Arrhythmias Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents with a supraventricular tachycardia. The rhythm is terminated with adenosine. Which of the following correctly describes the pharmacology of adenosine?
Answer

A
Beta-1 receptor agonist
B
Calcium channel antagonist
C
Potassium channel agonist
D
Sodium channel antagonist
E
Adenosine receptor agonist
A

E
Adenosine receptor agonist

Adenosine works by activating A1 receptors in the AV node, causing transient AV block which can terminate re-entrant arrhythmias involving the AV node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to control ventricular rate in a patient presenting in atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response?
Answer

A
Quinidine
B
Digoxin
C
Lidocaine
D
Procainamide
E
Mexiletine
A

B
Digoxin

Incorrect
Digoxin acts to slow AV nodal conduction through a vagal effect. Although not effective for preventing exercise induced increases in heart rate, it does decrease resting heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pharmacist has received a new prescription for oral amiodarone for JC. The pharmacist will counsel the patient on risks to which organs with amiodarone therapy?
Answer

A
Liver, kidney, and eyes
B
Liver, colon, and kidney
C
Kidney, gall bladder, and CNS
D
Thyroid, pancreas, and liver
E
Thyroid, liver, and lungs
A

E

Thyroid, liver, and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The commonly accepted therapeutic range for digoxin differs when used for heart failure versus atrial fibrillation. What is the therapeutic range for digoxin when used for atrial fibrillation?
Answer

A
< 0.5 ng/mL
B
0.5 - 0.9 ng/mL
C
0.8 - 2 ng/mL
D
2.5 - 3.5 ng/mL
E
5 - 10 ng/mL
A

C
0.8 - 2 ng/mL

The therapeutic range for digoxin when used for atrial fibrillation is higher (0.8 - 2 ng/mL) than when used for heart failure (0.5 - 0.9 ng/mL).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

JC is a 64 year-old male with a past medical history of NYHA Class III heart failure, dyslipidemia and hypertension. He smokes ½ pack of cigarettes daily.

Medications: 
Digoxin 0.25 mg daily
Lasix 40 mg daily
Coreg CR 20 mg daily
Lovastatin 80 mg with dinner
Lisinopril 40 mg daily
Physical Exam / Vitals: 
Height: 6’1” Weight: 199 pounds 
BP: 151/75 mmHg HR: 56 BPM 
RR: 14 BPM Temp: 98.2°F Pain: 2/10 
CV: RRR
Pulm: lungs clear
Ext: trace edema
Labs:
Na (mEq/L) = 137 (135 – 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 3.2 (3.5 – 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 101 (95 – 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 25 (24 – 30) 
BUN (mg/dL) = 43 (7 – 20) 
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.4 (0.6 – 1.3) 
Glucose (mg/dL) = 132 (100 – 125) 
Ca (mg/dL) = 8.9 (8.5 – 10.5) 
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.5 (1.3 – 2.1) 
PO4 (mg/dL) = 2.6 (2.3 – 4.7) 
INR = 1.1 (0 - 1.2) 
PT (sec) = 13 (10 - 13)
aPTT (sec) = 36 (22 – 38)
A1C (%) = 6.4
WBC (cells/mm3) = 6.2 (4 – 11 x 103)
Hgb (g/dL) = 14.5 (13.5 – 18 male)
Hct (%) = 43.4 (38 – 50 male)
Plt (cells/mm3) = 342 (150 – 450 x 103)
AST (IU/L) = 54 (10 – 40) 
ALT (IU/L) = 49 (10 – 40)
Digoxin (ng/mL) = 0.9 (indication specific)
Albumin (g/dL) = 3.5 (3.5 – 5)

Question

The pharmacist has received a new prescription for oral amiodarone for JC. Before the prescription is filled, the pharmacist should call the prescriber to recommend the following medication change/s: (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Decrease dose of lovastatin.
B
Discontinue lisinopril.
C
Increase dose of digoxin.
D
Decrease dose of digoxin.
E
Increase dose of Lasix.
Incorrect
A
A
Decrease dose of lovastatin.
D
Decrease dose of digoxin.
Amiodarone is an inhibitor of CYP 2C9, 2D6, 3A4 and p-glycoprotein. When starting amiodarone, the dose of digoxin must be decreased by 30-50%. Lovastatin (Mevacor) should not exceed a maximum daily dose of 40 mg in patients on amiodarone.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the goal resting heart rate in patients with symptomatic atrial fibrillation?
Answer

A
HR < 150 BPM
B
HR < 110 BPM
C
HR < 100 BPM
D
HR < 80 BPM
E
HR < 60 BPM
A

D
HR < 80 BPM

In patients with symptomatic atrial fibrillation, heart rate should be maintained at < 80 BPM. A higher goal may be appropriate (< 110 BPM) in asymptomatic patients with preserved EF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A prescriber calls to speak to a pharmacist. A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) was reported on his patient’s labs. The pharmacist realizes that several drugs can cause this. Which antiarrhythmic drug carries a boxed warning regarding this?
Answer

A
Sotalol
B
Propafenone
C
Amiodarone
D
Dofetilide
E
Procainamide
A

E
Procainamide

Procainamide is notable for causing drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE) in up to 20-30% of patients who use it long-term. A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA), though generally nonspecific, points toward SLE or DILE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

JC has been using amiodarone for nine months. Long-term therapy with amiodarone can cause the following thyroid problems: (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Hypothyroidism, as demonstrated by a high TSH and low FT4
B
Hypothyroidism, as demonstrated by a low TSH and high FT4
C
Hyperthyroidism, as demonstrated by a low TSH and high FT4
D
Hyperthyroidism, as demonstrated by a high TSH and low FT4
E
Amiodarone does not affect the thyroid

A

A
Hypothyroidism, as demonstrated by a high TSH and low FT4
C
Hyperthyroidism, as demonstrated by a low TSH and high FT4

Amiodarone-induced thyroid dysfunction occurs in about 4% of patients. The effects range from abnormal thyroid function test findings to overt hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism. All patients taking amiodarone should be monitored for symptoms that could indicate thyroid dysfunction and have thyroid function monitored with labs (FT4 and TSH) on a regular basis. Refer to the Thyroid Disorders chapter for interpretation TSH and FT4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The pharmacist overhears the cardiologist saying that a “rate control strategy” will be used for a patient. Which group of medications is most appropriate for a patient being treated with a rate control strategy?
Answer

A
Dofetilide + aspirin
B
Digoxin + flecainide
C
Diltiazem + clopidogrel
D
Propafenone + warfarin
E
Metoprolol + apixaban
A

E
Metoprolol + apixaban

When treating atrial fibrilation, a decision must be made between a rate and rhythm control strategy. With the rate control strategy, the patient remains in atrial fibrillation with a rate controlling medication(s) and stroke prophylaxis (with aspirin or anticoagulation) based on CHADS2 score (refer to the Anticoagulation chapter). Clopidogrel (and other P2Y12 inhibitors) are not appropriate by themselves for stroke prophylaxis. P2Y12 inhibitors can be used with aspirin in a patient who does not tolerate oral anticoagulation, but this is not common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MJ is a 52 year old male with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, hypertension and dyslipidemia.

Medications: 
Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
Norvasc 10 mg daily
Quinidine gluconate 324 mg Q12H
Xarelto 20 mg with dinner
Lipitor 10 mg daily

Question:
The patient calls his pharmacist because he read online about cinchonism caused by quinidine. The pharmacist can reassure the patient that cinchonism is usually reversible if the drug is stopped and by counseling him to watch for the following signs/symptoms of cinchonism:
Answer

A
Ringing in the ears, blurred vision, confusion
B
Dry mouth, constipation and urinary retention
C
Confusion, tremor and dyspnea
D
Loss of smell, gingival hyperplasia and headache
E
Blurred vision, blue skin discoloration and insomnia

A

A
Ringing in the ears, blurred vision, confusion
Correct
Quinidine comes from the bark of the cinchona tree. Cinchonism is a well-known (and frequently tested) side effect of quinidine, though this antiarrhythmic is rarely used in contemporary practice. Common complaints in cinchonism include tinnitus (ringing in the ears), headache, confusion and blurred vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding amiodarone is correct?
Answer

A
Long intravenous infusions should be administered in glass or polyolefin containers.
B
Amiodarone is available only as an intravenous injection.
C
Amiodarone is administered four times per day when treating arrhythmias.
D
Unlike other antiarrhythmic drugs, amiodarone is not proarrhythmic.
E
Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored for tachycardia and hypertension.

A

A
Long intravenous infusions should be administered in glass or polyolefin containers.
Amiodarone infusions longer than 2 hours must be aministered in non-PVC containers. When administered orally, it is generally given once or twice daily (which makes sense based on its half-life). Bradycardia and hypotension are expected side effects due to beta blocking properties of amiodarone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CAST is a landmark arrhythmia trial. Patients were randomized to use of certain antiarrhythmic drugs vs placebo to suppress PVCs after MI. Which antiarrhythmic was associated with increased mortality in CAST?
Answer

A
Amiodarone
B
Flecainide
C
Ibutilide
D
Quinidine
E
Mexiletine
A

B
Flecainide

Two Class Ic antiarrhythmics, flecainide and encainide (now discontinued), were studied in CAST and associated with increased mortality. Today all Class I antiarrhythmics carry a boxed warning about increased mortality in this specific population (non-life threatening ventricular arrhythmias in post-MI patients). Flecainide is still recommended for certain patients in guidelines for atrial fibrillation. CAST did not involve patients with atrial arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following are well-established side effects of amiodarone therapy? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Hemolytic anemia
B
Taste perversions
C
Hypothyroidism
D
Microdeposits in the cornea
E
Photosensitivity
A
C
Hypothyroidism
D
Microdeposits in the cornea
E
Photosensitivity

Hypothyroidism, corneal microdeposits and photosensitivity are well-established side effects of amiodarone. Other common side effects include nausea, dizziness, hypotension and bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lopressor acts as an antiarrhythmic by blocking which of the following ion channels in the SA and AV nodes?
Answer

A
Sodium
B
Potassium
C
Calcium
D
Chloride
E
Magnesium
A

C
Calcium

Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers act as antiarrhythmics by blocking calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The primary pathway of metabolism of procainamide is:
Answer

A
Oxidation
B
Esterification
C
Glucuronidation
D
Acetylation
E
Sulfation
A

D
Acetylation

Procainamide is metabolized in the liver by acetylation to N-acetylprocainamide (NAPA), an active metabolite. Both compounds contribute to the efficacy of the drug as an antiarrhythmic. Due to ethnic and individual differences in acetylation status, the ratio of procainamide and NAPA is different in each patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient with heart failure (EF 22%) uses lisinopril, carvedilol, spironolactone, furosemide, clopidogrel, digoxin, cholestyramine and potassium. He was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Which of the following agents is preferred to manage the patient’s atrial fibrillation?
Answer

A
Verapamil
B
Amiodarone
C
Adenosine
D
Quinidine
E
Procainamide
A

B
Amiodarone

The question does not specify rate vs rhythm control, but it does not matter based on the answer choices. Amiodarone is a preferred antiarrhythmic for patients with heart failure. Non-DHP CCBs and Class I antiarrhythmics should not be used in heart failure patients with reduced EF (HFrEF) because they are negative inotropes (i.e., they reduce contractility of the heart). Adenosine is not used for AF.

17
Q

Dofetilide must be started (or restarted) in the inpatient setting in order to facilitate required monitoring of which of the following? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Thyroid function tests
B
Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C
ECG
D
Liver function
E
Renal function
A
C
ECG
E
Renal function
Dofetilide must be initiated in a hospitalized setting. The initial dose is chosen and adjusted based on the patient's renal function and QTc.
18
Q

Which drug is correctly matched with its Vaughan Williams class?
Answer

A
Flecainde:Class III
B
Amiodarone:Class Ia
C
Lopressor:Class III
D
Cardizem:Class IV
E
Xylocaine:Class II
A

D

Cardizem:Class IV

19
Q
Which drugs are class 1a antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • Disopyramide (Norpace): PO
  • Quinidine: PO/IV
  • Procainamide: IV
20
Q
Which drugs are class 1b antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • Lidocaine: IV

- Mexiletine: PO

21
Q
Which drugs are class 1c antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • Flecainide: PO

- Propafenone (Rythmol, Rythmol SR): PO

22
Q
Which drugs are class II antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • Beta blockers (Except Sotalol)

- Work by blocking calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes

23
Q
Which drugs are class III antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • Amiodarone (Pacerone, Nexterone): PO/IV
  • Dronedarone (Multaq): PO
  • Sotalol (Betapace, Sotylize, Sorine) -Non-selective beta-blocker: PO/IV
  • Ibutilide (Corvert): IV
  • Dofetilide (Tikosyn): PO
24
Q
Which drugs are class IV antiarrhythmics? (Brand and generic)
Available formulations?
A
  • NDP-CCB’s
  • Diltiazem (Cardizem, Cartia XT, etc): PO/IV
  • Verapamil (Calan, Covera, Verelan): PO/IV