabolite normeperidine increases the risk; this metabolite accumulates in patients with renal impairment.
A

A
Demerol
B
Ultram

D
Primaxin
E
Zyban

Incorrect
The risk is often dose-related; do not exceed maximum dosage limits. The meperidine metabolite normeperidine increases the risk; this metabolite accumulates in patients with renal impairment.

21
Q

A 12 year-old girl with refractory Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is prescribed felbamate. A medication informed consent needs to be completed before starting therapy. The neurologist asks the pharmacist to educate the patient and her family on the boxed warnings of felbamate which include:
Answer

A
Renal and hepatic failure
B
Serious skin reactions and hepatic failure
C
Pneumonitis and renal failure
D
Hepatic failure and aplastic anemia
E
Pneumonitis and serious skin reactions
A

D
Hepatic failure and aplastic anemia

Correct
Hepatic failure and aplastic anemia are boxed warnings associated with the use of felbamate.

22
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning fosphenytoin:
Answer

A
Phenytoin is the prodrug of fosphenytoin.
B
Fosphenytoin does not have a maximum rate of infusion.
C
Fosphenytoin is reconstituted in saline solution only.
D
Fosphenytoin can be given by intramuscular injection.
E
Fosphenytoin is available in oral tablets, solution and injection.

A

D
Fosphenytoin can be given by intramuscular injection.

Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) is a prodrug of phenytoin that is available only as an injection. An advantage to fosphenytoin is that it can be given IM, and it can be mixed with either NS or D5W.

23
Q

JM has been taking primidone for many years. Primidone is similar in side effect profile to this drug:
Answer

A
Levetiracetam
B
Gabapentin
C
Phenobarbital
D
Felbamate
E
Ethosuximide
Correct
Primidone is a prodrug of phenobarbital and causes similar side effects.
A

C
Phenobarbital

Primidone is a prodrug of phenobarbital and causes similar side effects.

24
Q

What is the maximum infusion rate for fosphenytoin?
Answer

A
50 mg PE/mL
B
50 mg PE/min
C
100 mg PE/min
D
150 mg PE/mL
E
150 mg PE/min
A

E
150 mg PE/min
Incorrect
The maximum infusion rate for fosphenytoin is 150 mg PE/min.